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  • Question 1 - A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon history taking and interview, it was noted that she had a history of valvular heart disease. She has been married to her boyfriend for the last 2 years and she now has plans for pregnancy.
      Which of the following can lead to death during pregnancy, if present?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac condition affecting women during pregnancy and is poorly tolerated due to the increased intravascular volume, cardiac output and resting heart rate that predictably occur during pregnancy.

      Young women may have asymptomatic mitral valve disease which becomes unmasked during the haemodynamic stress of pregnancy. Rheumatic mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac disease found in women during pregnancy. The typical increased volume and heart rate of pregnancy are not well tolerated in patients with more than mild stenosis. Maternal complications of atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure can occur, and are increased in patients with poor functional class and severe pulmonary artery hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following ultrasound findings form part of the Rotterdam criteria for...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following ultrasound findings form part of the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosis of PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome) ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased ovarian volume >10cm3

      Explanation:

      The Rotterdam criteria for the diagnosis of PCOS is based on a score of two out of the three criteria:
      1) Oligo or anovulation
      2) Hyperandrogenism – clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone)
      3) on ultrasound – contain 12 or more follicles measuring 2 to 9 mm in diameter and/or have an increased volume of 10 cm3 or greater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 3 - A 32 year old women who is 25 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old women who is 25 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping lower abdominal pain. On examination the cervix is closed. Fetal cardiac activity is noted on ultrasound. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antepartum Haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Antepartum haemorrhage is any bleeding that occurs from the female genital tract during the antenatal period after the 24+0 week of pregnancy and prior to the birth of the baby. The most common causes are placenta previa and placental abruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 4 - Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long? ...

    Incorrect

    • Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Afterpains may continue for 2-3 days (so none of the above). Breastfeeding may intensify pain due to stimulation of Oxytocin which causes uterine contractions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 5 - A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains of numbness of the anterior aspect of the labia. Which nerve has likely been damaged during surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      The anterior aspect of the vulva (mons pubis, anterior labia) is supplied by derivatives of the lumbar plexus: the anterior labial nerves, derived from the
      ilio-inguinal nerve, and the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve.
      The posterior aspect of the vulva is supplied by derivatives of the sacral plexus: the perineal branch of the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh laterally, and the pudendal nerve centrally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after noticing a sudden gush of clear fluid from her vagina.
      Speculum examination shows pooling of liquor in the posterior fornix and patient developed fever, tachycardia and chills 12 hours after this episode.
      Apart from giving antibiotics, what will be your strategy in management of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Induce labour now

      Explanation:

      Above mentioned patient presented with symptoms of premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which refers to membrane rupture before the onset of uterine contractions.

      A sudden gush of clear or pale yellow fluid from the vagina is the classic clinical presentation of premature rupture of membranes. Along with this the patient also developed signs of infection like fever, tachycardia and sweating which is suggestive of chorioamnionitis.

      Vaginal examination is never performed in patients with premature rupture of membrane, instead a speculum examination is the usually preferred method which will show fluid in the posterior fornix.

      The following are the steps in management of premature rupture of membrane:
      – Admitting the patient to hospital.
      – Take a vaginal
      ervical smears.
      – Measure and monitor both white cell count and C- reactive protein levels.
      – Continue pregnancy if there is no evidence of infection or fetal distress.
      – In presence of any signs of infection or if CTG showing fetal distress it is advisable to induce labour.
      – Corticosteroids must be administered if delivery is prior to 34 weeks of gestation.
      – Give antibiotics as prevention and for treatment of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial depolarisation

      Explanation:

      P wave = Atrial depolarisation
      QRS complex = Ventricular depolarisation
      T wave = Ventricular repolarisation
      U wave = repolarisation of the interventricular septum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
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  • Question 8 - In the foetus, the most well oxygenated blood flows into which part of...

    Incorrect

    • In the foetus, the most well oxygenated blood flows into which part of the heart:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right atrium

      Explanation:

      The placenta accepts the blue, unoxygenated blood from the foetus through blood vessels that leave the foetus through the umbilical cord (umbilical arteries, there are two of them). When blood goes through the placenta it picks up oxygen and becomes red. The red blood then returns to the foetus via the third vessel in the umbilical cord, the umbilical vein. The red blood that enters the foetus passes through the fetal liver and enters the right side of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 9 - Fetal urine production starts at what gestation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal urine production starts at what gestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8-11 weeks

      Explanation:

      Fetal urine contributes significantly to amniotic fluid production in the second trimester of pregnancy. As early as 8-11 weeks, urine production begins and can be observed in the fetal bladder on ultrasound scans. The urine creates a hypotonic fluid which contains increasing concentrations of urea and creatinine. By term, a foetus produces about 800 ml of urine a day, of which 250ml is eliminated through fetal swallowing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 10 - Which organism is the most common cause of puerperal sepsis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which organism is the most common cause of puerperal sepsis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Group A Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Puerperal sepsis is defined as sepsis occurring after birth until 6 weeks postnatal. The most common cause of puerperal sepsis is Group A streptococcus. Until 1937, puerperal sepsis was the major cause of maternal mortality. The discovery of sulphonamides in 1935 and the simultaneous reduction in the virulence of the haemolytic streptococcus resulted in a dramatic fall in maternal mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old female presents with a complaint of bloating and abdominal distension. History...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female presents with a complaint of bloating and abdominal distension. History reveals she underwent hysterectomy 3 months ago. Which investigation should be carried out in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plain X-ray abdomen

      Explanation:

      A complication of bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and hysterectomy is the formation of adhesions in the GIT that can cause intestinal obstruction. Abdominal X-ray is sufficient to visualize any obstruction in the GIT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old female reports to the emergency department due to severe right lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female reports to the emergency department due to severe right lower quadrant pain. Complaints started yesterday, as the patient noticed intermittent right lower abdominal pain associated with increased activity. She rested for remainder of the day, but the pain still continued to increase. An hour ago, the pain suddenly became constant and severe, associated with nausea and vomiting.The patient does not complaint of any radiation of pain.
      On examination patient's temperature is noted to be 37.2 C (99 F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 98/min.On palpation of the right lower quadrant there is tenderness without rebounding or guarding.Urine pregnancy test conducted came to be negative.
      Considering the following additional informations, which would be most appropriate in establishing the diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of ovarian cysts

      Explanation:

      Common Risk factors for Ovarian torsion are presence of an ovarian mass, women who are in their reproductive age and history of infertility treatment with ovulation induction.
      Common clinical presentations include sudden onset of unilateral pelvic pain along with nausea & vomiting and presence of a palpable adnexal mass. An adnexal mass with absent Doppler flow to ovary can be noted in ultrasound.
      Laparoscopy with detorsion, ovarian cystectomy and oophorectomy if necrosis or malignancy is found are the common treatment options.

      Acute lower abdominal pain in a nonpregnant women can have various causes including pathologies of the gastrointestinal, gynecologic, or urologic systems due to the close proximity of these structures. All of these cases have classic presentations which help to characterize the disease process and thereby to differentiate the diagnosis.

      In the given case, patient presents with right lower quadrant pain which is classic for ovarian torsion, occurring due to rotation of the ovary around the infundibulopelvic ligament, causing ovarian vessel occlusion.  Although ovarian torsion can occur in any women in their reproductive-age, is seen more commonly in those with a history of ovarian cysts (eg, hemorrhagic cyst) or masses (eg, mature cystic teratoma) because of the greater size and density of the ovary which makes it prone to rotation and subsequent torsion. Patients will initially have intermittent pain associated with activity, as in this patient, due to partial ovarian torsion, this initial pain resolves when the adnexa spontaneously untwists and blood flow returns. When this progresses to complete ovarian torsion, patients typically develop sudden-onset, severe, nonradiating pain due to persistent ischemia, which is often associated with nausea and vomiting.

      Ovarian torsion can be clinically diagnosed, but a Doppler ultrasound is performed to evaluate ovarian blood flow and also to confirm the diagnosis. Surgical detorsion to prevent ovarian necrosis and cystectomy/oophorectomy are the usual treatment options.

      Any association of urinary symptoms will help to establish a urologic cause of acute right lower quadrant pain like pyelonephritis, nephrolithiasis, etc.  However, patients with urologic conditions typically presents with suprapubic or flank pain which radiates to the right lower quadrant, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case.

      A family history of malignancy usually does not aid in the diagnosis of acute lower abdominal pain. Although some ovarian cancers are inherited, patients with ovarian cancer typically have a chronic, indolent course with associated weight loss, early satiety, and abdominal distension.

      Having multiple sexual partners is considered a risk factor for sexually transmitted infections and pelvic inflammatory disease, which can be a cause for lower abdominal pain. However, patients will typically have fever, constant and diffused pelvic pain along with rebound and guarding.

      Recent sick contacts are a risk factor for gastroenteritis, which can present with nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain. However, in this case patient will typically have diffuse, cramping abdominal pain which will worsen gradually; along with persistent vomiting and diarrhea.

      Ovarian torsion typically causes intermittent lower abdominal pain followed by sudden-onset of severe, nonradiating unilateral pain with associated nausea and vomiting. Ovarian torsion can occur in women in their reproductive-age, particularly those with a history of ovarian cysts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 13 - Spinnbarkheit is a term which means: ...

    Incorrect

    • Spinnbarkheit is a term which means:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Threading of the cervical mucous

      Explanation:

      Spinnability (or Spinnbarkeit), which measures the capacity of fluids to be drawn into threads, represents an indirect measurement of the adhesive and elastic properties of mucus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 14 - Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A previous infant with Group B streptococcus disease regardless of present culture

      Explanation:

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) or Streptococcus agalactiae is a Gram-positive bacteria which colonizes the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract. In the United States of America, GBS is known to be the most common infectious cause of morbidity and mortality in neonates. GBS is known to cause both early onset and late onset infections in neonates, but current interventions are only effective in the prevention of early-onset disease.

      The main risk factor for early-onset GBS infection is colonization of the maternal genital tract with Group B Streptococcus during labour. GBS is a normal flora of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, which is thought to be the main source for maternal colonization.

      The principal route of neonatal early onset GBS infection is vertical transmission from colonized mothers during passage through the vagina during labour and delivery.

      Intravenous penicillin G is the treatment of choice for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis against Group B Streptococcus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 15 - A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with her second child. She is worried about infections in this pregnancy as her daughter was born with a 'blueberry muffin rash' and was soon found to have sensorineural deafness due to an infection. Which of the following infections is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      Congenital infections can be the cause of various congenital abnormalities. Infection with the Rubella virus, part of the TORCH infections (toxoplasmosis, other organisms, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex), can lead to cardiac abnormalities, ophthalmic defects, sensorineural deafness and neurodevelopmental delays. At birth congenital rubella syndrome presents with a petechial rash characteristically dubbed a blueberry muffin rash, and hepatosplenomegaly with jaundice. Immunization of the mother against measles is an effective way of reducing the occurrence of congenital rubella syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 16 - What type of drug is clavulanic acid? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of drug is clavulanic acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-lactamase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that is most often combined with a penicillin to form Augmentin or Co-amoxiclav for greater antibiotic efficacy. The drug works by irreversibly binding to enzymes present in bacteria which posses the Beta-lactamase enzyme. This enzyme is responsible for inactivating Beta-Lactam antibiotics such as penicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 17 - A young woman came to your clinic seeking help. She has been married...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman came to your clinic seeking help. She has been married for two years and has yet to conceive. The following are the findings of blood tests:
      Luteinizing hormone levels are low.
      Low levels of follicle stimulating hormone.
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low.
      Prolactin-high.
      What is the most effective way to deal with infertility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bromocriptine

      Explanation:

      The most common treatment approach is with the dopamine receptor agonists, bromocriptine, and cabergoline. Bromocriptine normalizes prolactin and decreases tumour size in 80%–90% of patients with microadenomas. Bromocriptine should be given to this patient who has developed hyperprolactinemia anovulation.

      Women with hyperprolactinaemic anovulation are treated with dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine.
      This patient has also developed symptoms of a low-functioning pituitary gland tumour, which bromocriptine will assist to shrink. Before starting bromocriptine, a head MRI scan should be considered to confirm the suspected diagnosis.

      Clomiphene is an oestrogen receptor modulator that is selective. It works by competing with oestrogen receptors in the hypothalamus. This disrupts normal negative feedback mechanisms, causing the release of pituitary gonadotropins, particularly LH, to rise, triggering ovulation.
      When the levels of gonadotropins and oestrogen are normal but the women still have ovulatory dysfunction, it is successful in inducing ovulation. In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism patients, clomiphene is frequently ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - The number of chromosomes in the human somatic cell is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The number of chromosomes in the human somatic cell is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 46

      Explanation:

      In eukaryotes, the genome comprises several double-stranded, linear DNA molecules bound with proteins to form complexes called chromosomes. Each species of eukaryote has a characteristic number of chromosomes in the nuclei of its cells. Human body cells (somatic cells) have 46 chromosomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
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  • Question 19 - What is the mechanism of action of Oxytetracycline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of Oxytetracycline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binds to 30S subunit of microbial ribosomes blocking attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site on the ribosome

      Explanation:

      Tetracycline is classified as a broad spectrum antibiotic. It is a bacteriostatic inhibitor of protein synthesis acting at the ribosomal level. Tetracycline binds to the 30s ribosomal subunit preventing the binding of the aminoacidic charged T-RNA to the ribosome-mRNA complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 20 - A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension,...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension, was admitted to the labour ward. She is at 36 weeks of pregnancy and is keen to have her baby delivered via caesarean section.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give to the patient given her situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary hypertension (PH) is an increase of blood pressure in the pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, or pulmonary capillaries, leading to shortness of breath, dizziness, fainting, and other symptoms, all of which are exacerbated by exertion. PH in pregnancy carries a 25–56% maternal mortality rate with a mixture of intrapartum and postpartum deaths.

      Current recommendations for management of PH in pregnancy include termination of pregnancy if diagnosed early, or utilizing a controlled interventional approach with early nebulized prostanoid therapy and early elective caesarean section under regional anaesthesia. Other recommended therapies for peripartum management of PH include sildenafil and nitric oxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old lady is complaining of mucopurulent vaginal discharge. On examination, copious amounts...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old lady is complaining of mucopurulent vaginal discharge. On examination, copious amounts of thick mucoid material is found to be draining out of a large cervical erosion. She has had regular pap smears since 16 years of age, which have all been normal. Her last smear was done 4 months prior.
      What is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cauterisation of the cervix.

      Explanation:

      The best next step in management would be to remove the cervical ectropion using cautery. This would usually be performed under anaesthesia. It can take up to a month to heal following the procedure. Vaginal pessaries and antibiotics are typically not effective.

      Indications for a cone biopsy include an abnormal pap smear, lesion suspected to be a CIN on colposcopic examination that cannot be fully visualised as well if there is a histological discrepancy between the smear and biopsy. Colposcopic examination is also unnecessary at this stage since she has not complained of any abnormal per vaginal bleed nor is her last pap smear abnormal.

      Since the discharge is now affecting the patient’s life, treatment should be given so reassuring her that no treatment is needed is not appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman who recently got married presents to your clinic.
    She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who recently got married presents to your clinic.
      She has a history of extremely irregular menstrual cycles with the duration varying between four and ten weeks.
      She had attended her routine review appointment one week prior to her current presentation.
      At that time she had stated that her last period had occurred six weeks previously.
      You had recommended the following tests for which the results are as shown below:
      Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): 3 IU/L (<13),
      Serum luteinising hormone (LH): *850 IU/L (4-10 in follicular phase, 20-100 at mid-cycle),
      Serum prolactin (PRL): 475 mU/L (50-500).
      Which one of the following is the most probable reason for her amenorrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early pregnancy.

      Explanation:

      All of the options provided could cause amenorrhoea and therefore need to be evaluated.

      The luteinising hormone (LH) level reported here is exceedingly elevated. A patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is unlikely to have such a raised level, but it could be because of a LH-producing adenoma. Such tumours are, however, extremely rare.

      Early pregnancy (correct answer) is the most likely cause of this woman’s elevated LH level. This would be due to the presence of beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) hormone that is produced during pregnancy.

      LH and beta-HCG both have similar beta-subunits and cross-reactions are commonly noted in LH assays.

      The serum prolactin (PRL) level is at the upper end of the normal range and this correlates to the levels observed in the early stages of pregnancy.

      The follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels remain low during early pregnancy.

      If her amenorrhea had been caused by stress from her recent marriage, the LH level would have been normal or low.

      If the cause was premature ovarian failure, the FSH level would have been significantly higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - The ureter is lined by what type of epithelium? ...

    Incorrect

    • The ureter is lined by what type of epithelium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transitional

      Explanation:

      Ureters are muscular tubes that run from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. It is lined by transitional epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 24 - What kind of biochemical changes occur during the luteal phase of menstrual cycle?...

    Incorrect

    • What kind of biochemical changes occur during the luteal phase of menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High progesterone levels

      Explanation:

      Menstrual cycle can be divided into the follicular phase and luteal phase. In the luteal phase, there is an increase in progesterone secretion and LH levels are low. If the ova is fertilized, it is implanted in the endometrium. In case of failure in fertilization, there is gradual decrease in progesterone and LH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 25 - All of the following may result from a bicornuate uterus except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following may result from a bicornuate uterus except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital anomalies of the baby

      Explanation:

      Literature review shows that bicornuate uterus is associated with increase risk of spontaneous abortion in about 36% of patients. There is also an increased risk of preterm birth, malpresentation and fetal growth retardation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 26 - A patient is about to undergo an elective C-section. She wants to know...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is about to undergo an elective C-section. She wants to know how long it will take for her wound to completely heal.
      How much time does it take for healing by primary intention to reach full tensile strength?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Wound healing typically undergoes different stages that include haemostasis, inflammation, proliferation and remodelling. The phases are often shortened when healing occurs by primary intention such as in a surgical wound. Remodelling, which is the major strengthening phase, takes about 3 weeks, while it takes a total of 12 weeks to reach maximum tensile strength.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 27 - Your 64-year-old patient has come to you with a uterine prolapse complaint.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • Your 64-year-old patient has come to you with a uterine prolapse complaint.
      Which of the following ligaments plays the most critical role in uterine prolapse pathophysiology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterosacral ligament

      Explanation:

      The uterus needs support in order to remain centered inside the pelvic cavity. The support it receives comes in two forms: dynamic and passive. The ligaments of the uterus have an important role in both.

      Dynamic support is provided by the pelvic diaphragm through tonic contractions while standing and sitting and active contractions during moments of increased abdominal pressure, such as coughing or sneezing. During these moments, the ligaments of the uterus transmit the force of the diaphragm towards the organ itself, maintaining its position.

      The ligaments are also crucial in providing passive support. By minimizing movement of the body and the cervix, they maintain the uterus in the typical anteverted and anteflexed position directly on top of the bladder. This provides a support for the uterus when the abdominal pressure increases.

      Hence, even though the broad ligament, round ligament and ovarian ligament have some role in the suspension of the uterus, the uterosacral ligament plays the most significant role. It is also the ligament used for surgical suspension of POP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 28 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for routine antenatal care. Upon interview and history taking, it revealed that she is positive for Hepatitis C virus antibody (HCVAb). She is now concerned about transmitting the virus to her baby.
      Which of the following is considered correct about the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal scalp blood sampling should be avoided

      Explanation:

      Invasive procedures as fetal scalp blood sampling or internal electrode and episiotomy increase vertical transmission of HCV, especially in patients with positive HCV RNA virus load at delivery that is why it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 29 - A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms,...

    Incorrect

    • A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms, and increased nervousness.
      Along with TSH what other investigations should be done for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Free T4

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned in the case has developed thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy. TSH level should be tested, and if the result shows any suppressed or elevated TSH level, then it is mandatory to check for free T4 level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 30 - Endometriosis is an example of which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Endometriosis is an example of which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pathological hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is a condition in which the endometrial tissue lies outside the endometrial cavity. There are 4 theories which explain this. First is pathological hyperplasia resulting in menstrual regurgitation and implantation, second is the coelomic epithelium transformation, third is immunogical factors and the fourth is via the lymphatic or vascular spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

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