00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 41-year-old woman has been complaining of tiredness over the past few weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old woman has been complaining of tiredness over the past few weeks. She has angular stomatitis but no koilonychia. What is the most probable cell type to be seen in her blood film?

      Your Answer: Microcytes

      Correct Answer: Macrocytes

      Explanation:

      This is a case of Vit. B12 or folic acid deficiency. The anaemia with angular stomatitis is highly suggestive of Vit. B12 or folate deficiency. The absence of koilonychia excludes Iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - While investigating a patient with hepato-cellular carcinoma (HCC), blood tests reveal a raised...

    Incorrect

    • While investigating a patient with hepato-cellular carcinoma (HCC), blood tests reveal a raised level of serum ferritin. What would be the most probable cause for HCC in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is the excessive accumulation of iron in the body mainly involving the liver, pancreas, testes, skin etc. Serum ferritin is high indicating iron overload. Haemochromatosis is a known cause for chronic liver cell disease, cirrhosis and HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which is the most likely lymph node involved in the presence of a...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most likely lymph node involved in the presence of a white patch on the margin of the mid-third of the tongue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Submandibular LNs are four or five nodes that lie in relationship to the mandible and the submandibular gland; they receive vessels from the face below the eye and from the tongue and drain into the superior deep cervical nodes, particularly the jugulodigastric node. These nodes are part of the pericervical collar of lymph nodes that initially receive drainage from the head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 10 year old boy presents with generalized swelling. This includes puffiness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 year old boy presents with generalized swelling. This includes puffiness in the face and swollen ankles - these symptoms have been present for 4 days. The swelling began just a few days after he suffered from a mild cold with a runny nose. His only past medical history is that of eczema. His urine analysis showed the following: haematuria; proteinuria (10g/24h); creat60umol/l; and albumin of 15g/l. From the list of options, what is the single most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      A 10 year old child, with a history of URTI and haematuria, presents a picture consistent with a diagnosis of IgA nephropathy. This condition can present with proteinuria and generalized swelling. However, an important differentiating point from rapidly progressive GN is the duration. IgA nephropathy is usually <10 days (commonly 4-5 day history of infection).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45 year old male complains of numbness in the little and ring...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old male complains of numbness in the little and ring fingers of his left hand. Which of the following nerves is responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar Nerve

      Explanation:

      There are three branches of the ulnar nerve that are responsible for its sensory innervation. The palmar cutaneous branch innervates the medial half of the palm. The dorsal cutaneous branch innervates the dorsal surface of the medial one and a half fingers, and the associated dorsal hand area. The superficial branch innervates the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers. According to the given history, the superficial branch of ulnar nerve has been affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 3-year-old girl presented with rhinorrhoea, barking cough and inspiratory stridor. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presented with rhinorrhoea, barking cough and inspiratory stridor. She was diagnosed with laryngotracheobronchitis. If untreated at this stage which of the following would be the most possible outcome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The prognosis for croup is excellent, and recovery is almost always complete with complications being quite rare. The possible complications are pneumonia, bacterial tracheitis, pulmonary oedema, pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum, lymphadenitis or otitis media. Bacterial tracheitis is a life-threatening infection that can arise after the onset of an acute viral respiratory infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old male was admitted to ED with acute onset left side upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male was admitted to ED with acute onset left side upper and lower limb weakness and slurred speech. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of cerebral stroke and the investigation of choice at most hospitals would be a CT brain. Non-contrast CT scanning is the most commonly used form of neuroimaging in the acute evaluation of patients with apparent acute stroke. MRI scan is more sensitive but availability and cost make this a less likely option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 24 year old male comes to the clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old male comes to the clinic with a history of drug abuse. He says that he is aware that he has a problem and would like to see a psychiatrist. Which of the following best describes this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insight

      Explanation:

      In psychology and psychiatry, insight can mean the ability to recognize one’s own mental illness. A person with very poor recognition or acknowledgment is referred to as having poor insight. The most extreme form is anosognosia, the total absence of insight into one’s own mental illness. Insight can be defined not only in terms of people’s understanding of their illness, but also in terms of understanding how the illness affects individuals’ interactions with the world. The term ‘insight’ encompasses a complex concept which should not be considered as an isolated symptom which is present or absent. Instead, it may be more appropriate to think of insight as a continuum of thinking and feeling, affected by numerous internal and external variables. Different psychiatric disorders involve different mechanisms in the process of impairment of insight; this may influence the ways in which insight should be assessed in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old male had an emergency appendicectomy. His doctor prescribed him prophylactic antibiotics...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male had an emergency appendicectomy. His doctor prescribed him prophylactic antibiotics to avoid infection after the surgery. Which of the following antibiotics is the best choice for post abdominal surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      Cefuroxime is the best choice in the case of gut surgery as it is very effective in preventing infections against gut anaerobes, enterococci and coliforms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following characteristics does the jugular venous waveform have in tricuspid...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics does the jugular venous waveform have in tricuspid regurgitation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Large V waves

      Explanation:

      The jugular venous pulsation has a biphasic waveform.

      – The a wave corresponds to right atrial contraction and ends synchronously with the carotid artery pulse. The peak of the ‘a’ wave demarcates the end of atrial systole.
      – The c wave corresponds to right ventricular contraction causing the tricuspid valve to bulge towards the right atrium during RV isovolumetric contraction.
      – The x’ descent follows the ‘c’ wave and occurs as a result of the right ventricle pulling the tricuspid valve downward during ventricular systole (ventricular ejection/atrial relaxation). (As stroke volume is ejected, the ventricle takes up less space in the pericardium, allowing relaxed atrium to enlarge). The x’ (x prime) descent can be used as a measure of right ventricle contractility.
      – The x descent follows the ‘a’ wave and corresponds to atrial relaxation and rapid atrial filling due to low pressure.
      – The v wave corresponds to venous filling when the tricuspid valve is closed and venous pressure increases from venous return – this occurs during and following the carotid pulse.
      – The y descent corresponds to the rapid emptying of the atrium into the ventricle following the opening of the tricuspid valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 20-year-old football player has fallen and hit his head on the ground....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old football player has fallen and hit his head on the ground. He did not lose consciousness but has a left side subconjunctival haemorrhage, swelling, and tenderness over his left cheek. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial XR

      Explanation:

      History and examination findings are suggestive of facial injury and intracranial haemorrhage is unlikely. To exclude any facial fracture, an X-ray is suggested.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 37 year old woman presents with sudden blindness. She claims she had...

    Incorrect

    • A 37 year old woman presents with sudden blindness. She claims she had a similar episode last year which resolved in three months. Fundoscopy is normal. Upon examination, mild weakness of the right upper limb is found. Reflexes on the same limb are exaggerated. What is the best treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      The age of the patients together with sudden loss of vision, remission and relapse of optic neuritis, focal neurological symptoms and exaggerated reflexes all suggest multiple sclerosis. This is treated with corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A young woman presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight where she was stabbed in the neck. On examination, her tongue deviates to the right side on protrusion. Which of the following nerves is involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve injury

      Explanation:

      The motor functions of the intrinsic tongue muscles, as well as the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles, are all innervated by the hypoglossal nerve. These muscles are essential for swallowing and speech. To test nerve function, the physical examiner has a patient protrude his or her tongue. In intranuclear, or lower motor neuron lesions, the tongue deviates toward the injured side, as the contralateral genioglossus is acting unopposed. In contrast, supranuclear (upper motor neuron) lesions result in deviation away from the lesion. In addition to causing deviation toward the lesion, an injury involving a hypoglossal nucleus may result in tongue atrophy and fasciculation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicella

      Explanation:

      Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 54 year old man has to increase his oral morphine dose due...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old man has to increase his oral morphine dose due to progressively worsening pain. However, the current morphine dose makes him lethargic, interfering with his daily life. What is the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral oxycodone

      Explanation:

      Oxycodone is a semi-synthetic opioid with effects similar to
      morphine. It is an alternative to morphine for severe pain
      at step three on the WHO analgesic ladder.
      Clinical trials indicate that oxycodone is as effective as
      morphine at controlling cancer pain but with no significant
      difference in overall tolerability. There is no evidence that
      oxycodone is superior to morphine for chronic, non-cancer
      pain.
      There is some evidence that there is individual variation
      in analgesic response and sensitivity to the adverse
      effects of opioids. Oxycodone can be considered for
      the small number of patients who experience allergy or
      ongoing neurotoxic adverse effects to morphine, such
      as hallucinations. Oxycodone may have a place in the
      management of complex pain syndromes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 20-year-old woman who is sexually active is having deep dyspareunia and vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman who is sexually active is having deep dyspareunia and vaginal discharge. She has a negative smear for Gonococcus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      This case is highly suggested of PID or Pelvic Inflammatory disease with chlamydia as the more common infective agent. Tetracyclines are used for treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An soccer player suddenly collapsed on the field and started coughing along with...

    Incorrect

    • An soccer player suddenly collapsed on the field and started coughing along with shortness of breath. The investigation of choice in this case would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Exercise induced asthma is characterised by sudden onset wheezing, cough and shortness of breath while performing hectic physical activity. The best investigation to perform is a chest X-ray.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 60 year old male smoker presented in the emergency room with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old male smoker presented in the emergency room with a history of chest pain and a cough for the last few days. He is now complaining of increasing dyspnoea and sharp pains around the 4th and 5th ribs. On CXR, there is right sided hilar enlargement. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The history of smoking with a cough and bone pain is suggestive of bronchogenic carcinoma. CXR findings are also supportive of this diagnosis. In COPD, a cough with dyspnoea and wheezing is prominent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 76-year-old woman attends the Emergency Department after knocking her shin on some...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman attends the Emergency Department after knocking her shin on some furniture at home. She takes prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica. You examine her leg and find a pre-tibial laceration with a large skin flap. Which of the following is the best way to manage this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clean then steristrip the laceration

      Explanation:

      In young patients with good skin, pre-tibial lacerations may be sutured, usually with non-absorbable sutures that are removed after 7-10 days. In elderly patients with thin skin, or those on warfarin or steroids, the skin is frequently too fragile to suture. For these patients the wound should be thoroughly cleaned and meticulously steristripped to best aid skin healing. A non-adherent dressing and a light bandage can be applied and the patient should be encouraged to elevate the leg. Patients should be reviewed after a week. The laceration may take many months to heal and some require skin grafting procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old female underwent a surgery involving the posterior triangle of the neck....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old female underwent a surgery involving the posterior triangle of the neck. After the surgery, she had difficulty when moving her right shoulder joint. Which of the following nerves is most probably involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accessory nerve

      Explanation:

      The accessory nerve innervates the trapezius muscle which is involved in shoulder movements. Any injury to this nerve will result in the difficulty of movements around the shoulder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A pregnant woman with a history of osteoarthritis presents to her antenatal clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman with a history of osteoarthritis presents to her antenatal clinic. She is complaining of restricted joint movement and severe pain in her joints. Choose the most appropriate medication for her from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol is safe to take during pregnancy and has shown no harm to unborn children during studies. It is the treatment of choice for mild to moderate pain during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 45 year old obese patient arrives at the clinic for a regular...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old obese patient arrives at the clinic for a regular health check up. His labs are as follows: Fasting blood sugar: 6mmol/l, Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT): 10mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Impaired glucose tolerance means that blood glucose is raised beyond normal levels, but not high enough to warrant a diabetes diagnosis. With impaired glucose tolerance you face a much greater risk of developing diabetes and cardiovascular disease. Impaired glucose tolerance is defined as 2-hour glucose levels of 140 to 199 mg per dL (7.8 to 11.0 mmol) on the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test, and impaired fasting glucose is defined as glucose levels of 100 to 125 mg per dL (5.6 to 6.9 mmol per L) in fasting patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 39-year-old female presented in the OPD with amenorrhea. On investigations, it was...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old female presented in the OPD with amenorrhea. On investigations, it was revealed that she had high levels of FSH and LSH, normal levels of prolactin and low levels of oestradiol hormone. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature ovarian failure

      Explanation:

      Premature ovarian failure presents before the age of 40 in females with a triad of symptoms: amenorrhea, hypergonadism and low oestradiol. This triad is present in the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his hips. Blood tests are normal except for elevated serum alkaline phosphatase which is 1200 IU/l (45-105). Radiological examination shows combined osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. What is the most common site of occurrence of this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvis

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from Paget’s disease of the bone as his radiological examination shows both osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. Any bone or bones can be affected, but Paget’s disease occurs most frequently in the pelvis > lumbar spine > femur > thoracic spine > sacrum > skull > tibia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 48-year-old man presents with severe retrosternal pain, which was present for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents with severe retrosternal pain, which was present for the past 40 minutes. ECG shows ST elevation and blood tests reveal high troponin levels. He has already been given oxygen, GTN and morphine. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Percutaneous angiography

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction and percutaneous angiography is the next most appropriate step in management. Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), also known as coronary angioplasty, is a nonsurgical technique for treating obstructive coronary artery disease, including unstable angina, acute myocardial infarction (MI), and multivessel coronary artery disease (CAD).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A newly married female presented with fever, dysuria, frequency and lower abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A newly married female presented with fever, dysuria, frequency and lower abdominal pain for 2 days duration. On examination, she was febrile with lower abdominal tenderness. Urine microscopy reveals 20-30 pus cells/hpf and 10-20 red cells/hpf. Which of the following would be the most probable cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystitis

      Explanation:

      The patient has what is known as ‘honeymoon cystitis’.
      Most common presentation of schistosomiasis is haematuria.
      Patients with kidney trauma also present with haematuria following a positive history for such injury.
      Pain due to calculi are colicky in nature and severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 56 year old woman presents with persistent cough, pyrexia, crackles and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old woman presents with persistent cough, pyrexia, crackles and left sided chest pain which worsens upon deep inspiration. She has a history of smoking. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture is very suggestive of pneumonia. Pneumonia presents with chest pain exacerbated by deep breathing, fever and localized crackles or consolidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old woman complains of weight gain, hoarseness of voice, constipation, and muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman complains of weight gain, hoarseness of voice, constipation, and muscle weakness 1 month after undergoing thyroid surgery. On examination, her face is puffy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      All the symptoms this patient is suffering from are the classic features of a hypothyroid state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 75 year old female smoker who is diabetic and hypertensive, presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old female smoker who is diabetic and hypertensive, presents to the emergency which acute chest pain and worsening condition. She is obese and has recently been immobile due to a hip pain. The doctor fails to resuscitate her and she is pronounced dead. What do you think caused her death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is the obstruction of one or more pulmonary arteries by solid, liquid, or gaseous masses. In most cases, the embolism is caused by blood thrombi, which arise from the deep vein system in the legs or pelvis (deep vein thrombosis) and embolize to the lungs via the inferior vena cava.

      Risk factors include: immobility, inherited hypercoagulability disorders, being overweight or obese, smoking cigarettes, taking birth control pills (oral contraceptives) or hormone replacement therapy, having diseases such as stroke, paralysis, chronic heart disease, or high blood pressure, pregnancy, and recent surgery.

      The clinical presentation is variable and, depending on the extent of vessel obstruction, can range from asymptomatic to cardiogenic shock. Symptoms are often nonspecific, including chest pain, coughing, dyspnoea, and tachycardia.

      The diagnosis of PE is based primarily on the clinical findings and is confirmed by detection of an embolism in contrast CT pulmonary angiography (CTA). Arterial blood gas analysis typically shows evidence of respiratory alkalosis with low partial oxygen pressure, low partial carbon dioxide pressure, and elevated pH. Another commonly performed test is the measurement of D-dimer levels, which can rule out PE if negative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 24-year-old man is evaluated for facial pain and fever lasting four days....

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man is evaluated for facial pain and fever lasting four days. Symptoms began with an upper respiratory tract infection accompanied by purulent nasal discharge; he then began to have pain over the right cheek and developed a fever of 38.4°C. On examination, he has a purulent nasal discharge and tenderness over the right maxilla. CT shows right maxillary sinusitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Acute bacterial sinusitis usually occurs following an upper respiratory infection that results in obstruction of the osteomeatal complex, impaired mucociliary clearance, and overproduction of secretions. Sinusitis can be treated with antibiotics, decongestants, steroid drops or sprays, mucolytics, antihistamines, and surgery (lavage). Studies have shown that 70% of cases of community-acquired acute sinusitis in adults and children are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. Most guidance favours amoxicillin as first line treatment. There seems to be little evidence base for this, however. BMJ’s clinical evidence website found three RCTs which showed no difference between amoxicillin and placebo (in patients without bacteriological or radiological evidence of sinusitis). However, there were no RCTs examining the effects of co-trimoxazole, cephalosporins, azithromycin, and erythromycin. Second line therapies include ciprofloxacin and co-amoxiclav. First and second generation cephalosporins are not generally favoured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Passmed