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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which muscle separates the subclavian artery and the subclavian vein?
Your Answer: Scalenus medius
Correct Answer: Scalenus anterior
Explanation:The subclavian artery and vein have a similar path throughout their course, with the subclavian vein running anterior to the subclavian artery. The artery and vein are separated by the insertion of the scalenus anterior muscle.
There are three scalene muscles, found on each side of the neck:
1. Anterior scalene
2. Middle scalene
3. Posterior scaleneThe scalenus anterior muscle is the anterior most of the three scalene muscles. It originates from the transverse processes of vertebrae C3-C6 and is inserted in the first rib.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An acidic drug with a pKA of 4.3 is injected intravenously into a patient.
At a normal physiological pH, the approximate ratio of ionised to unionised forms of this drug in the plasma is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1000:01:00
Explanation:The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.
To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of an ACID, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.
pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])
or
pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised]).Hence, if the pKa ˆ’ pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.
In this example:
7.4 = 4.3 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
7.4 ˆ’ 4.3 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
log 3.1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:
y = antilog x = 10x
Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, 1 = 10, 2 =100, 3 = 1000, and 4 = 10,000.
If you want to find the antilogarithm of 3.1, for a number between 3 and 4, the antilogarithm will return a value between 1000 and 10,000. The ratio is 1:1 if pKa = pH, that is, pH pKa = log 0. (50 percent ionised and unionised).
According to the above value, there is only one unionised molecule for every approximately 1000 (1259) ionised molecules of this drug in plasma, implying that this drug is largely ionised in plasma (99.99 percent ).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A previously fit 26-year-old is undergoing surgery to repair an inguinal hernia. He is breathing on his own, and a supraglottic airway is being maintained via a circle system with air/oxygen and sevoflurane.
With a fresh gas flow of 14 L/min, the end-tidal CO2 reading is 8.1 kPa. CO2 pressure is 1.9 kPa. The percentages of oxygen inhaled and exhaled are 38 and 33 percent, respectively.
What do you think is the most likely source for these readings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incompetent expiratory valve
Explanation:The patient is rebreathing carbon dioxide that has been exhaled.
Exhaustion of the soda lime and failure of the expiratory valve are the two most likely causes. A leak in the inspiratory limb is a less likely cause. Increased inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide levels may appear with a normal-looking capnogram if the expiratory valve is ineffective.
The patient will exhale into both the inspiratory and expiratory limbs if the inspiratory valve is inoperable. A slanted downstroke inspiratory phase (as the patient inhales carbon dioxide-containing gas from the inspiratory limb) and increased end-tidal carbon dioxide can be seen on the capnogram.
Even if the soda lime were exhausted, a high fresh gas flow would be enough to prevent rebreathing. The difference in oxygen concentrations in inspired and expired breaths would be less pronounced.
Hypercapnia is caused by respiratory obstruction and malignant hyperthermia, but not by rebreathing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Following a near drowning accident, a 5-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department and advanced paediatric life support is started.
What is the child's approximate weight, according to the preferred formulae of the Resuscitation Council (UK), the European Resuscitation Council, and the Royal College of Anaesthetists?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20-25kg
Explanation:For estimating a child’s weight, the Resuscitation Council (UK) and European Resuscitation Council teach the following formula:
Weight = (age + 4) × 2
The weight of the child will be around 20 kg.
This formula is used in the Primary FRCA exam by the Royal College of Anaesthetists.
In ‘developed’ countries, the traditional ‘APLS formula’ for estimating weight in children based on age (wt in kg = [age+4] x 2) is acknowledged as underestimating weight by 33.4 percent on average, with the degree of underestimation increasing with increasing age.
However, more recently, the APLS formula ‘Weight=3(age)+7’ has been found to provide a mean underestimate of only 6.9%. This formula is applicable to children aged 1 to 13 years.
The estimated weight based on age using this formula is 25 kg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man, visits his general practitioner. He complains of changes to his bowel habit and unexpected weight loss in the last 6 months. He is scheduled for a colonoscopy and biopsy where he is diagnosed with a transverse colon malignancy.
The transverse colon is one of many organs tethered to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity by a double fold of the peritoneum.
Which of the listed organs is also tethered to the peritoneum in a similar way?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The stomach
Explanation:The peritoneal cavity is made up of the omentum, the ligaments and the mesentery.
The section of the peritoneum responsible for tethering organs to the posterior abdominal wall is the mesentery.
These tethered organs are classified as intraperitoneal, and these include the stomach, spleen, liver, first and fourth parts of the duodenum, jejunum, ileum, transverse, and sigmoid colon.
Retroperitoneal organs are located posterior to the peritoneum and include: the rest of the duodenum, the ascending colon, the descending colon, the middle third of the rectum, and the remainder of the pancreas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man complains of severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the back. He has a past medical history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
A focused abdominal ultrasonography test (FAST) is performed, revealing diffuse dilatation of the abdominal aorta. The most prominent dilatation is at the bifurcation site of abdominal aorta into the iliac arteries.
What vertebra level corresponds to the site of the most prominent dilatation as evident on the FAST scan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine output decreases due to inhibition of proximal tubule Na+ reabsorption
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic α and β1 (but not β2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct β1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (α1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular α and β receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier€”no CNS effects.
Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline
Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman, is scheduled for a thyroidectomy for her previously diagnosed Grave's disease. She is eligible for surgery as medical treatment options have failed to control her symptoms and she is the sole guardian for her young children, so radioiodine treatment is unsuitable. While gaining her consent for the surgery, she is told of possible complications of thyroidectomy, which include damage to the sensory branch of the superior laryngeal nerve.
What is the name of the sensory nerve that arises from the superior laryngeal nerve?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The superior laryngeal nerve gives off two branches: the sensory branch which is the internal laryngeal nerve, and the motor branch which is the external laryngeal nerve.
The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) rises from the vagus nerve which supplies the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus colonises the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus colonizes the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population.
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to flucloxacillin.
Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
All β-lactam antibiotics like penicillin interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The β-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70 kg patient and plasma concentration monitored.
The concentration in plasma over time is recorded as follows:
Time (hours): 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
Concentration (mcg/mL) 100, 71, 50, 35.5, 25.
From the data available, the drug is likely eliminated by?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: First-order kinetics with a half-life of 2 hours
Explanation:Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.
The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:
C = C0·e-kt
Where:
C = drug concentration
C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
k = Rate constant
t = TimeEnzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.
Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the best marker of mast cell degranulation in a patient with suspected anaphylaxis who became hypotensive and developed widespread urticarial rash after administration of Augmentin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tryptase
Explanation:Mast cell tryptase is a reliable marker of mast cell degranulation. Tryptase is a protease enzyme that acts via widespread protease-activated receptors (PARs).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Regarding pre-eclampsia with warning signs, which of the following laboratory tests is the most appropriate to establish a platelet dysfunction or disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Platelet count
Explanation:Decreased platelet concentrations with eclampsia were described as early as 1922 by Stancke. The platelet count is routinely measured in women with any form of gestational hypertension. The frequency and intensity of thrombocytopenia vary and are dependent on the severity and duration of the preeclampsia syndrome and the frequency with which platelet counts are performed.
Overt thrombocytopenia defined by a platelet count < 100,000/microliter - indicates severe disease. In general, the lower the platelet count, the higher the rates of maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. In most cases, delivery is advisable because thrombocytopenia usually continues to worsen. After delivery, the platelet count may continue to decline for the first day or so. It then usually increases progressively to reach a normal level within 3-5 days. In some instances with HELLP syndrome, the platelet count continues to fall after delivery. If these do not reach a nadir until 48 to 72 hours, then preeclampsia syndrome may be incorrectly attributed to one of the thrombotic microangiopathies. The following are other severe features associated with preeclampsia: Proteinuria: >/= 300 mg/24 hours; or urine protein: creatinine ratio >/= 0.3; or dipstick 1+
Renal insufficiency: serum creatinine > 1.1 mg/dL or doubling of creatinine in the absence of other renal disease
Impaired liver function: two times elevated AST/ALT or unexplained right upper quadrant pain or epigastric pain unresponsive to medications
Pulmonary oedema
Cerebral or visual symptoms: headache, visual disturbances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Regarding oxygen consumption, which of these organs has the highest consumption at rest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kidney
Explanation:Oxygen delivery is related to blood flow as most of the oxygen binds to haemoglobin in red blood cells, although a small amount is dissolved in the plasma. Blood flow per 100 g of tissue is greatest in the kidneys.
The following is the oxygen consumption rate of different organs in ml/minute/100g
Hepatoportal = 2.2
Kidney = 6.8
Brain = 3.7
Skin = 0.38
Skeletal muscle = 0.18
Heart = 11. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man was referred for investigation of malignant hyperthermia following general anaesthesia for a micro laryngoscopy and biopsy for a suspected laryngeal tumour. The patient was found to be a heavy smoker and the only presenting symptom is a hoarse voice.
A sample of muscle (vastus lateralis) needs to be taken to establish a diagnosis of malignant hyperthermia in this patient.
Which one of the following is the best anaesthetic technique for muscle biopsy in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal anaesthesia
Explanation:According to European Group protocol for the investigation of MH susceptibility, muscle biopsy should be performed on quadriceps muscle (either vastus medialis or vastus lateralis), using regional anaesthesia (avoiding local anaesthetic infiltration) or general anaesthetic techniques. Local anaesthetic solution within muscle fibres may affect in vitro contraction testing.
Desflurane is a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia so is avoided in MH susceptible patients. This includes all volatile inhalational agents and suxamethonium.
General anaesthetic with the volatile free anaesthetic machine may be considered but spinal anaesthesia is a better choice due to the possibility of airway problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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With regards to oxygen delivery in the body, which of these statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaemia will reduce oxygen delivery
Explanation:Oxygen delivery depends on 2 variables.
1) Content of oxygen in blood
2) Cardiac outputOxygen content (arterial) = (Hb (g/dL) x 1.39 x SaO2 (%) ) + (0.023 x PaO2 (kPa))
Oxygen content (mixed venous) = (Hb (g/dL) x 1.39 x mixed venous saturation) + (0.023 x mixed venous partial pressure of oxygen in kPA)
Huffner’s constant = 1.39 = 1g of Hb binds to 1.39 ml of O2
Oxygen delivery DO2 (ml/min) = 10 x Cardiac output (L/min) x Oxygen content
Normally 1000ml/minOxygen consumption VO2 (ml/min) = 10 x Cardiac output (L/min) x Difference in arterial and mixed venous oxygen content
Normally 250 ml/minOxygen extraction ratio (OER) = VO2/DO2
Normally approximately 25% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the subclavian artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior thyroid artery
Explanation:The left subclavian artery originates from the aortic arch, while the right subclavian artery originates from the brachiocephalic artery.
The subclavian artery gives off branches on both sides of the body:
1. Vertebral artery
2. Internal thoracic artery
3. Thyrocervical trunk
4. Costocervical trunk
5. Dorsal scapular arteryThe superior thyroid artery is the first branch of the external carotid artery. The other branches of the external carotid artery are:
1. Superior thyroid artery
2. Ascending pharyngeal artery
3. Lingual artery
4. Facial artery
5. Occipital artery
6. Posterior auricular artery
7. Maxillary artery
8. Superficial temporal artery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Of the following, which option best describes the muscle type that has the fastest twitch response to stimulation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type IIb skeletal muscle
Explanation:Human skeletal muscle is composed of a heterogeneous collection of muscle fibre types which differ histologically, biochemically and physiologically.
It can be biochemically classified into 2 groups. This is based on muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry. These are:
Type 1 (slow twitch): Muscle fibres depend upon aerobic glycolytic metabolism and aerobic oxidative metabolism. They are rich in mitochondria, have a good blood supply, rich in myoglobin and are resistant to fatigue.
Type II (fast twitch): Muscle fibres are sub-divided into:
Type IIa – relies on aerobic/oxidative metabolism
Type IIb – relies on anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism.Fast twitch muscle fibres produce short bursts of power but are more easily fatigued.
Cardiac and smooth muscle twitches are relatively slow compared with skeletal muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Prior to an urgent appendicectomy, a 49-year-old man requires a rapid sequence induction.
His BMI is equal to 50.
Which of the following formulas is the most appropriate for calculating a suxamethonium dose in order to achieve optimal intubating conditions?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1-1.5 × actual body weight (mg)
Explanation:The usual method of calculating the dose of a drug to be given to patients of normal weight is to use total body weight (TBW). This is because the lean body weight (LBW) and ideal body weight (IBW) dosing scalars are similar in these patients.
Because the LBW and fat mass do not increase in proportion in patients with morbid obesity, this is not the case. Drugs that are lipid soluble, such as propofol or thiopentone, can cause a relative overdose. Lean body mass is a better scalar in these situations.
Suxamethonium has a small volume of distribution, so the dose is best calculated using the TBW to ensure optimal and deep intubating conditions. The higher dose was justified because these patients’ plasma cholinesterase activity was elevated.
Other scalars include:
The dose of highly lipid soluble drugs like benzodiazepines, thiopentone, and propofol can be calculated using lean body weight (LBW). The formula LBW = IBW + 20% can be used on occasion.
Fentanyl, rocuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, morphine, paracetamol, bupivacaine, and lidocaine are all administered with LBW.
Formulas can be used to calculate the ideal body weight (IBW). There are a number of drawbacks, including the fact that patients of the same height receive the same dose, and the formulae do not account for changes in body composition associated with obesity. Because IBW is typically lower than LBW, administering a drug based on IBW may result in underdosing. The body mass index (BMI) isn’t used to calculate drug dosage directly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of daptomycin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interferes with the outer membrane of gram positive bacteria resulting in cell death
Explanation:Daptomycin alters the curvature of the membrane, which creates holes that leak ions. This causes rapid depolarization, resulting in loss of membrane potential. Thus it interferes with the outer membrane of gram-positive bacteria resulting in cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An elective left colectomy is being performed on a 60-year old male for left-sided colon cancer. The upper and lower parts of the descending colon are supplied by the left colic artery.
Which of the following arteries gives rise to the left colic artery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery originates 3-4 cm above the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta. The left colic artery branches off the inferior mesenteric artery, arising close to its origin from the abdominal aorta. Other branches of IMA include the three sigmoid arteries that supply the sigmoid colon.
The left colic artery branches off from IMA to supply the distal 1/3 of the transverse colon and the descending colon. It moves upwards posterior to the left colic mesentery and then travels anteriorly to the psoas major muscle, left ureter, and left internal spermatic vessels, before dividing into ascending and descending branches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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