00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
-- : --
Average Question Time ( Secs)
Retry this test Dashboard

  • Question 1 - Discontinuous capillaries are typically found where in the body: ...

    Incorrect

    • Discontinuous capillaries are typically found where in the body:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reticuloendothelial system

      Explanation:

      Discontinuous capillaries, found in the reticuloendothelial system (bone marrow, liver and spleen), have large gaps between endothelial cells and are permeable to red blood cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Glucagon is contraindicated in which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Glucagon is contraindicated in which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is contraindicated in pheochromocytoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A 66-year-old female with a history of stroke one year ago presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old female with a history of stroke one year ago presents to the Family Medicine clinic complaining of fatigue, weight loss, and tongue discolouration. On examination, she seems malnourished, her tongue is beefy red, and an ataxic gait pattern is noticed.

      Which ONE of the following conditions does this patient most likely have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      A history of stroke and poor nutritional status points towards a nutritional deficiency as the most likely cause of her symptoms. The examination would differentiate between Vitamin B12 and Folic acid deficiency as in the former. The patient has a beefy red tongue and symptoms indicating peripheral nervous system involvement or subacute combined spinal cord degeneration. The patient may also have a lemon-yellow skin colour, loss of proprioception and vibratory sense and oral ulceration.

      Investigations in B12 deficiency can reveal the following:
      1. Macrocytic anaemia
      2. Neutropoenia
      3. Thrombocytopaenia
      4. Blood film: anisocytosis, poikilocytosis
      5. Low serum B12
      6. Raised serum bilirubin (haemolysis)
      7. Intrinsic factor antibodies
      8. Positive Schilling test

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 16-year old boy is brought to the emergency room after suffering a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year old boy is brought to the emergency room after suffering a traffic accident. Upon examination, there is noted ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration, ipsilateral motor loss, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. A spinal cord injury is given as a diagnosis.

      Which of the following is the most probable cause of this manifestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brown-Séquard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Brown-Sequard Hemicord Syndrome consists of ipsilateral weakness (corticospinal tract) and loss of joint position and vibratory sense (posterior column), with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense (spinothalamic tract) one or two levels below the lesion. Segmental signs, such as radicular pain, muscle atrophy, or loss of a deep tendon reflex, are unilateral. Partial forms are more common than the fully developed syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old carpenter presented to the emergency room with a laceration of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old carpenter presented to the emergency room with a laceration of his upper volar forearm. Upon further exploration and observation, it was revealed that the nerve that innervates the pronator teres muscle has been damaged.

      Which of the following nerves is most likely damaged in the case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The median nerve

      Explanation:

      Pronator teres syndrome (PTS) is caused by a compression of the median nerve (MN) by the pronator teres (PT) muscle in the forearm.

      The median nerve, C6 and C7, innervates the pronator teres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements regarding the pituitary gland is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding the pituitary gland is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cortisol inhibits release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the anterior pituitary.

      Explanation:

      Anterior pituitary hormones are released under the control of hypothalamic releasing or inhibiting hormones originating from small neurons with their cell bodies in the hypothalamus and released into the blood at the median eminence. These hypothalamic hormones are transported directly to the anterior pituitary via hypophyseal portal vessels. The anterior pituitary hormones (and the hormones released by their target organs) inhibit further release of hypothalamic and anterior pituitary hormones by negative feedback mechanisms e.g. cortisol inhibits the release of ACTH. Prolactin release from the anterior pituitary is inhibited by dopamine.The posterior pituitary is really a direct extension of the hypothalamus. Oxytocin and ADH are manufactured in the cell bodies of large neurons in the hypothalamus and are transported down the axons of these cells to their terminals on capillaries originating from the inferior hypophyseal artery within the posterior pituitary gland. ADH release is controlled by negative feedback mechanisms based on plasma osmolality and blood volume, oxytocin however is involved in positive feedback mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Compliance is decreased by all but which one of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Compliance is decreased by all but which one of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aging

      Explanation:

      Factors increasing compliance:
      Old age
      Emphysema

      Factors decreasing compliance:
      Pulmonary fibrosis
      Pulmonary oedema
      Atelectasis
      Extremes of lung volumes (at higher lung volumes the compliance of the lung becomes less as the lung becomes stiffer)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Which nerve innervates the brachioradialis muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve innervates the brachioradialis muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Brachioradialis is innervated by the radial nerve (from the root values C5-C6) that stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old man, a known case of epilepsy, visits his neurologist with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man, a known case of epilepsy, visits his neurologist with complaints of red, swollen gums.

      Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin is a commonly used antiepileptic drug. A well-recognized side-effect of phenytoin is gingival enlargement and occurs in about 50% of patients receiving phenytoin. It is believed that reduced folate levels may cause this, and evidence suggests that folic acid supplementation may help prevent this in patients starting phenytoin.

      As evidence suggests, drug-induced gingival enlargement may also improve by substituting with other anticonvulsant drugs and reinforcing a good oral hygiene regimen. Surgical excision of hyperplastic gingiva is often necessary to correct the aesthetic and functional impairment associated with this condition to manage it successfully.

      Phenytoin is also the only anticonvulsant therapy associated with the development of Dupuytren’s contracture.
      Other side effects are:
      1. Ataxia
      2. Drug-induced lupus
      3. Hirsutism
      4. Pruritic rash
      5. Megaloblastic anaemia
      6. Nystagmus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man presents with headaches, lethargy, hypertension, and electrolyte disturbance. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with headaches, lethargy, hypertension, and electrolyte disturbance. A diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism is made.

      Which biochemical pictures would best support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      When there are excessive levels of aldosterone outside of the renin-angiotensin axis, primary hyperaldosteronism occurs. High renin levels will lead to secondary hyperaldosteronism.

      The classical presentation of hyperaldosteronism when symptoms are present include:
      Hypokalaemia
      Metabolic alkalosis
      Hypertension
      Normal or slightly raised sodium levels

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old female has presented to the Emergency Department with chest pain, palpitations,...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old female has presented to the Emergency Department with chest pain, palpitations, and breathlessness complaints. On ECG, she is diagnosed with ventricular arrhythmia and is administered lidocaine.

      Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action of lidocaine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blocks Na+ channels in the heart

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is a tertiary amide local anaesthetic and also a class IV antiarrhythmic.

      Like other local anaesthetics, lidocaine works on the voltage-gated sodium ion channel on the nerve cell membranes. It works in the following steps:
      1. diffuses through neural sheaths and the axonal membrane into the axoplasm
      2. binds fast voltage-gated Na+ channels in the neuronal cell membrane and inactivates them
      3. With sufficient blockage, the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron will not depolarise and will be unable to transmit an action potential, thereby preventing the transmission of pain signals

      The same principle applies to Lidocaine’s actions in the heart as it blocks the sodium channels in the conduction system and the myocardium. This raises the threshold for depolarizing, making it less likely for the heart to initiate or conduct any action potential that can cause arrhythmia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 71-year-old man treated with antibiotics for a chest infection returns with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old man treated with antibiotics for a chest infection returns with a profuse, offensive smelling diarrhoea. A diagnosis of Clostridium difficile diarrhoea is made after investigations.

      Which antibiotic is associated with the greatest risk of causing Clostridium Difficile diarrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile, a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacteria is present in the gut of approximately 3% of healthy adults (2012 UK HPA estimates). Following use of broad spectrum antibiotics, which alter normal gut flora, Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) occurs. About 80% of Clostridium Difficile infections are seen in people over the age of 65 and its main clinical features are:
      Abdominal cramps, severe bloody and/or watery diarrhoea, offensive smelling diarrhoea, and fever.

      CDI is the most severe consequence of antibiotic treatment and is a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
      Risk for CDI has been found to be greatest with clindamycin followed by fluoroquinolones Tetracyclines are not associated with risk for CDI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Regarding codeine, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding codeine, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a reduced risk of toxicity in patients who are ultra-rapid metabolisers of codeine.

      Explanation:

      Codeine phosphate is a weak opioid and can be used for the relief of mild to moderate pain where other painkillers such as paracetamol or ibuprofen have proved ineffective.Codeine is metabolised to morphine which is responsible for its therapeutic effects. Codeine 240 mg is approximately equivalent to 30 mg of morphine. The capacity to metabolise codeine can vary considerably between individuals; there is a marked increase in morphine toxicity in people who are ultra rapid metabolisers, and reduced therapeutic effect in poor codeine metabolisers. Codeine is contraindicated in patients of any age who are known to be ultra-rapid metabolisers of codeine (CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metabolisers).Codeine is also contraindicated in children under 12, and in children of any age who undergo the removal of tonsils or adenoids for the treatment of obstructive sleep apnoea due to reports of morphine toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - The ECG of a patient presenting with a history of intermittent palpitations has...

    Incorrect

    • The ECG of a patient presenting with a history of intermittent palpitations has a prolonged QT interval.

      Which of these can cause prolongation of the QT interval on the ECG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypomagnesaemia

      Explanation:

      The causes of a prolonged QT interval include:

      Hypomagnesaemia
      Hypothermia
      Hypokalaemia
      Hypocalcaemia
      Hypothyroidism
      Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome (autosomal dominant)
      Romano Ward syndrome (autosomal recessive)
      Ischaemic heart disease
      Mitral valve prolapse
      Rheumatic carditis
      Erythromycin
      Amiodarone
      Quinidine
      Tricyclic antidepressants
      Terfenadine
      Methadone
      Procainamide
      Sotalol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Gentamicin is contraindicated in which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Gentamicin is contraindicated in which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin is the aminoglycoside of choice in the UK and is used widely for the treatment of serious infections. It has a broad spectrum but is inactive against anaerobes and has poor activity against haemolytic streptococci and pneumococci. When used for the blind therapy of undiagnosed serious infections it is usually given in conjunction with a penicillin or metronidazole (or both). The main toxic effects are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity due to damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII).

      Gentamicin is contraindicated in myasthenia gravis and should be used with caution in renal disease which may result in accumulation and a greater risk of toxic side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Pancreatic ductal alkaline fluid secretion is mainly stimulated by which of the following hormones:...

    Incorrect

    • Pancreatic ductal alkaline fluid secretion is mainly stimulated by which of the following hormones:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic exocrine secretion is controlled by:
      Parasympathetic stimulation which enhances secretion of both the enzyme and aqueous components
      Sympathetic stimulation which inhibits pancreatic secretion
      Secretin which stimulates secretion of the alkaline-rich fluid from ductal cells
      Cholecystokinin which stimulates secretion of the enzyme-rich fluid from acinar cellsSomatostatin which inhibits secretion from both acinar and ductal cells
      Gastrin which stimulates pancreatic acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - When the breast cancer of a 60-year old patient metastasizes and compresses the...

    Incorrect

    • When the breast cancer of a 60-year old patient metastasizes and compresses the intervertebral foramina between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae, as well as the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae, this causes back pain. Which pair of nerves is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fifth cervical and fourth thoracic nerves

      Explanation:

      The fifth cervical nerve passes between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae, and the fourth thoracic nerve passes between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae. Therefore, when the cancer metastasizes in this area, they are most likely affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain, vomiting and constipation. A CT scan is done which is suggestive of Meckel's diverticulum. Where does the blood supply of the Meckel's diverticulum originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum has certain classic characteristics.
      1. It lies on the antimesenteric border of the middle-to-distal ileum
      2. It is approximately 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal junction
      3. It appears as a blind-ended tubular outpouching of bowel
      4. It is about 2 inches long,
      5. It occurs in about 2% of the population,
      6. It may contain two types of ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic).
      7. The diverticulum is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.
      8. Proximal to the major duodenal papilla the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery (branch of the coeliac trunk)
      9. Distal to the major duodenal papilla it is supplied by the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery (branch of superior mesenteric artery).
      10. The arterial supply to the jejunoileum is from the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Intrinsic factor is secreted by which of the following cell types in the...

    Incorrect

    • Intrinsic factor is secreted by which of the following cell types in the stomach:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of the small amounts of vitamin B12 normally present in the diet from the terminal ileum. The parietal cells of the stomach produce intrinsic factor, and following a gastrectomy, the absorption of vitamin B12 will be markedly reduced, and a deficiency state will exist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A young boy is carried by his friends to the Emergency Department in...

    Incorrect

    • A young boy is carried by his friends to the Emergency Department in an unconscious state. He is quickly moved into the resuscitation room.

      He was at a party with friends and has injected heroin. On examination, his GCS is 6/15, and he has bilateral pinpoint pupils and a very low respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute.

      Which of the following is the first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naloxone 0.8 mg IV

      Explanation:

      Heroin is injected into the veins and is the most commonly abused drug. Acute intoxication with opioid overuse is the most common cause of death by drug overdose.

      The clinical features of opioid overdose are:
      1. Decreased respiratory rate
      2. Reduced conscious level or coma
      3. Decreased bowel sounds
      4. Miotic (constricted) pupils
      5. Cyanosis
      6. Hypotension
      7. Seizures
      8. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema (with IV heroin usage)

      The main cause of death secondary to opioid overdose is respiratory depression, which usually occurs within 1 hour of the overdose. Vomiting is also common, and aspiration can occur.

      Naloxone is a short-acting, specific antagonist of mu(μ)-opioid receptors. It is used to reverse the effects of opioid toxicity.

      It can be given by a continuous infusion if repeated doses are required and the infusion rate is adjusted according to the vital signs. Initially, the infusion rate can be set at 60% of the initial resuscitative IV dose per hour.

      Naloxone has a shorter duration of action (6-24 hours) than most opioids, and so close monitoring according to the respiratory rate and depth of coma with repeated injections is necessary. When repeated doses are needed in opioid addicts, naloxone administration may precipitate a withdrawal syndrome with abdominal cramps, nausea and diarrhoea, but these usually settle within 2 hours.

      An initial dose of 0.4 to 2 mg can be given intravenously and can be repeated at 2 to 3-minute intervals to a maximum of 10mg.

      If the intravenous route is inaccessible, naloxone can be administered via an IO line, subcutaneously (SQ), IM, or via the intranasal (IN) route.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain that is characteristic of angina. You...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain that is characteristic of angina. You administer a dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), which rapidly resolved his symptoms. Unfortunately, he also develops an unpleasant side effect.
      Which of the following side effects is he most likely to have developed? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Nitrates are used in the treatment of angina pectoris and the prevention of myocardial ischaemia. Commonly used examples of nitrates are glyceryl trinitrate and isosorbide dinitrate. Unwanted effects, however, are common and can limit therapy, particularly when angina is severe or when patients are unusually sensitive to the effects of nitrates.
      The following are common or very common side effects of nitrates
      Arrhythmias
      Asthenia
      Cerebral ischaemia
      Dizziness
      Drowsiness
      Flushing
      Headache
      Hypotension
      Nausea and vomiting
      Diarrhoea, syncope and cyanosis can occur, but these are rare side effects. Dry eyes, bradycardia and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - All of the muscles of the tongue (other than the palatoglossus) are innervated...

    Incorrect

    • All of the muscles of the tongue (other than the palatoglossus) are innervated by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      All of the muscles of the tongue are innervated by the hypoglossal nerve, except for the palatoglossus, which is innervated by the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements regarding the infectivity periods of these corresponding diseases...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding the infectivity periods of these corresponding diseases is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella is infectious until 5 days after the rash appears

      Explanation:

      Rubella can be contagious from 7 days before to 7 days after the rash appears.

      Patients with measles are contagious from 1-2 days before the onset of symptoms.

      A person with chickenpox is considered contagious beginning 1 to 2 days before rash onset until all the chickenpox lesions have crusted (scabbed).

      The infectious period of mumps is considered from 2 days before to 5 days after parotitis onset.

      Hepatitis A is highly transmissible and has an average incubation period of 28 to 30 days (range 15–50 days). The maximum infectivity is during the second half of the incubation period (i.e. while asymptomatic) and most cases are considered non-infectious after the first week of jaundice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Which of the following best describes the typical rash of measles: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the typical rash of measles:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The typical rash of measles is maculopapular, starting behind the ears and spreading downwards to the trunk.

      Explanation:

      A prodromal 2 – 4 day coryzal illness (fever, cough, conjunctivitis, irritability) normally occurs associated with Koplik’s spots (small white papules found on the buccal mucosa near the first premolars), before a morbilliform maculopapular rash appears, first behind the ears and then spreading downwards to whole body.The rash peels off or fades about about 7 – 10 days. The chickenpox rash is characterised by a maculopapular rash progressing to vesicles and then crusting over. Scarlet fever is characterised by a sandpaper like rash associated with a strawberry tongue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - You undertake a medication review for a patient on the Clinical Decision Unit....

    Incorrect

    • You undertake a medication review for a patient on the Clinical Decision Unit. Among the drugs he is currently taking is simvastatin.
      Which of the following side effects is he LEAST likely to have developed? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syncope

      Explanation:

      Nitrates are used in the treatment of angina pectoris and the prevention of myocardial ischaemia. Commonly used examples of nitrates are glyceryl trinitrate and isosorbide dinitrate. Unwanted effects, however, are common and can limit therapy, particularly when angina is severe or when patients are unusually sensitive to the effects of nitrates.
      The following are common or very common side effects of nitrates
      Arrhythmias
      Asthenia
      Cerebral ischaemia
      Dizziness
      Drowsiness
      Flushing
      Headache
      Hypotension
      Nausea and vomiting
      Diarrhoea, syncope and cyanosis can occur, but these are rare side effects. Dry eyes, bradycardia and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A 25 year old man has sustained a fracture to the surgical neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old man has sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of the humerus after falling from his bike. Examination suggests an axillary nerve injury. The clinical features expected to be seen in this patient are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness of shoulder abduction

      Explanation:

      Axillary nerve injury results in:
      1. weakness of arm abduction (paralysis of deltoid),
      2. weakness of lateral rotation of the arm (paralysis of teres minor)
      3. loss of sensation over the regimental badge area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Which of the following is the most potent stimulus of fibrinolysis: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most potent stimulus of fibrinolysis:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tissue plasminogen activator

      Explanation:

      Fibrinolysis is a normal haemostatic response to vascular injury. Plasminogen, a proenzyme in blood and tissue fluid, is converted to plasmin by activators either from the vessel wall (intrinsic activation) or from the tissues (extrinsic activation). The most important route follows the release of tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) from endothelial cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Regarding ACE inhibitors, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding ACE inhibitors, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin-II receptor blockers are a useful alternative in patients who cannot tolerate ACE-inhibitors due a persistent cough.

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors should be used with caution in patients of Afro-Caribbean descent who may respond less well; calcium channel blockers are first line for hypertension in these patients. ACE inhibitors have a role in the management of diabetic nephropathy. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnant women. ACE inhibitors inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin; this is the cause of the persistent dry cough. Blocking ACE also diminishes the breakdown of the potent vasodilator bradykinin which is the cause of the persistent dry cough. Angiotensin-II receptor blockers do not have this effect, therefore they are useful alternative for patients who have to discontinue an ACE inhibitor because of persistent cough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Which of the following is a common adverse effect of glucagon: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a common adverse effect of glucagon:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nausea

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects include:
      Common: Nausea
      Uncommon: Vomiting
      Rare: Abdominal pain, hypertension, hypotension, tachycardia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - All of the following are actions of insulin except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are actions of insulin except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased gluconeogenesis

      Explanation:

      Major Actions of Insulin:
      ↑ Glucose uptake into cells
      ↑ Glycogenesis
      ↓ Glycogenolysis
      ↓ Gluconeogenesis
      ↑ Protein synthesis
      ↓ Protein degradation
      ↑ Fat deposition
      ↓ Lipolysis
      ↓ Ketoacid production
      ↑ K+ uptake into cells

      Major Actions of Glucagon:
      ↓ Glycogenesis
      ↑ Glycogenolysis
      ↑ Gluconeogenesis
      ↓ Fatty acid synthesis
      ↑ Lipolysis
      ↑ Ketoacid production

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Passmed
Retry this test Dashboard