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Question 1
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 42 years old woman presents to a gynaecologic clinic with mid-cycle, moderate-intensity abdominal pain. There is also a similar episode of pain around a month ago, which remained for about 3 days and resolved spontaneously. She is otherwise healthy with a normal regular cycle of about 28 days duration.
Examination reveals normal vitals, soft and non-tender abdomen without any guarding or rebound tenderness.
The most likely cause of the patient's problem is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ovulation pain
Explanation:This patient has developed symptoms of ovulation discomfort, which is also known as Mittelschmerz syndrome. Lower abdominal and pelvic pain that arises around the middle of a woman’s menstrual cycle characterises this condition.
The discomfort usually appears suddenly and disappears within hours, though it can continue up to three days.The symptoms of ovulation pain can include:
– Lower abdomen pain.
– The pain typically occurs about two weeks before the menstrual period is due.
– The pain is felt on the right or left side, depending on which ovary is releasing an egg.
– The pain may switch from one side to the other from one cycle to the next, or remain on one side for a few cycles.
The duration of pain ranges anywhere from minutes to 48 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following has been shown to improve pruritus and liver function in patients with obstetric cholestasis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Intrahepatic cholestasis characterized by reversible cholestasis typically occurring in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, elevated serum aminotransferases and bile acid level and resolution of symptoms by 2 to 3 weeks after delivery. Ursodeoxycholic acid has shown to reduce the symptoms of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes that last for about three days each month.
These symptoms have been ongoing for the past 12 months.
She reports that pubertal breast changes started about four years ago, however she has not yet had her first period.
On examination of her abdomen there is no evidence of any suprapubic mass or tenderness when she is not in pain.
Blood tests indicate that she is ovulating.
From the following developmental abnormalities, identify the one that is most likely to be the cause of her abdominal pain.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis.
Explanation:The clinical evaluation indicates that the patient is ovulating but has not started menstruating. These observations suggest that the pain she is experiencing on a monthly basis could be related to ovulation or there could be an obstruction preventing the flow of menstrual blood from the uterus.
Uterine or vaginal anomalies that can obstruct menstrual flow include imperforate hymen, absent vagina, a transverse vaginal septum, or cervical obstruction.
If the cause was an obstruction to the flow, the retained menstrual products would have developed into a suprapubic mass (hematometra/ haematocolpos). However, no palpable mass was detected on abdominal examination.
Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis (correct answer) is the only condition that would result in no endometrial development; consequently there was no palpable mass observed and no menstrual loss that could be shed was present. A pelvic (lower abdominal) ultrasound examination can confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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All of the following may result from a bicornuate uterus except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital anomalies of the baby
Explanation:Literature review shows that bicornuate uterus is associated with increase risk of spontaneous abortion in about 36% of patients. There is also an increased risk of preterm birth, malpresentation and fetal growth retardation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Regarding twin pregnancies all of the following are correct EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Identical or monozygotic twins arise from fertilization of two ovum
Explanation:Monozygotic (MZ) twins originate when a single egg is fertilized to form one zygote, which then divides into two embryos. Although they share the same genotype they are not phenotypically identical.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding Management of Beta Thalassaemia in Pregnancy is not part of the RCOG guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg daily should be commenced 12 months prior to conception
Explanation:Women with Beta-Thalassaemia require significant extra input during pregnancy. Folic acid 5 mg daily should be commenced 3 months prior to conception in these patients. NOTE Women with thalassaemia who have undergone splenectomy OR have a platelet count >600 should continue or be commenced on Aspirin (75 mg/day)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crown rump length
Explanation:Fetal ultrasound scanning is considered an essential part of routine antenatal care with first trimester scans recommended for confirming viability, accurate estimation of gestational age and determining the number of foetuses. Fetal crown-rump length (CRL) is measured in early pregnancy primarily to determine the gestation age (GA) of a foetus and is most reliable between 9+0 to 13+6 weeks’ gestation, but not beyond.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which vitamin deficiency leads to Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B1
Explanation:Vitamin B1 deficiency can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Alcoholics are at particular risk. In obstetrics all women with hyperemesis gravidarum should receive thiamine supplementation to prevent Wernicke’s.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 11
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A 33-year-old woman was admitted to a hospital's maternity unit for labour. Her pregnancy has been unremarkable so far and she had regular antenatal visits. Meconium liquor passage was noted during the labour. Cardiotocography was done and revealed a fetal heart rate (FHR) of 149bpm. There were no noted decelerations or accelerations. The beat-to-beat variability is established at 15 bpm. Upon vaginal examination, there were no reported abnormalities.
Which of the following is considered to be the next most appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The CTG is normal and close monitoring until delivery is all required for now
Explanation:Meconium is the earliest stool of a newborn. Occasionally, newborns pass meconium during labour or delivery, resulting in a meconium-stained amniotic fluid (MSAF).
No particular cardio-tocograph pattern can be considered to have a poor prognostic value in the presence of thick MSAF and the decision to deliver and the mode of delivery should be based on the overall assessment and the stage and progress of labour. While management should be individualized, a higher Caesarean section rate in thick MSAF can be justified to ensure a better outcome for the neonate even in the presence of a normal CTG trace.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1, presented to the labour and delivery department since she has been having regular, painful contractions over the past 3 hours. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that the patient has had no prenatal care during this pregnancy. She also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only surgery was a low transverse caesarean delivery 2 years ago.
Upon admission, her cervix is 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced with the fetal head at +2 station. Fetal heart rate tracing is category 1.
Administration of epidural analgesia was performed, and the patient was relieved from pain due to the contractions. There was also rupture of membranes which resulted in bright-red amniotic fluid.
Further examination was done and her results were:
Blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg,
Pulse is 112/min.
Which of the following is most likely considered as the cause of the fetal heart rate tracing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fetal blood loss
Explanation:Fetal heart rate tracings (FHR) under category I include all of the following:
– baseline rate 110– 160 bpm
– baseline FHR variability moderate
– accelerations present or absent
– late or variable decelerations absent
– early decelerations present or absentThe onset of fetal bleeding is marked by a tachycardia followed by a bradycardia with intermittent accelerations or decelerations. Small amounts of vaginal bleeding associated with FHR abnormalities should raise the suspicion of fetal haemorrhage. This condition demands prompt delivery and immediate reexpansion of the neonatal blood volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile in her left breast measuring 1-2 cm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Fibroadenoma usually occurs in younger women. These non-tender masses can be removed for aesthetic purposes. Breast cysts are common shifting masses inside the breast tissue more common in women over the age of 35.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You receive a swab result from a patient who had complained of odorous vaginal discharge. It confirms bacterial vaginosis (BV). Which pathogen is most commonly associated with BV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is characterised by a foul smelling vaginal discharge without inflammation. The most common spp to cause this is gardnerella vaginalis. Other spp include mycoplasma hominis and bacteroides. It occurs due to growth and increase in anaerobic spp with simultaneous reduction in lactobacilli in vaginal flora causing an increase in vaginal pH. It is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 27 year old women presents with a history of vaginal spotting and cramping abdominal pain. She has an 8 week history of amenorrhoea. On examination urine pregnancy test is positive and the cervix is closed. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Threatened Miscarriage
Explanation:Miscarriage is a pregnancy that ends spontaneously before the foetus reaches the age of viability i.e. before 24 weeks of gestation. In a threatened miscarriage the USG findings are of a foetus present in the uterus and on speculum examination the cervical OS is closed, in an inevitable miscarriage the cervical OS is opened. In an incomplete miscarriage the uterus contains the retained products of conception and the cervical OS is open. complete miscarriage contains no retained products of conception and the cervix is closed as the bleeding as resolved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk of developing endometrial carcinoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome
Explanation:The factor associated with the greatest relative risk for endometrial carcinoma is polycystic ovary syndrome, which has a relative risk of 75. The use of long-term high doses of postmenopausal oestrogen carries an estimated risk of 10-20. Living in North America or Europe also has an estimated risk of 10-20.
A lower relative risk is associated with nulliparity, obesity, infertility, late menopause, older age, and white race- The relative risk associated with these factors falls into the range of 2-5. Early menarche, higher education or income levels, menstrual irregularities, and a history of diabetes, hypertension, gall bladder disease, or thyroid disease have a relative risk of around 1.5-2.0.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation.
The most appropriate treatment strategy for such a patient is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a more serious form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS). PMS causes bloating, headaches, and breast tenderness a week or two before your period.
With PMDD, you might have PMS symptoms along with extreme irritability, anxiety, or depression. These symptoms improve within a few days after your period starts, but they can be severe enough to interfere with your life.
PMDD symptoms appear a week or two before menstruation and go away within a few days after your period starts. In addition to PMS symptoms, you may have:
Anger or irritability.
Anxiety and panic attacks.
Depression and suicidal thoughts.
Difficulty concentrating.
Fatigue and low energy.
Food cravings or binge eating.
Headaches.
Insomnia.
Mood swings.The following treatments have been shown to relieve symptoms:
Sertraline, escitalopram, paroxetine, and fluoxetine are SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors). SSRIs are the first-line treatment and are extremely effective.
The second line of defence is alprazolam (a short course recommended due to its addictive potential).
The use of temazepam has little advantage because it only aids with sleep and is relatively short-acting.
Lifestyle modifications-weight loss, exercise, quitting smoking, and relaxation therapies for less severe PMS.
Danazol-suppresses the ovulation and helps with mastalgias associated with PMS. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The ovarian artery is a branch of the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aorta
Explanation:The ovarian artery is an artery that supplies oxygenated blood to the ovary in females. It arises from the abdominal aorta below the renal artery. It can be found in the suspensory ligament of the ovary, anterior to the ovarian vein and ureter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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In pregnancy, the following lung function value remains unchanged:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FEV1
Explanation:The biochemical and mechanical effects of progesterone and the enlarging uterus are responsible for some changes in lung function during pregnancy.
Progesterone increases the sensitivity of the respiratory centre to arterial carbon dioxide while also causing hyperaemia in the airway leading to nasal obstruction. As a result, minute ventilation and tidal volume increase by 50% to allow greater arterial oxygen saturation.
The enlarging uterus displaces the diaphragm upwards, and also limits the movement of the thoracic cage, thereby decreasing the functional residual capacity (FRC) and the expiratory reserve volume (ERV) by 20%.
Functional Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEV1) and Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) remain unchanged in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Antenatal booking investigations include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid function
Explanation:These are the six routine blood tests that every mum-to-be has to undergo around week 7 of pregnancy: Full Blood Count, Blood Typing, Hepatitis B Screening, Syphilis Screening, HIV Screening and Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable vomiting with concurrent ketonuria. Past medical is unremarkable except for an appendectomy at the age of 12 years. Which of the following is the next best step in this investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum electrolytes, urea and creatinine.
Explanation:The finding of ketonuria in this patient indicates profound dehydration and electrolyte loss. Immediate investigation with baseline serum electrolytes, urea, and creatinine is recommended for aid In intravenous resuscitation and rehydration.
All other assessments listed are appropriate, however, baseline electrolyte concentration is important before initiating intravenous resuscitation.
Other causes that can lead to vomiting in early pregnancy include normal pregnancy, multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, or urinary tract infection. Urine culture is necessary to exclude urinary tract infection, pelvic ultrasound to confirm singleton or multiple pregnancy and rule out a molar pregnancy.
An erect abdominal Xray may help to rule out an organic intestinal obstruction in this patient. Her history of an appendectomy predisposes this patient to adhesions leading to small bowel obstruction. However, it is not the immediate assessment in this case.
Before the advent of ultrasound, a quantitative hCG analysis was indicated to assess the presence of molar pregnancy. However, ultrasound is now preferred to confirm this diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Polyhydramnios is associated with which one of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
Explanation:Oesophageal atresia/TE fistula may be suspected prenatally with ultrasound findings of polyhydramnios, absence of fluid in the stomach, small sized abdomen, or the presence of a dilated proximal oesophageal pouch. An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most common aetiology listed is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Molding
Explanation:With the help of molding, the fetal head changes its shape as the skull bones overlap. This helps in smooth delivery of the foetus through the birth canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman complains of a greenish foul smelling discharge from her left nipple. She has experienced the same case before. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duct ectasia
Explanation:Mammary duct ectasia occurs when the lactiferous duct becomes blocked or clogged. This is the most common cause of greenish discharge. Mammary duct ectasia can mimic breast cancer. It is a disorder of peri- or post-menopausal age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Regarding anti-epileptic use in the 1st trimester of pregnancy, which of the following is closely associated with the development of congenital malformations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Sodium Valproate is known to be the most teratogenic when used in the first trimester of pregnancy. This antiepileptic increases the risk of congenital malformations including a 10-20 fold risk of neurodevelopmental defects. Though the use of antiepileptics should generally be avoided during pregnancy, carbamazepine, or newer drugs such as Lamotrigine are thought to carry less of a risk of teratogenicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 26 year old primigravida woman attends A&E due to worsening vomiting. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant. For the past 4 weeks she has had morning sickness but for the last 4 days she has been unable to tolerate any oral fluids without vomiting and thinks she has lost weight. On questioning she has no significant past medical history prior to this pregnancy. She is currently taking the following medication:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation:This patient has severe nausea and vomiting with ketosis and evidence of dehydration (low BP and tachycardia) in the early part of pregnancy. There is no history of diabetes and the blood glucose doesn’t indicate hyperglycaemia. This is consistent with hyperemesis gravidarum (HG)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presented to the medical clinic for emergency contraception. Upon interview, it was revealed that she had unprotected sexual intercourse last night and is worried that she may become pregnant. She mentioned that her last menstrual period was 1 week ago, and she has regular menses since menarche.
Further physical examination was performed and results are normal and her urine pregnancy test is negative. After discussing various emergency contraceptive options, the patient asked for a pill option and requested to not inform her parents about this visit.
In most states, which of the following is considered the most appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Provide levonorgestrel pill
Explanation:Levonorgestrel, also known as the morning-after pill, is a first-line oral emergency contraceptive pill with approval from the World Health Organization to prevent pregnancy. It is FDA-approved to be used within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse or when a presumed contraceptive failure has occurred.
A prescription is not needed, and it is available over the counter at local pharmacies. The FDA has also approved levonorgestrel availability for all age groups due to its lack of life-threatening contraindications and side-effect profile.
There are several contraindications for the emergency contraceptive form, including allergy, hypersensitivity, severe liver disease, pregnancy, and drug-drug interactions with liver enzyme-inducing drugs. The medication is not for use in women confirmed to be pregnant; however, there is no proof nor reports of adverse effects on the mother or foetus following inadvertent exposure during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Regarding fertilization & implantation:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The sperm head penetrates through the corona radiata & zona pellucida while the tail remains outside
Explanation:During fertilization, a sperm must first fuse with the plasma membrane and then penetrate the female egg cell to fertilize it. Fusing to the egg cell usually causes little problem, whereas penetrating through the egg’s hard shell or extracellular matrix can be more difficult. Therefore, sperm cells go through a process known as the acrosome reaction, which is the reaction that occurs in the acrosome of the sperm as it approaches the egg. The acrosome is a cap-like structure over the anterior half of the sperm’s head. Upon penetration, if all is normally occurring, the process of egg-activation occurs, and the oocyte is said to have become activated. This is thought to be induced by a specific protein phospholipase c zeta. It undergoes its secondary meiotic division, and the two haploid nuclei (paternal and maternal) fuse to form a zygote. To prevent polyspermy and minimize the possibility of producing a triploid zygote, several changes to the egg’s cell membranes render them impenetrable shortly after the first sperm enters the egg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine incontinence. With a BMI of 34, she is fat. Her last child, weighing 4.2 kg, was born six years ago.
She has been using various over-the-counter medicines to treat constipation and gastric reflux for the past three years. She is a non-smoker with normal blood pressure.
Which of the following is not a risk factor for female urinary incontinence development?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
Explanation:Stress UI (SUI) is more common among puerperal women, followed by mixed UI (MUI) and urge UI (UUI). Generally, episodes of urine leakage are infrequent and the amount of urine leakage is small.
Maternal age greater than 35 years, UI during pregnancy, elevated body mass index (BMI), multiparity, and normal birth are considered risk factors for postpartum UI. A 10-year cohort study developed with the goal of assessing the effect of the first normal birth on urinary symptoms showed that it was associated with an increase in SUI, in addition to UUI, regardless of maternal age or number of births.
Other factors such as: colour or race, episiotomy, perineal tears, newborn’s head circumference, newborn’s weight, gestational age at birth, smoking, and constipation require further studies in order to prove their association with postpartum UI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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