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  • Question 1 - A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for antenatal follow-up.
      On examination, the fundal height is found to be18 cm.
      which among the following would be the best next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to a gynecologist

      Correct Answer: Perform an ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      At 12 weeks gestation the fundus is expected to be palpable above the pubis symphysis and it is expected to be felt at the level of umbilicus by 20 weeks. Though the uterine fundus stands in between from 12 and 20 weeks, the height of the fundus in centimeters is equivalent to the weeks of pregnancy after 20 weeks.

      For 14-week pregnant uterus a fundal height of 18cm is definitely large and dating errors is considered as the most common cause for such a discrepancy. Hence, it is better to perform an ultrasound scan for more accurately estimating the gestational age. Also if the case is not a simple dating error, ultrasonography can provide definitive additional information about other possible conditions such as polyhydramnios, multiple gestation, etc that might have led to a large-for-date uterus.

      A large-for-gestational-age uterus are most commonly found in conditions like:
      – Dating errors which is the most common cause
      – Twin pregnancy
      – Gestational diabetes
      – Polyhydramnios
      – Gestational trophoblastic disease, also known as molar pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buccal smear is chromatin positive

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients have high FSH levels and low oestrogen levels. They have a short stature and buccal smear is chromatin negative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding missed abortion, all of the following are CORRECT, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding missed abortion, all of the following are CORRECT, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made

      Explanation:

      Expectant management has been reported with unpredictable success rate ranging from 25–76%. Waiting for spontaneous expulsion of the products of conception would waste much time, during which women may suffer uncertainty and anxiety. However, when additional surgical evacuation is needed owing to failure, they may suffer from an emotional breakdown. It is thus not recommended for missed early miscarriage due to the risks of emergency surgical treatment and blood transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are asked to consult on a young woman with a pre-existing cardiac...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to consult on a young woman with a pre-existing cardiac defect. She wants to become pregnant in the near future and seeks advice about what risks to her health that this will create. You tell that the highest maternal mortality rates are associated with which of the following cardiac defects:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome

      Explanation:

      Eisenmenger’s syndrome is one where there is communication between the systemic and pulmonary system, along with increased pulmonary vascular resistance, either to systemic level or above systemic level (right to left shunt). A would-be mother must be informed that to become pregnant would incur a 50% risk of dying. Even if she survives, fetal mortality approaches 50% as well.

      – Severe symptomatic aortic stenosis has a mortality in pregnancy of about 20%. Prevention of reduction in preload is necessary in all obstructive cardiac lesions. Balloon valvuloplasty can be done in pregnancy.
      – Due to the increased blood volume and cardiac output in pregnancy, mitral stenosis can lead to severe pulmonary oedema. Balloon valvuloplasty can be done in pregnancy.
      – Ebstein anomaly is a malformation of the tricuspid valve- It is usually not associated with maternal mortality.
      – Atrial-septal defects rarely cause complications in pregnancy, labour, or delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 24-year-woman, gravida 2 para 1, 37 weeks of gestation, was admitted due...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-woman, gravida 2 para 1, 37 weeks of gestation, was admitted due to spontaneous rupture of membranes. Her previous pregnancy was uncomplicated and delivered at term via vaginal delivery. 24 hours since rupture of her membranes, no spontaneous labour was noted, hence a syntocinon/oxytocin infusion (10 units in 1L of Hartmann solution) was started at 3DmL/hour and increased to 120 mL over 9 hours. After 10 hours of infusion, during which Syntocinon dosage was increased to 30 units per litre, contractions were noted. Which is the most common complication of Syntocinon infusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal distress.

      Explanation:

      In this case, induction of labour at 37 weeks of gestation was necessary due to the absence of spontaneous of labour 24 hours after rupture of membranes. High doses of Syntocin and large volume of fluids may be required particularly when induction is done before term.

      Syntocin infusion can lead to uterine hypertonus and tetany which can result in fetal distress at any dosage. This is a common reason to decrease or stop the infusion and an indication for Caesarean delivery due to fetal distress

      Uterine rupture can occur as a result of Syntocin infusion especially when the accompanying fluids do not contain electrolytes, which puts the patient at risk for water intoxication.

      Maternal hypotension results from Syntocin infusion, not hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old woman at 32 weeks of gestation is discovered to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman at 32 weeks of gestation is discovered to have a positive group B Streptococcus vaginal swab.
      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment needed before labour

      Explanation:

      About 1 in 4 pregnant women carry GBS bacteria in their body. Doctors should test pregnant woman for GBS bacteria when they are 36 through 37 weeks pregnant.

      Giving pregnant women antibiotics through the vein (IV) during labour can prevent most early-onset GBS disease in newborns. A pregnant woman who tests positive for GBS bacteria and gets antibiotics during labour has only a 1 in 4,000 chance of delivering a baby who will develop GBS disease. If she does not receive antibiotics during labour, her chance of delivering a baby who will develop GBS disease is 1 in 200.

      Pregnant women cannot take antibiotics to prevent early-onset GBS disease in newborns before labour. The bacteria can grow back quickly. The antibiotics only help during labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been ongoing for twelve months. She states that she has been thinking about starting a family and was wondering if ovulation induction therapy was an option for her.
      Which one of the following would be most valuable in predicting a poor response to ovulation induction therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

      Explanation:

      The tests listed can all be performed during the work-up of a woman with secondary amenorrhoea. They are useful in that they cam diagnosis the most likely cause for the amenorrhoea as well as guide the treatment required if the patient wanted to become pregnant. Of these, the hormone test best able to predict a poor response to ovulation-induction therapy is the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) assay. If there are high levels of FSH, most of the ovulation-induction therapies are ineffective, although the rare spontaneous pregnancy can occur.

      To maximise the chance of pregnancy in patients with elevated FSH levels, the most effective technique is an ovum donation from a young woman. The ovum would be fertilised in the laboratory and transferred to the uterus of the woman with the high FSH level after administering hormonal preparation of her uterus.

      If the FSH level is normal, ovulation-induction therapy is usually effective. For these patients, correction of thyroid function will be necessary if the thyroid function is not normal. Dopamine agonist therapy is indicated if the prolactin level is elevated. Clomiphene or gonadotrophin therapy can be used where the luteinising and oestradiol levels are low, normal, or minimally elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - Which vitamin deficiency leads to Wernicke's encephalopathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which vitamin deficiency leads to Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B1

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B1 deficiency can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Alcoholics are at particular risk. In obstetrics all women with hyperemesis gravidarum should receive thiamine supplementation to prevent Wernicke’s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following takes part in the arterial supply of the ovary?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following takes part in the arterial supply of the ovary?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine arteries

      Explanation:

      The ovarian arteries, arising from the abdominal aorta and the ascending uterine arteries which are branches of the internal iliac artery all supply the ovaries. They terminate by bifurcating into the ovarian and tubal branches and anastomose with the contralateral branches providing a collateral circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary genital herpetic lesions at multiple sites in the genital area.
      What is the most appropriate management in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prophylactic antiviral before 4 days before delivery

      Explanation:

      This woman at her 37 weeks of gestation, has developed multiple herpetic lesions over her genitals. In every case were the mother develops herpes simplex infection after 28 weeks of pregnancy, chances for intrapartum and vertical transmission of the infection to the neonate is considered to be very high.

      Risk factors of intrapartum herpes simplex infection of the child includes premature labour, premature rupture of membrane, primary herpes simplex infection and multiple lesion in the genital area.

      The most appropriate methods for managing this case includes:
      – checking for herpes simplex infection using PCR testing of a cervical swab.
      – starting prophylactic antiviral therapy for the mother from 38 weeks of gestation until delivery.
      – preferring a cesarean section delivery if there are active lesions present in the cervix and/or vulva.

      Cesarean delivery is advised in this case along with maternal antiviral therapy before delivery to minimise the risk of vertical transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - The average normal heart rate of a foetus at term is : ...

    Incorrect

    • The average normal heart rate of a foetus at term is :

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 120-160 bpm

      Explanation:

      The normal fetal heart rate ranges from 120-160 beats per minute in the uterine period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 12 - A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends clinic due...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends clinic due to suprapubic pain. Ultrasound shows a viable foetus and also a fibroid with a cystic fluid filled centre. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic degeneration of fibroid

      Explanation:

      A fibroid is a benign tumour of the smooth muscles of the uterus also known as a leiomyoma. It has a typical whorled appearance and this may be altered following degeneration which occurs in four main types:
      1. Red degeneration, also known as carneous degeneration, of degeneration that can involve a uterine leiomyoma. While it is an uncommon type of degeneration, it is thought to be the most common form of degeneration of a leiomyoma during pregnancy. Red degeneration follows an acute disruption of the blood supply to the fibroid during growth typically in a mid-second trimester presenting as sudden onset of pain with tenderness localizing to the area of the uterus along with pyrexia and leucocytosis. On ultrasound it can have peripheral (rim).

      2. Hyaline degeneration is the most common form of degeneration that can occur in a uterine leiomyoma. It is thought to occur in up to 60% of uterine leiomyomasoccurs when the fibroid outgrows its blood supply. this may progresses to central necrosis leaving a cystic space in the centre knowns as cystic degeneration.

      3. Cystic degeneration is an uncommon type of degeneration that a uterine leiomyoma (fibroid) can undergo. This type of degeneration is thought to represent ,4% of all types of uterine leiomyoma degeneration. When the leiomyoma increases in size, the vascular supply to it becomes inadequate and leads to different types of degeneration: hyaline, cystic, myxoid, or red degeneration. Dystrophic calcification may also occur. Hyalinization is the commonest type of degeneration. Cystic degeneration is an extreme sequel of edema. Ultrasound may show a hypoechoic or heterogeneous uterine mass with cystic areas.

      4. Myxoid degeneration of leiomyoma is one of the rarer types of degeneration that can occur in a uterine leiomyoma. While this type of degeneration is generally considered rare, the highest prevalence for this type of degeneration has been reported as up to 50% of all degenerations of leiomyomas. Fibroids (i.e. uterine leiomyomas) that have undergone myxoid degeneration are filled with a gelatinous material and can be difficult to differentiate from cystic degeneration; however, they typically appear as more complex cystic masses. They appear hypocellular with a myxoid matrix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 13 - Pelvic ligaments can change at term resulting in? ...

    Incorrect

    • Pelvic ligaments can change at term resulting in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enlargement of the pelvic cavity

      Explanation:

      The pelvis is supported by a variety of ligaments. At term, these ligaments allow for variation in its structure such that the overall size of the pelvic cavity is increased in order to accommodate the upcoming foetus into the cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 14 - A 38 year old women attends clinic follow up. You note pelvic ultrasound...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old women attends clinic follow up. You note pelvic ultrasound shows a 36mm simple cyst. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding this cyst according to the RCOG green top guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discharge with no follow up

      Explanation:

      As this is a simple cyst less than 50mm in diameter the patient does not require further investigation or routine follow up

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 15 - In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin decreases from 13.3 g/dL to 10.5 g/dL from the start of pregnancy i.e. First trimester till the 3rd trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 16 - The broad ligament contains which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The broad ligament contains which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine artery

      Explanation:

      The contents of the broad ligament:
      Fallopian tubes
      Ovarian artery
      Uterine artery
      Ovarian ligament
      Round ligament of uterus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 17 - A 34-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of vague...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of vague stomach pain. A unilocular cyst (3.8 x 4.3 x 3.0 cm) was discovered in the left ovary during a trans-abdominal ultrasound.
      What is the best management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance, no further action required

      Explanation:

      In premenopausal women, watchful waiting usually involves monitoring for symptoms (pelvic pain or pressure) and repeating the pelvic ultrasound after six to eight weeks. If the ovarian cyst does not enlarge or if it resolves during the period of watchful waiting, it does not usually require surgical removal. Some premenopausal women will be advised to take a birth control pill during this time to help prevent new ovarian cysts from developing.

      If a cyst decreases in size or does not change, the ultrasound is often repeated at regular intervals until your healthcare provider is certain that the cyst is not growing. If the cyst resolves, no further testing or follow-up is required.
      Surgery may be recommended in the following situations:
      – A cyst is causing persistent pain or pressure, or may rupture or twist.
      – A cyst appears on ultrasound to be caused by endometriosis and is removed for fertility reasons.
      – Large cysts (>5 to 10 cm) are more likely to require surgical removal compared to smaller cysts. However, a large size does not predict whether a cyst is cancerous.
      – If the cyst appears suspicious for cancer. If you have risk factors for ovarian cancer or the cyst looks potentially cancerous on imaging studies, your healthcare provider may recommend surgery.
      – If the suspicion for ovarian cancer is low but the cyst does not resolve after several ultrasounds, you may choose to have it removed after a discussion with your healthcare provider. However, surgical removal is not usually necessary in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms,...

    Incorrect

    • A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms, and increased nervousness.
      Along with TSH what other investigations should be done for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Free T4

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned in the case has developed thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy. TSH level should be tested, and if the result shows any suppressed or elevated TSH level, then it is mandatory to check for free T4 level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 19 - In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased, EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The heart adapts to the increased cardiac demand that occurs during pregnancy in many ways:
      Cardiac output increases throughout early pregnancy, and peaks in the third trimester, usually to 30-50% above baseline.
      Oestrogen mediates this rise in cardiac output by increasing the pre-load and stroke volume, mainly via a higher overall blood volume (which increases by 40–50%).
      The heart rate increases, but generally not above 100 beats/ minute.
      Total systematic vascular resistance decreases by 20% secondary to the vasodilatory effect of progesterone. Overall, the systolic and diastolic blood pressure drops 10–15 mm Hg in the first trimester and then returns to the baseline in the second half of pregnancy.
      All of these cardiovascular adaptations can lead to common complaints, such as palpitations, decreased exercise tolerance, and dizziness

      A pregnant woman may experience an increase in the size of the kidneys and ureter due to the increased blood volume and vasculature.
      Later in pregnancy, the woman might develop physiological hydronephrosis and hydroureteronephrosis, which are normal.
      There is an increase in glomerular filtration rate associated with an increase in creatinine clearance, protein, albumin excretion, and urinary glucose excretion.
      There is also an increase in sodium retention from the renal tube so oedema and water retention is a common sign in pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the clinic for advice because she is planning...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the clinic for advice because she is planning to conceive and has never been pregnant before. Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no history of diabetes, mental health issues, and is not taking any regular medication.
      Which of the following is considered the best recommendation to give to the patient for the prevention of neural tube defects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 0.4 mg daily for a minimum of one month before conception to first 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).

      Women who are at high risk of having babies with neural tube defects and who would benefit from higher doses of folic acid include those with certain folate-enzyme genotypes, previous pregnancies with neural tube defects, diabetes, malabsorption disorders, or obesity, or those who take antifolate medications or smoke. Such women should take 5 mg/d of folic acid for the 2 months before conception and during the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old woman who is multigravida and with breech presentation presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is multigravida and with breech presentation presented to the emergency department for vaginal delivery. Upon spontaneous rupture of the membranes, bradycardia and variable deceleration was noted on the fetal heart rate monitoring.
      Vaginal examination was performed and revealed cord prolapse that is still pulsating.
      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for emergency caesarean delivery

      Explanation:

      Umbilical cord prolapse (UCP) occurs when the umbilical cord exits the cervical opening before the fetal presenting part. It is a rare obstetric emergency that carries a high rate of potential fetal morbidity and mortality. Resultant compression of the cord by the descending foetus during delivery leads to fetal hypoxia and bradycardia, which can result in fetal death or permanent disability.

      Certain features of pregnancy increase the risk for the development of umbilical cord prolapse by preventing appropriate engagement of the presenting part with the pelvis. These include fetal malpresentation, multiple gestations, polyhydramnios, preterm rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, preterm delivery, and fetal and cord abnormalities.

      The occurrence of fetal bradycardia in the setting of ruptured membranes should prompt immediate evaluation for potential cord prolapse.

      In overt prolapse, the cord is palpable as a pulsating structure in the vaginal vault. In occult prolapse, the cord is not visible or palpable ahead of the fetal presenting part. The definitive management of umbilical cord prolapse is expedient delivery; this is usually by caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 22 - Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contractions via which of the following messenger pathways? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contractions via which of the following messenger pathways?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activates phospholipase-C which produces IP3 which triggers intracellular Calcium ion release

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin activates phospholipase C to produce inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3), which releases Ca2+ from intracellular stores. There are thought to be other mechanisms by which myometrium is stimulated by Oxytocin including increased sensitisation of the myometrium and increased calcium entry into cells. cAMP and Protein Kinase A inhibit myometrial contractility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - A 32 year old lady with known stage III cervical cancer presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old lady with known stage III cervical cancer presents to A&E with lower abdominal and unilateral flank pain. From the following list what is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ureteric Obstruction

      Explanation:

      In stage III cervical cancer there is involvement of the pelvic wall and ureter which may result in abdominal pain and hydronephrosis.

      2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma

      Stage
      0 – Carcinoma in situ
      1 – Confined to the cervix (diagnosed microscopy)
      1A1 – Less than 3mm depth & 7mm lateral spread
      1A2 – 3mm to 5mm depth & less than 7mm lateral spread
      1B1 – Clinically visible lesion or greater than A2 & less than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      1B2 – Clinically visible lesion, Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2 – Invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or lower 1/3 vagina
      2A1 – Involvement of the upper two-thirds of the vagina, without parametrical invasion & Less than 4cm
      2A2 – Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2B – Parametrial involvement
      3 – Extends to Pelvic side wall or lower 1/3 vagina or hydronephrosis
      3A – No pelvic side wall involvement
      3B – Pelvic side wall involved or hydronephrosis
      4 – Extends beyond true pelvis
      4A – Invades mucosa bladder and rectum
      4B – Distant Metastasis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 24 - Hyperemesis gravidarum occurs in what percentage of pregnancies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hyperemesis gravidarum occurs in what percentage of pregnancies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.50%

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis Gravidarum effects around 0.3-2% of Pregnancies. It causes imbalances of fluid and electrolytes, disturbs nutritional intake and metabolism, causes physical and psychological debilitation and is associated with adverse pregnancy outcome, including an increased risk of preterm birth
      and low birthweight babies. The aetiology is unknown however various potential mechanisms have been proposed including an association with high levels of serum human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG), oestrogen and thyroxine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 25 - The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney? ...

    Incorrect

    • The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal Cortex

      Explanation:

      The substructures of the nephrons are mainly located within the cortex. The JGA sits next to the glomerulus in the cortex (click on the magnifying glass of the image to see the arrangement). They play an important role in blood pressure homeostasis as the juxtaglomerular cells produce renin. The descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle and collecting ducts have sections within both the cortex and medulla

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 26 - What is the typical weight of a term uterus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the typical weight of a term uterus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1200g

      Explanation:

      Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium. Weight of the uterus increases from 50–60 g prior to pregnancy to 1000 g by term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 27 - Jenny, a 23-year-old woman who is at 14 weeks gestation, presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • Jenny, a 23-year-old woman who is at 14 weeks gestation, presented to the medical clinic because she developed a rash characteristic of chickenpox after 2 days of low-grade fever and mild malaise. Serological test was performed and revealed positive anti-varicella lgM.
      Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate course of action for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiviral therapy and pelvic ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox or varicella is a contagious disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). The virus is responsible for chickenpox (usually primary infection in non-immune hosts) and herpes zoster or shingles (following reactivation of latent infection). Chickenpox results in a skin rash that forms small, itchy blisters, which scabs over. It typically starts on the chest, back, and face then spreads. It is accompanied by fever, fatigue, pharyngitis, and headaches which usually last five to seven days. Complications include pneumonia, brain inflammation, and bacterial skin infections. The disease is more severe in adults than in children.

      Primary varicella infection during pregnancy can also affect the foetus, who may present later with chickenpox. In pregnant women, antibodies produced as a result of immunization or previous infection are transferred via the placenta to the foetus. Varicella infection in pregnant women could spread via the placenta and infect the foetus. If infection occurs during the first 28 weeks of pregnancy, congenital varicella syndrome may develop. Effects on the foetus can include underdeveloped toes and fingers, structural eye damage, neurological disorder, and anal and bladder malformation.

      Prenatal diagnosis of fetal varicella can be performed using ultrasound, though a delay of 5 weeks following primary maternal infection is advised.

      Antivirals are typically indicated in adults, including pregnant women because this group is more prone to complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 28 - Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position during labour. Which of the following statements is the most probable explanation for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incoordinate uterine action.

      Explanation:

      Incoordinate uterine action almost always results in fetal distress due to increased resting intrauterine pressure. All other statements can also cause fetal distress, however, these are not as common as incoordinate uterine action. Syntocin infusion for labour augmentation and administration of epidural anaesthetic for pain relief can also increase the risk of fetal distress.
      Cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring during labour is highly recommended in patients where the fetal head is found in the OP position. Moreover, it is mandatory when there is Syntocin infusion or epidural anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 29 - A 73-year-old woman presents with a complaint of blood-stained vaginal discharge.
    On speculum...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman presents with a complaint of blood-stained vaginal discharge.
      On speculum examination, her ectocervix and vagina show signs of atrophy.
      No evidence of malignant cells is seen on cervical cytology, although no endocervical cells were visualised.
      Choose the most suitable next step for management of this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hysteroscopy and dilatation and curettage

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic hysteroscopy with dilatation and curettage (D&C) is the most suitable step for immediate management of this patient (correct answer). This would aid in determining if an endometrial lesion exists and enable histologic examination of any endometrium that may be present.
      Assessment of endometrial thickness via ultrasound examination is commonly used to decide if a patient requires D&C. In postmenopausal women, an endometrial thickness of more than 4mm indicates need for D&C.

      However, this method is more beneficial in younger postmenopausal women. In women who are 70 years or older, postmenopausal bleeding should be considered to be due to a malignancy until confirmed otherwise.

      In this patient, a vaginal swab for culture or a colposcopy would not be appropriate.

      Similarly, laparoscopy is not indicated unless the bleeding continued despite a normal hysteroscopy and D&C.

      If the endometrial thickness is less than 4mm, a malignancy is less likely to be present; however, the risk cannot be completely excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - What is the mode of action of Tranexamic acid? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of action of Tranexamic acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits Plasminogen Activation

      Explanation:

      Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic drug which is one of the treatment options in menorrhagia i.e. heavy menstrual bleeding. It acts by binding to the receptor sites on plasminogen thus preventing plasmin from attaching to those receptors thus inhibiting plasminogen activation.

      If pharmaceutical treatment is appropriate NICE advise treatments should be considered in the following order:

      1. levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) provided at least 12 months use is anticipated
      2. tranexamic acid or NSAIDs* or combined oral contraceptives (COCs) or cyclical oral progestogens
      3. Consider progesterone only contraception e.g. injected long-acting progestogens

      *When heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) coexists with dysmenorrhoea NSAIDs should be preferred to tranexamic acid. Also note NSAIDs and tranexamic are appropriate to use if treatment needed pending investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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