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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is least likely to cause warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?
Your Answer: Lymphoma
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma infection
Explanation:Mycoplasma infection causes cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA). The rest of the aforementioned options cause warm AIHA.
AIHA may be divided into ‘warm’ and ‘cold’ types, according to the temperature at which the antibodies best cause haemolysis. It is most commonly idiopathic but may be secondary to a lymphoproliferative disorder, infection, or drugs.
1. Warm AIHA:
In warm AIHA, the antibody (usually IgG) causes haemolysis best at body temperature and tends to occur in extravascular sites, for example, spleen. Management options include steroids, immunosuppression, and splenectomy. It is caused by autoimmune diseases such as SLE (rarely causes mixed-type AIHA), cancers such as lymphomas and CLL, and drugs such as methyldopa.2. Cold AIHA:
The antibody in cold AIHA is usually IgM and causes haemolysis best at 4°C and occurs more commonly intravascularly. Features may include symptoms of Raynaud’s disease and acrocyanosis. Patients do not respond well to steroids. Cold AIHA is caused by cancers such as lymphomas, and infections such as mycoplasma and EBV. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female visited the OPD with a complaint of visual disturbance, eye pain, pain in the knee and hands, and a rash on her face. On examination, the rash was the shape of a butterfly, and the joints were mildly swollen. The eyes of the patient were found to be red with irregular pupils. Where do you think the problem lies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iris
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are suggestive of ankylosing spondylitis which is often accompanied by iritis, the cause of this patient’s red eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50 yr. old male patient was started on amiodarone. Prior to commencement, his blood urea and electrolytes were checked. What is the reason for doing this investigation before starting amiodarone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To detect hypokalaemia
Explanation:Any antiarrhythmic drugs can potentially cause arrhythmias. Before starting amiodarone, any electrolyte imbalance including hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, or hypocalcaemia should be corrected to prevent any arrhythmias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old fireman presents following a recent traumatic incident where a child died in a house fire. He describes recurrent nightmares and flashbacks which have been present for the past 2 months. Suspecting a diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder what is the first-line treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The first-line treatment for this patient would be cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing therapy.
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) can develop in people of any age following a traumatic event, for example, a major disaster or childhood sexual abuse. It encompasses what became known as ‘shell shock’ following the first world war. One of the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria is that symptoms have been present for more than one month.
Clinical features:
Re-experiencing: flashbacks, nightmares, repetitive and distressing intrusive images
Avoidance: avoiding people, situations or circumstances resembling or associated with the event
Hyperarousal: hypervigilance for threat, exaggerated startle response, sleep problems, irritability and difficulty concentrating
Emotional numbing – lack of ability to experience feelings, feeling detached from other people
Depression
Drug or alcohol misuse
AngerManagement:
Following a traumatic event single-session interventions (often referred to as debriefing) are not recommended
Watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than 4 weeks
Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases
Drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults.
If drug treatment is used then paroxetine or mirtazapine are recommended. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old woman presents with upper GI haemorrhage. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which she is managed with low dose prednisolone, diclofenac and codeine phosphate.
On examination in the Emergency ward her BP is 90/60 mmHg, pulse 100/min. You fluid resuscitate her and her BP improves to 115/80 mmHg, with a pulse of 80/min.
Investigations;
Hb 10.4 g/dL,
WCC 6.1 x109/L,
PLT 145 x109/L,
Na+ 139 mmol/L,
K+ 4.9 mmol/L,
Creatinine 180 μmol/L,
ECG – Lateral ST depression , Upper GI endoscopy reveals a large bleeding ulcer on the posterior aspect of the duodenum. It cannot be easily reached with the endoscope, and you decide to attempt embolization.
Which of the following is the artery that should be targeted?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior superior Pancreaticoduodenal artery
Explanation:The most common location for a duodenal ulcer bleed is the posterior duodenum (remember: posterior bleeds, anterior perforates). The perfusion to this area is most specifically from the posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
The anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery supplies the anterior region. The gastroepiploic artery supplies mostly the stomach. The splenic artery goes, obviously, toward the spleen, in the other direction. The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the celiac artery, and it’s branches are the anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not an indication for an implantable cardiac defibrillator?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome
Explanation:Class I indications (i.e., the benefit greatly outweighs the risk, and the treatment should be administered): -Structural heart disease, sustained VT
-Syncope of undetermined origin, inducible VT or VF at electrophysiologic study (EPS)
-Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ≤35% due to prior MI, at least 40 days post-MI, NYHA class II or III
-LVEF ≤35%, NYHA class II or III
-LVEF ≤30% due to prior MI, at least 40 days post-MI
-LVEF ≤40% due to prior MI, inducible VT or VF at EPSClass IIa indications (i.e., the benefit outweighs the risk and it is reasonable to administer the treatment):
-Unexplained syncope, significant LV dysfunction, nonischaemic cardiomyopathy
-Sustained VT, normal or near-normal ventricular function
-Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with 1 or more major risk factors
-Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia/cardiomyopathy (ARVD/C) with 1 or more risk factors for sudden cardiac death (SCD)
-Long QT syndrome, syncope or VT while receiving beta-blockers
-Nonhospitalized patients awaiting heart transplant
-Brugada syndrome, syncope or VT
-Catecholaminergic polymorphic VT, syncope or VT while receiving beta-blockers
-Cardiac sarcoidosis, giant cell myocarditis, or Chagas disease -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents with chickenpox. How should she be treated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acyclovir
Explanation:Acyclovir is the correct answer. There has been no documented evidence of harm in pregnancy yet. Chickenpox can cause fetal abnormalities, and varicella zoster Immunoglobulin should be given to the infant immediately after birth (not the mother, won’t help). Steroids will actually make the chicken pox worse. Painkillers only, is obviously the wrong answer and pose severe risk to foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Choose the correct statement regarding hyponatremia:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperlipidaemia may cause pseudohyponatraemia
Explanation:The Hyperlipidaemia Effect: Pseudohyponatremia in Pancreatic Cancer; Patients who have disorders of cholestasis commonly present with volume depletion due to vomiting and poor oral intake, which, in turn, often leads to hypovolemic hyponatremia. It is less well known that disorders of cholestasis, including tumours of the hepatobiliary system, can be accompanied by hyperlipidaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old chef with a known history of Paget's disease is noted to have irregular dark red lines radiating from the optic nerve. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Angioid retinal streaks
Explanation:Angioid retinal streaks are seen on fundoscopy as irregular dark red streaks radiating from the optic nerve head. They are caused by degeneration, calcification and breaks in Bruch’s membrane. They are typically associated with Paget’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30 yr. old male, who is the brother of a patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy has come for the screening. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of screening?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echocardiography
Explanation:12-lead electrocardiography and transthoracic echocardiography are recommended as a screening method for family members of patients with HCM.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum rather than chickenpox?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absence of erythema surrounding lesions
Explanation:Molluscum contagiosum (MC), is a viral infection of the skin that results in small, raised, pink lesions with a dimple in the center with little to no surrounding erythema. They may occasionally be itchy or sore. They may occur singularly or in groups. Any area of the skin may be affected, with abdomen, legs, arms, neck, genital area, and face being most common. Onset of the lesions is around 7 weeks after infection. It usually goes away within a year without scarring.
Chickenpox lesions in the early stages may be mistaken for molluscum. However, the presence of associated macules and later vesicles and pustules help to differentiate them. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which form of study design would you choose if you were trying to ascertain whether the use of dummies in infants is correlated with sudden infant death syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Case-control study
Explanation:A case-control study is designed to help determine if an exposure is associated with an outcome (i.e., disease or condition of interest). In theory, the case-control study can be described simply. Case-control studies have specific advantages compared to other study designs. They are comparatively quick, inexpensive, and easy. They are particularly appropriate for (1) investigating outbreaks, and (2) studying rare diseases or outcomes. Sudden infant death syndrome is a rare medical event, thus case-control study is the most suitable option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 62 year old patient presents to the ophthalmology OPD with progressive deterioration of vision and dazzling of view in well lit environments. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis leading to this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Cataract is a condition characterized by clouding of the lens of the eye. This condition most frequently occurs due to age-related degenerative processes in the lens, but can also be associated with ocular trauma, metabolic disorders, side-effects of drugs, or congenital infections. The clouding causes distortion of light, as it passes through the lens, resulting in visual impairment and glare. Initially, a cataract presents discretely and may even go unnoticed, but the visual impairment worsens as the cataract grows larger.
Diagnosis is typically established on the basis of a thorough history and direct visualization of the cataract (by means of slit-lamp microscopy). Surgery is indicated with significant visual impairment and involves lens extraction and implantation of an artificial lens. Untreated cataracts eventually lead to complete blindness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 76 year old female who is admitted to the ward complains that she is experiencing visual hallucinations. She was admitted following a decline in mobility that was thought to be secondary to a urinary tract infection. Improvements have been seen clinically and biochemically while she has been admitted and she is currently awaiting discharge.
Upon review, she states that she has seen wolves walking around her bed. She has a background of hypertension, depression and age-related macular degeneration. What is the most appropriate step in this patient's management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the patient
Explanation:Charles Bonnet syndrome (CBS) involves visual hallucinations due to eye disease, usually associated with a sharp decline in vision. The phenomenon is seen in patients with moderate or severe visual impairment. It can occur spontaneously as the vision declines or it may be precipitated, in predisposed individuals, by concurrent illness such as infections elsewhere in the body.
It is not clear why CBS develops or why some individuals appear to be predisposed to it. It is particularly noted in patients with advanced macular degeneration. It has been suggested that reduced or absent stimulation of the visual system leads to increased excitability of the visual cortex (deafferentation hypothesis). This release phenomenon is compared to phantom limb symptoms after amputation.
CBS is much more common in older patients because conditions causing marked visual loss are more common in older people. However, it can occur at any age and has been described in children.
The prevalence is hard to assess due to considerable under-reporting, perhaps because patients frequently fear that it is a sign of mental illness or dementia. However, it is thought to occur in:
About 10-15% of patients with moderate visual loss.
Possibly up to 50% of people with severe visual loss.
Presentation:
The nature of the hallucination depends on the part of the brain that is activated. The hallucinations may be black and white or in colour. They may involve grids/brickwork/lattice patterns but are typically much more complex:The hallucinations are always outside the body.
The hallucinations are purely visual – other senses are not involved.
The hallucinations have no personal meaning to the patient.
Hallucinations may last seconds, minutes or hours.
CBS tends to occur in a ‘state of quiet restfulness’. This may be after a meal or when listening to the radio (but not when dozing off).
Symptoms also have a tendency to occur in dim lighting conditions.
Patients may report high levels of distress, with some patients reporting anger, anxiety and even fear associated with the hallucinations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old hairdresser presents to the GP with loss of sensation over the lateral three and a half fingers of her right hand, tenderness over her right forearm, and inability to make a tight fist. She complains of pain in her right arm when twisting door handles anticlockwise. Phalen’s and Tinel’s tests are negative. She is otherwise neurologically intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pronator teres syndrome
Explanation:Entrapment of the median nerve by pronator teres causes a median nerve neuropathy, which is worse during pronation of the forearm. Examination should involve excluding carpal tunnel syndrome and pronation of the affected forearm against resistance, which brings on the pain. Unlike carpal tunnel syndrome, the median nerve proximal to the wrist may be tender to palpation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Choose the part of the renal tubule which is impermeable to water:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thin ascending limb of loop of Henle
Explanation:The thick ascending limb actively reabsorbs NaCl but has an extremely low transepithelial osmotic water permeability, even in the presence of vasopressin. This combination of NaCl reabsorption without water reabsorption serves two vital functions: it provides NaCl to increase the osmolality of the medullary interstitium, tubules, vasculature, and collecting ducts; and it dilutes the luminal fluid within the thick ascending limb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease.
Cholesterol testing reveals triglyceride levels of 4.2 mmol/l and a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 0.8 mmol/l.
You advise him to start fibrate therapy.
Which of the following best describes the mode of action for fibrates?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They are inhibitors of lipoprotein lipase activity and increase HDL synthesis
Explanation:Treatment with fibrates, a widely used class of lipid-modifying agents, results in a substantial decrease in plasma triglycerides and is usually associated with a moderate decrease in LDL cholesterol and an increase in HDL cholesterol concentrations.
Evidence from studies is available to implicate 5 major mechanisms underlying the above-mentioned modulation of lipoprotein phenotypes by fibrates:
1. Induction of lipoprotein lipolysis.
2. Induction of hepatic fatty acid (FA) uptake and reduction of hepatic triglyceride production.
3. Increased removal of LDL particles. Fibrate treatment results in the formation of LDL with a higher affinity for the LDL receptor, which is thus catabolized more rapidly.
4. Reduction in neutral lipid (cholesteryl ester and triglyceride) exchange between VLDL and HDL may result from decreased plasma levels of TRL.
5. Increase in HDL production and stimulation of reverse cholesterol transport. Fibrates increase the production of apoA-I and apoA-II in the liver, which may contribute to the increase of plasma HDL concentrations and a more efficient reverse cholesterol transport. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old gentleman presents to the A&E department complaining of a sudden-onset occipital headache associated with vomiting. His symptoms started 2 hours previously and are continuing. He has a previous history of infrequent migraine without aura, which also causes nausea but not vomiting. He rated his current headache as much more severe than his usual migraine. Examination is unremarkable. In particular, there is no neck stiffness or photophobia.
Which of the following management options would be the most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT brain scan, followed by lumbar puncture if CT normal
Explanation:The patient presented with sudden-onset headache that is more painful than his usual migraine attacks. This gives a high suspicion of subarachnoid haemorrhage; thus, a CT brain scan should be ordered first to rule this out. However, a normal CT scan is apparent in 30% of patients with subarachnoid haemorrhage and should be referred for lumbar puncture to look for red blood cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 24 year old presents with diarrhoea. She has had a previous ileal resection for Crohn's Disease. She has also had two recent episodes of loin to groin pain. Her bloods are normal including her inflammatory markers
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Short bowel syndrome
Explanation:Given her history of bowel resections, the most likely answer in this case is short bowel syndrome. IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion and less likely. Bacterial overgrowth does not relate to resection history, so unlikely. Celiac disease or a flare of IBD are also less likely than short bowel syndrome in this case, simply given the history. Also her labs are normal making these unlikely. History, history, history!
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements describe the mechanism of fibrates most accurately?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased lipoprotein lipase activity via PPAR-alpha
Explanation:The main mechanism of fibrate drugs is activation of gene transcription factors known as PPARs, particularly PPAR-α, which regulate the expression of genes that control lipoprotein metabolism. There are several consequences of PPAR-α activation, which reduce circulating LDL cholesterol and triglycerides and increase HDL cholesterol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman came to the diabetes clinic for her regular follow up.
The following results are obtained:
Urine analysis: Protein+,
HBA1c 86mmol/mol (10.0%).
What is her average blood glucose level during the past 2 months?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15
Explanation:The level of haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c), also known as glycated haemoglobin, determines how well a patient’s blood glucose level has been controlled over the previous 8–12 weeks. Recent studies have been made to correlate between HbA1c and average glucose level.
Using the following formula: Average blood glucose (mmol/l) = (1.98 x 1 HbA1c) – 4.29 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 42 year old male undergoes a routine cranial nerve examination, which reveals the following findings:
Rinne's test: Air conduction > bone conduction in both ears
Weber's test: Localizes to the right side
What do these test results imply?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left sensorineural deafness
Explanation:Weber’s test – if there is a sensorineural problem, the sound is localized to the unaffected side (right), indicating a problem on the left side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A cohort study is developed to assess the correlation between blood pressure and working long hours. After 10 years of follow-up and for the 1050 individuals working less than 40 hours per week, 1000 patients had normal blood pressure and 50 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. For the 660 patients working more than 40 hours per week, 600 patients had normal blood pressure and 60 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. If you work more than 40 hours per week, what is the odds ratio of developing hypertension compared to the individuals working less than 40 hours per week?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of the association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Where
a = Number of exposed cases
b = Number of exposed non-cases
c = Number of unexposed cases
d = Number of unexposed non-cases
OR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 11-year-old boy is referred to you following his seventh course of antibiotics in the last six years for lower respiratory tract infections. He also has a history of eczema for which he is currently on a topical steroid cream.
His full blood count (FBC) report shows:
Hb: 13.9 g/dL,
Plts: 65 x 10^9/L,
WCC: 12.3 x 10^9/L.
Which of the following genes should you expect an abnormality in?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: WASP
Explanation:The combination of frequent infections, eczema, and thrombocytopaenia are characteristic of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, which is due to an abnormality in the WASP gene. It is an X-linked recessive disorder that causes primary immunodeficiency owing to a combined B- and T-cell dysfunction.
The other listed options are:
1. PKD1: polycystic kidney disease
2. CFTR: cystic fibrosis
3. HFE1: haemochromatosis
4. RET: multiple endocrine neoplasia, Hirschsprung’s disease -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Sensorineural deafness is strongly associated with which one of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:Primary rubella infection during pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester, can affect several organs and cause birth defects that are responsible for congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). The most common defects of CRS are hearing impairment (unilateral or bilateral sensorineural), eye defects (e.g., cataracts, congenital glaucoma, or pigmentary retinopathy), and cardiac defects (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus or peripheral pulmonic stenosis). Congenital hearing loss is the most common sequela, occurring in approximately 60% of cases, especially when infection occurs in the 4th month of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents with lethargy and confusion. On examination, you note a purpuric rash covering the abdominal wall and thighs, and a fever of 38C. Investigations reveal haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury.
Which feature of the presentation makes the diagnosis of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura more likely than haemolytic uremic syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Confusion
Explanation:Confusion in the patient refers to neurological symptoms that are more associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura than with haemolytic uremic syndrome. All the other symptoms present in both conditions similarly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen right knee. X-ray shows extensive chondrocalcinosis but no fracture. Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following would be present in the joint fluid aspirate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals
Explanation:Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases.
Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals.
Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils.
X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis).
Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old woman is diagnosed with acute purulent meningitis after returning from a recent holiday abroad. Which of the following investigations is the least relevant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PCR of CSF for Mycobacterium TB
Explanation:Amoebic, bacterial and fungal meningitis may present acutely but is not common in tuberculous meningitis. Amoebic meningitis is caused by Naegleria fowleri as a result of swimming in infected freshwater. The organism may be found in fresh CSF specimens with phase contrast microscopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old gentleman is found dead in his apartment. He was known to be suffering from primary systemic amyloidosis. What is the most probable cause for his death?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac involvement
Explanation:Primary amyloidosis is characterised by abnormal protein build-up in the tissues and organ such as the heart, liver, spleen, kidneys, skin, ligaments, and nerves. However, the most common cause of death in patients with primary amyloidosis is heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50 yr. old male presented with acute severe central chest pain and acute ST elevation myocardial infarction was diagnosed. He was treated with streptokinase. 2 days later he was sweating excessively and he was found to be hypotensive. Which of the following cannot be considered as a reason for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypotensive effect of streptokinase
Explanation:Hypotensive effect of streptokinase occurs during the streptokinase infusion which is usually transient. Acute mitral regurgitation due to rupture of papillary muscles, ventricular septal defects and reinfarctions (left or right) are known to cause hypotension after 24 hrs. Pulmonary embolism is less likely but cannot be excluded.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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