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  • Question 1 - Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is a long-term inflammatory disorder which affects muscles. Its symptoms are generally a skin rash and worsening muscle weakness in the proximal muscles (for example, the shoulders and thighs) over time. These may occur suddenly or develop over months. Other symptoms may include weight loss, fever, lung inflammation, or light sensitivity. Complications may include calcium deposits in muscles or skin.
      The skin rash may manifest as aheliotrope (a purplish color) or lilac, but may also be red. It can occur around the eyes along with swelling, as well as the upper chest or back ( shawl sign) or V-sign above the breasts and may also occur on the face, upper arms, thighs, or hands. Another form the rash takes is called Gottron’s sign which are red or violet, sometimes scaly, slightly raised papules that erupt on any of the finger joints (the metacarpophalangeal joints or the interphalangeal joints)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 27 year-old ballet instructor presents with 1-day history of left-sided facial weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year-old ballet instructor presents with 1-day history of left-sided facial weakness and an increased sensitivity to noise in her left ear. She is very anxious because 2 years ago she had some problems with her vision and was told that multiple sclerosis was a possibility. Her medical history is significant only for type 1 diabetes mellitus managed with insulin, and she is also taking a combined oral contraceptive pill. Upon examination, she has a lower motor neuron lesion of the left VII (facial) nerve with Bell's phenomenon present and difficulty closing her left eye. There is no objective hearing loss and no sensory signs. Examination of the auditory meatus and canal is unremarkable. The remainder of the neurological examination appears normal. The next management step in her care should be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eye patch and artificial tears

      Explanation:

      From the given history and physical examination findings, this patient has Bell’s palsy. There is no evidence to suggest involvement of any other cranial nerves, which might raise suspicion of a cerebello-pontine angle space-occupying lesion. With her history of possible optic neuritis, there is a possibility that the lesion is in fact a manifestation of multiple sclerosis, although this should be differentiated by examination of an upper motor neuron lesion (with sparing of the forehead facial muscles because of bilateral innervation). In light of her diabetes and the limited evidence of benefit from corticosteroid use, the most sensible first management step for her would be meticulous eye care to avoid corneal ulceration, as a result of the difficulty she is having closing her left eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 3 - A previously well 33 yr. old female was admitted with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A previously well 33 yr. old female was admitted with a history of recurrent episodes of palpitations. She didn't have chest pain. She frequently drank plenty of coffee and alcohol. Her blood pressure was 120/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 200 bpm which was regular. There was no sign of heart failure. Her ECG revealed narrow complex tachycardia. She was given 3mg of IV adenosine but there was no response. Which of the following is the most appropriate management if she doesn't respond to 6mg of IV adenosine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Vagal manoeuvres can be tried first. If not responding to these then adenosine can be trialled. If 3mg of adenosine has no effect, then give adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push. If patient does not convert, give adenosine 12 mg rapid IV push. Can repeat 12 mg dose of adenosine once if there is no response. If no response, diltiazem or beta-blockers can be given as alternatives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa pain, nausea and loss of appetite. You suspect that she has acute appendicitis. Which scoring system could you use to lend support to your diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alvarado score

      Explanation:

      The prompt is suggestive of acute appendicitis. The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to determine the likelihood of appendicitis, so this is the correct answer. A score greater than 6 is generally considered at risk for having acute appendicitis. It has 8 different criteria included (symptoms, signs, and lab results) and divides patients into appendicitis unlikely, possible, probable, and definite. The Center Score is a score to access the likelihood that pharyngitis is due to Strep. The Child-Pugh score predicts prognosis in liver cirrhosis. The Glasgow score is two different scores– the Glasgow coma score in trauma, which estimates level of consciousness, essentially, and The Glasgow Imrie Criteria which determines the severity of acute pancreatitis based on 8 lab values. The MELD score predicts the severity of end-stage liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 62 year old man expresses to his doctor that he believes that...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old man expresses to his doctor that he believes that his partner is being unfaithful. When asked if he has any evidence to prove that this is true, he says no. However, he appears to be distressed and believes that he is right. Which condition could this be a symptom of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Othello's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Othello syndrome (OS) is a type of paranoid delusional jealousy, characterized by the false absolute certainty of the infidelity of a partner, leading to preoccupation with a partner’s sexual unfaithfulness based on unfounded evidence. OS has been associated with psychiatric and neurological disorders including stroke, brain trauma, brain tumours, neurodegenerative disorders, encephalitis, multiple sclerosis, normal pressure hydrocephalus, endocrine disorders, and drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased levels are seen in type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
      The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
      Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old woman has a family history of haemochromatosis and is homozygous for...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman has a family history of haemochromatosis and is homozygous for the C282Y mutation. Her ferritin is 927 mg/L (normal range 15-150), haemoglobin 12.5 g/dL (normal range 11.5-16) and aspartate aminotransferase 87 U/L (normal range <40).

      Which is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weekly venesection to drop her ferritin into the low-normal range

      Explanation:

      Venesection should be done (essentially blood-letting) to decrease the too-high ferratin level. IV Desterrioxamine would have the opposite effect. ASA does not have to do with ferritin. You do not just watch this and recheck. And you do not want to make the patient anaemic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a week ago. He now presents with altered mental status, tachycardia, high-grade fever, vomiting and cardiac failure. A diagnosis of thyroid storm (crisis) is made.
      What is the most important next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transfer the patient to ITU

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm, also referred to as thyrotoxic crisis, is an acute, life-threatening, hypermetabolic state induced by excessive release of thyroid hormones (THs) in individuals with thyrotoxicosis.
      Patients with thyroid storm should be treated in an ICU setting for close monitoring of vital signs and for access to invasive monitoring and inotropic support, if necessary.
      – Supportive measures
      If needed, immediately provide supplemental oxygen, ventilatory support, and intravenous fluids. Dextrose solutions are the preferred intravenous fluids to cope with continuously high metabolic demand.
      – Correct electrolyte abnormalities.
      – Treat cardiac arrhythmia, if necessary.
      – Aggressively control hyperthermia by applying ice packs and cooling blankets and by administering acetaminophen (15 mg/kg orally or rectally every 4 hours).
      – Antiadrenergic drugs.
      – Thionamides: Correct the hyperthyroid state. Administer antithyroid medications to block further synthesis of thyroid hormones (THs).
      High-dose propylthiouracil (PTU) or methimazole may be used for treatment of thyroid storm.
      – Administer glucocorticoids to decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. This may also be useful in preventing relative adrenal insufficiency due to hyperthyroidism and improving vasomotor symptoms.
      – Bile acid sequestrants prevent reabsorption of free THs in the gut (released from conjugated TH metabolites secreted into bile through the enterohepatic circulation).
      – Treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - A 63-year-old gentleman with chronic kidney disease secondary to diabetes mellitus is reviewed....

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old gentleman with chronic kidney disease secondary to diabetes mellitus is reviewed. When assessing his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which one of the following variables is not required by the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum urea

      Explanation:

      A formula for estimating glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is the Modification Diet of Renal Disease (MDRD) equation which takes into account the following variables: serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. Thus, serum urea is not required in this formula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is admitted to the acute medical unit for pneumonia. This is his fourth admission for pneumonia in the past six months.

      Which of the following factors is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypogammaglobulinaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypogammaglobulinemia is a complication of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) that leads to recurrent infections.

      CLL is a type of cancer caused by monoclonal proliferation of well-differentiated lymphocytes, typically B cells (99%). Onset of the disease is usually asymptomatic and later constitutes anorexia, weight loss, bleeding, and recurrent infections. Lymphadenopathy is more marked in CLL than in chronic myelogenous leukaemia (CML).

      Investigations to diagnose CLL include blood film and immunophenotyping. Smudge cells (also known as smear cells) seen on the blood film point towards CLL. Complications of the disease include hypogammaglobulinemia leading to recurrent infections, autoimmune haemolytic anaemia in 10–15% of the patients, and transformation to high-grade lymphoma (Richter’s transformation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following is least likely to cause warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is least likely to cause warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma infection

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma infection causes cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA). The rest of the aforementioned options cause warm AIHA.

      AIHA may be divided into ‘warm’ and ‘cold’ types, according to the temperature at which the antibodies best cause haemolysis. It is most commonly idiopathic but may be secondary to a lymphoproliferative disorder, infection, or drugs.

      1. Warm AIHA:
      In warm AIHA, the antibody (usually IgG) causes haemolysis best at body temperature and tends to occur in extravascular sites, for example, spleen. Management options include steroids, immunosuppression, and splenectomy. It is caused by autoimmune diseases such as SLE (rarely causes mixed-type AIHA), cancers such as lymphomas and CLL, and drugs such as methyldopa.

      2. Cold AIHA:
      The antibody in cold AIHA is usually IgM and causes haemolysis best at 4°C and occurs more commonly intravascularly. Features may include symptoms of Raynaud’s disease and acrocyanosis. Patients do not respond well to steroids. Cold AIHA is caused by cancers such as lymphomas, and infections such as mycoplasma and EBV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 12 - Choose the part of the renal tubule which is impermeable to water: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the part of the renal tubule which is impermeable to water:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thin ascending limb of loop of Henle

      Explanation:

      The thick ascending limb actively reabsorbs NaCl but has an extremely low transepithelial osmotic water permeability, even in the presence of vasopressin. This combination of NaCl reabsorption without water reabsorption serves two vital functions: it provides NaCl to increase the osmolality of the medullary interstitium, tubules, vasculature, and collecting ducts; and it dilutes the luminal fluid within the thick ascending limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 13 - A 58-year-old lady was admitted to hospital with increasing thirst and generalised abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old lady was admitted to hospital with increasing thirst and generalised abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with breast carcinoma three years previously and treated with a radical mastectomy.
       
      Investigations showed:

      Serum corrected calcium 3.5 mmol/L (NR 2.2-2.6)
      Serum alkaline phosphatase 1100 IU/L

       
      Her serum calcium was still elevated following 4 litres of 0.9% saline intravenous infusion.
       
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pamidronate 60 mg intravenously

      Explanation:

      This case has hypercalcaemia most likely associated with the bony metastases from her pre-existing breast carcinoma. The most appropriate next step is to give Pamidronate 60mg intravenously, a bisphosphonate, to immediately inhibit bone resorption and formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 14 - Which type of lung cancer is most commonly linked to cavitating lesions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of lung cancer is most commonly linked to cavitating lesions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell

      Explanation:

      Squamous-cell carcinoma is the most common histological type of lung cancer to cavitate (82% of cavitary primary lung cancer), followed by adenocarcinoma and large cell carcinoma. Multiple cavitary lesions in primary lung cancer are rare, however, multifocal bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma can occasionally have multiple cavitary lesions. Small cell carcinoma is not known to cavitate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 15 - A 60-year-old male presents with dyspnoea and an urgent chest X-ray is scheduled....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male presents with dyspnoea and an urgent chest X-ray is scheduled. Sputum cultures reveal pneumonia and he receives treatment with erythromycin. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. This means it stops the further growth of bacteria rather than directly destroying it. This is achieved by inhibiting protein synthesis. Erythromycin binds to the 23S ribosomal RNA molecule in the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. This causes a blockage in the exiting of the peptide chain that is growing. Given that humans have 40S and 60S subunits, and do not have 50S subunits, erythromycin does not affect protein synthesis in human tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 16 - A literature review of a number of studies was conducted to assess the...

    Incorrect

    • A literature review of a number of studies was conducted to assess the potential efficacy of a new drug, which may reduce the chance of patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) developing gout. In one study 120 out of 1,200 patients receiving the new drug developed gout. The total number of the patients were 2,000 and the remaining 800 individuals received a placebo. From the patients that had received the placebo, 200 developed gout. What is the absolute risk reduction of developing gout?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate) = 0.15 = 15%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 17 - In which one of the following diseases does the patient have to be...

    Incorrect

    • In which one of the following diseases does the patient have to be isolated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Measles and chickenpox are spread by droplets. Thus, patients should be isolated.
      Rheumatic fever and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are immune mediated diseases that don’t require isolation.
      Herpetic gingivostomatitis spreads by direct transmission of infected secretions to the stratified squamous epithelium.
      HSP is not an infectious disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 18 - Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has an above average incidence in babies with a meningomyelocele

      Explanation:

      The commonest time for bacterial meningitis is in the 1st month of life and group B Streptococcus is the commonest organism. The anterior fontanelle is full, but does not bulge with normal flexion. Neurological manifestations include seizures, irritability, poor tone, lethargy and tremors, however no findings of sensorineural deafness have been noted. One of the risk factors for introduction of meningeal infection is Meningomyelocele.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed, outside a nightclub. The ER team found an empty bottle of amyl nitrate in his pocket. The patient is hypoxic with an O2 saturation of 84% and is confused. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methylene blue

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for the patient in question would be methylene blue.
      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is methemoglobinemia due to the ingestion of amyl nitrate.

      Amyl nitrate promotes the formation of methaemoglobin, which avidly conserves oxygen and leads to decreased tissue oxygen saturations.

      Treatment of choice includes methylene blue and vitamin C.

      Adverse effects:
      Benign side effects include green or blue discoloration of urine and patients should be forewarned.
      Significant side effects are based on methylene blue, itself, being an oxidizing agent and an inhibitor of monoamine oxidase A (MAO-A).
      As an oxidizing agent, methylene blue can actually precipitate methemoglobinemia or haemolysis in high doses or when ineffectively reduced.
      Methylene blue administration in a patient taking a serotonergic agents may predispose to serotonin syndrome.

      Note: Although methylene blue administration is controversial in the setting of G6PD-deficiency due to reduced levels of NADPH, it is not contraindicated and should be administered cautiously and judiciously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a work-up for hypertension. It comes back as 6.5 mmol/l. The test is repeated and reported as 6.7 mmol/l. He says he feels constantly tired but denies any polyuria or polydipsia. How should these results be interpreted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impaired fasting glycaemia

      Explanation:

      A fasting blood glucose level from 110 to 126 mg/dL (5.5 to 6.9 mmol/L) is considered prediabetes. This result is sometimes called impaired fasting glucose.
      Diabetes mellitus (type 2): diagnosis

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made by plasma glucose. If the patient is symptomatic:
      fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l
      random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l (or after 75g oral glucose tolerance test)
      If the patient is asymptomatic the above criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - Which among the following antihypertensives is centrally acting? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following antihypertensives is centrally acting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Moxonidine

      Explanation:

      Moxonidine and alpha-methyl dopa are centrally acting antihypertensives and modify blood pressure through modifying sympathetic activity.

      Other options:
      Verapamil is a calcium antagonist.
      Minoxidil and hydralazine are both vasodilators.
      Phenoxybenzamine is an alpha-blocker.

      Adverse effects:
      Dry mouth and somnolence were the most frequently reported adverse events, followed by headache, dizziness, nausea and allergic skin reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 22 - In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather...

    Incorrect

    • In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combination therapy decreases the chances of drug resistance developing

      Explanation:

      There are two main reasons for using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents. First, different drugs exert their effects through different mechanisms, therefore, carefully combining them will increase the number of tumour cells killed in each cycle as well as decrease their chances of developing drug resistance. Second, there may be an even greater effect with drugs that are synergistic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 23 - A 60-year-old gentleman presents with symptoms of nocturia and difficulty in passing urine....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old gentleman presents with symptoms of nocturia and difficulty in passing urine. He is not known to have any previous prostatic problems and denies any dysuria. Following a digital rectal examination, he is started on Finasteride and Tamsulosin. Three months later he presents to the emergency department with urinary retention and is catheterized, and a craggy mass is felt on rectal examination. He is referred to a urologist, and a prostatic ultrasound and needle biopsy are arranged, and prostate serum antigen (PSA) is requested.

      Which of the following factors is most likely to give a false negative PSA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finasteride

      Explanation:

      Finasteride is often prescribed for patients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) or enlarged prostate. However, it has been known to cause a decrease in Prostatic Specific Antigen (PSA) levels in patients with BPH, which may lead to false negatives in a case like this, where a palpable mass has been detected and malignancy is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output. She weighs 60 kg and has a 24-hour urine output of 3500 ml. Her basal urine osmolality is 210 mOsm/kg.
      She undergoes a fluid deprivation test and her urine osmolality after fluid deprivation (loss of weight 3 kg) is 350 mOsm/kg. Subsequent injection of subcutaneous DDAVP (desmopressin acetate) did not result in a further significant rise of urine osmolality after 2 hours (355 mOsm/kg).
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary polydipsia

      Explanation:

      In central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI), urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He also gives history of dysuria, fever and conjunctivitis. Examination reveals macules and pustules on his hands. He has returned from a trip to Far East 3 weeks ago and admits to having unprotected sex. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. Other STDs including HIV, syphilis have different presentations. Psoriatic arthritis is not commonly associated with urethritis and conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 26 - A 56-year-old male was admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit last night. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male was admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit last night. He is a poor historian, answering most questions minimally and stating he does not need to be here as he is deceased, and hospitals should be for living patients.
      What is the type of delusion in this patient and what is it commonly associated with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome and Major Depressive Disorder

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis of this patient is Cotard syndrome with major depressive disorder.

      Cotard syndrome is a rare mental disorder where the affected patient believes that they (or in some cases just a part of their body) is either dead or non-existent. This delusion is often difficult to treat and can result in significant problems due to patients stopping eating or drinking as they deem it not necessary. Cotard syndrome is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders (like schizophrenia).

      Other delusional syndromes:
      – Othello syndrome is a delusional belief that a patients partner is committing infidelity despite no evidence of this. It can often result in violence and controlling behaviour.
      – De Clerambault syndrome (otherwise known as erotomania), is where a patient believes that a person of higher social or professional standing is in love with them. Often this presents with people who believe celebrities are in love with them.
      – Capgras syndrome is characterised by a person believing their friend or relative had been replaced by an exact double.
      – Couvade syndrome is also known as ‘sympathetic pregnancy’. It affects fathers, particularly during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy, who suffer the somatic features of pregnancy.
      – Ekbom syndrome is also known as delusional parasitosis and is the belief that they are infected with parasites or have ‘bugs’ under their skin. This can vary from the classic psychosis symptoms in narcotic use where the user can ‘see’ bugs crawling under their skin or can be a patient who believes that they are infested with snakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 69-year-old man on the cardiology ward who is hypotensive, and tachycardic is...

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old man on the cardiology ward who is hypotensive, and tachycardic is having profuse melaena. He was commenced on dabigatran 150mg bd by the cardiologists 48 hours earlier for non-valvular atrial fibrillation. Following appropriate resuscitation which of the following treatments is most likely to improve his bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idarucizumab (Praxbind)

      Explanation:

      Idarucizumab (Praxbind) is a newer antidote for dabigatran, the first of its kind. It is a monoclonal antibody fragment that binds dabigatrin with a higher affinity than thrombin. It is very expensive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history of chronic renal failure, who complains of increasing shortness of breath. Bloods reveal a creatinine of 570 μmol/l, urea of 48 mmol/l. He is also anaemic with a haemoglobin (Hb) of 8.9 g/dl.

      On examination he has a pericardial rub and there are bibasal crackles consistent with heart failure.

      Which of the following represents the best treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent haemodialysis

      Explanation:

      This case presents with symptoms and lab results suggestive of uremic pericarditis, which is an indication for immediate haemodialysis. Uremic pericarditis is caused by inflammation of the membranes of the pericardial sac, which usually resolves after a period of intensive dialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 29 - An 82-year-old woman is brought in by her carer with fluctuating consciousness. On...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old woman is brought in by her carer with fluctuating consciousness. On examination she is deeply jaundiced, hypotensive with a tachycardia and has a hepatic flap. Initial blood tests reveal an ALT of 1000 U/l, INR 3.4, ALP 600 U/l and a bilirubin of 250 mmol/l.

      Repeat blood tests 6 hours later show an ALT of 550 U/l, INR 4.6, ALP 702 U/l and bilirubin of 245 m mol/l. The toxicology screen for paracetamol and aspirin is negative; she is positive for hepatitis B surface antibody and negative for hepatitis B surface antigen.

      Which of the following would best explain her clinical condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute liver failure secondary to paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Liver flap is pathognomonic for liver failure. Paracetamol (also known as acetaminophen) overdose usually presents with symptoms including liver failure, resulting in confusion, jaundice, and coagulopathy a few days after overdose. The first 24 hours, people usually have minimal symptoms. Diagnosis is based on blood levels of acetaminophen at specific times after it was taken (see reference). If she took it a few days ago, levels may indeed be undetectable. The hepatitis B serology suggests prior vaccination. Wilson’s disease is not the most likely diagnosis given her presentation. The AST:ALT ratio would be expected to be reversed in alcohol induced liver failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old man asks to be referred to a plastic surgeon as he...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man asks to be referred to a plastic surgeon as he claims that his ears are too big in proportion to his face and he seldom leaves the house because of this. His records show that he was treated for anxiety and depression with fluoxetine previously and has been off work with back pain for the past 4 months. On examination, his ears appear to be normal.
      What is the most appropriate term of this behaviour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysmorphophobia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in the given scenario would be body dysmorphic disorder or dysmorphophobia

      It is a mental disorder where patients have a significantly distorted body image.

      Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) IV criteria:
      Preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance. If a slight physical anomaly is present, the person’s concern is markedly excessive.
      The preoccupation causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning
      The preoccupation is not better accounted for by another mental disorder (e.g., dissatisfaction with body shape and size in Anorexia Nervosa).

      Treatment:
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) is the most commonly used and most empirically supported intervention to improve body image.
      Several drugs have been targets of study in anorexia nervosa treatment, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, antidepressants, antipsychotics, nutritional supplementation, and hormonal medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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