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Question 1
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The percentage of blood supplied to the liver by the hepatic artery is?
Your Answer: 60%
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:The liver receives a dual blood supply from the hepatic portal vein and hepatic arteries. The hepatic portal vein delivers approximately 75% of the liver’s blood supply, and carries venous blood drained from the spleen, gastrointestinal tract, and its associated organs. The hepatic arteries supply arterial blood to the liver, accounting for the remaining quarter of its blood flow. Oxygen is provided from both sources; approximately half of the liver’s oxygen demand is met by the hepatic portal vein, and half is met by the hepatic arteries
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Question 2
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A 20-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a history of vaginal bleeding after intercourse. Pain is absent and upon examination, the following are found: abdomen soft and relaxed, uterus size is equal to dates and CTG reactive. What is the single most possible diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Placenta previa
Explanation:Placenta previa typically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding usually in the second to third trimester. Although it’s a condition that sometimes resolves by itself, bleeding may result in serious complications for the mother and the baby and so it should be managed as soon as possible.
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 5 year old girl presented with short stature, primary amenorrhea, puffy arms and a webbed neck. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner’s syndrome
Explanation:Turner’s syndrome is characterised by a webbed neck, short stature, primary amenorrhea and cardiac, renal and muscular defects. Gene analysis shows a single X chromosome in the patients. Downs syndrome has certain cognitive and physical abnormalities, whereas in Klinefelter syndrome there are widely spaced nipples, long arms and infertility and it only occurs in men.
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the following is the most common adverse effect he might complain about?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dysphonia
Explanation:Usage of inhaled corticosteroids are less associated with systemic adverse effects. However they are associated with local complications including dental caries and most commonly dysphonia.
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male complains of anuria and back pain for the last 3 days. He looked tired and had complaints of pruritus and hiccups. Which of the following metabolic abnormalities is most likely?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Symptoms are suggestive of renal failure leading to uraemia. For patients with these symptoms metabolic acidosis is the most probable cause. Hyperkalaemia instead of hypokalaemia is present in the patients with renal failure.
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25 year old patient has presented with symptoms which all point to the cerebellopontine angle (CPA) a tumour. These are numbness in the face, vertigo, and tinnitus. Choose the most appropriate investigation from the list of options.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI Brain
Explanation:MRI scans are used to diagnose tumours in the cerebellopontine angle.
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male underwent an urgent appendectomy. 3 hours after the procedure he developed tachycardia and fever. He was also having pain in his abdomen and shoulder area. What is the first step in the management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maintain IV access and give IV fluids
Explanation:The features mentioned in this case indicate an internal haemorrhage. This should be managed initially by passing an IV line and IV fluids.
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy has been taken to his local hospital for his third sore throat in one month. Doctors have discovered bleeding from his gums and nose. He is also presenting with pale conjunctiva. From the list of options, what is the single cell type most likely to be seen on microscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blast cells
Explanation:Many of the symptoms favour blast cells: the patient’s young age; a reoccurring sore throat caused by neutropenia and abnormal lymphoblasts; pale conjunctiva due to reduced production of red blood cells (this is because the marrow has been occupied by blast cells). There are no risk factors present for aplastic anaemia, and congenital aplastic anaemia would present itself earlier in life. A bone marrow aspiration would be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A young man has ingested 25 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg. What is the suggested minimum time interval between ingestion and measuring the blood plasma paracetamol levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 hours
Explanation:The post-ingestion plasma level, which is required in order to guide the treatment, reaches a peak at 4 hours. Levels requiring antidote (N-acetyl cysteine) include: 100 mcg per ml at 4 hours, 35 mcg per ml at 10 hours and 25 mcg per ml at 12 hours. These levels are in conjunction with the levels recorded and they should all be put down on a treatment nomogram.
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 56 year old, postmenopausal female complains of vaginal bleeding. Transvaginal ultrasound is done which reveals the thickness of endometrium to be 10mm. Which further investigation would be most appropriate in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hysteroscopy and D&C
Explanation:Endometrial hyperplasia most often is caused by excess oestrogen without progesterone. If ovulation does not occur, progesterone is not made, and the lining is not shed. The endometrium may continue to grow in response to oestrogen. The cells that make up the lining may crowd together and may become abnormal. This condition, called hyperplasia, may lead to cancer in some women. Endometrial hyperplasia usually occurs after menopause, when ovulation stops and progesterone is no longer made. It also can occur during peri-menopause, when ovulation may not occur regularly. Listed as follows are other situations in which women may have high levels of oestrogen and not enough progesterone:
– Use of medications that act like oestrogen
– Long-term use of high doses of oestrogen after menopause (in women who have not had a hysterectomy)
– Irregular menstrual periods, especially associated with polycystic ovary syndrome or infertility
– ObesityTransvaginal ultrasound may be done to measure the thickness of the endometrium. To exclude carcinoma an endometrial biopsy, dilation and curettage, or hysteroscopy may be done.
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old male patient presented with bilateral kidney stones. He gave a history of sarcoidosis. What is the most probable cause for renal stones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyper calcaemic
Explanation:Sarcoidosis is a multisystem granulomatous disorder which may involve the kidneys to a variable degree. Renal calculi have been reported to occur in about 10% of patients with chronic sarcoidosis. Hypercalcaemia due to marked hyperabsorption of dietary calcium, bone resorption and renal tubular calcium reabsorption causes hypercalciuria. Both hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria contribute to nephrolithiasis.
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy was brought to the ED in an unconscious and apnoeic state. What is your immediate management of this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secure airway
Explanation:ABC : Airway, breathing, circulation is the order of assessment in any patient that is unconscious and apnoeic.
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Question 13
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A man was admitted with galactorrhoea. History reveals that the patient has been having problems with getting and maintaining an erection. He also admits he's noticed a decrease in the quantity of his facial hair. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyper prolactinaemia
Explanation:Increased levels of prolactin in men can lead to erectile dysfunction, reduced facial and body hair and on rare occasion gynecomastia with galactorrhoea.
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Question 14
Incorrect
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In liver failure there is likely to be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised blood urea
Explanation:Liver failure results in decreased production of all proteins. This causes a decreased albumin: globulin ratio and coagulation dysfunction due to decreased production of coagulation factors. Decreased storage capacity and enzyme reduction affects glucose level regulation and also decreased bile production decreases fat absorption. Liver failure causes blood urea levels to rise due to decreased metabolism and conversion to more soluble forms.
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 8 year old boy who had not wet his bed for the past 3 and half years, presented with bed wetting for 2 weeks. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:As this boy was dry for a considerable period, there is a high chance of a secondary cause for the bed wetting, such as bladder infections, constipation, diabetes, psychological stress and hormonal problems etc. These have to be excluded.
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 62 year old female complains of pain and stiffness in her shoulders. She also finds it difficult to get out of her chair. From the list of symptoms below, choose the one most likely to support the diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low grade fever
Explanation:Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory disease which usually causes stiffness and pain in the shoulder – this can also occur in the pelvic girdle muscles. Its onset can either be subacute or acute and is associated with a systemic inflammatory response. This, therefore, causes symptoms such as fever, weight loss, anorexia, and malaise. Polymyalgia rheumatica is unpredictable in its course and it is known that 30 per cent of patients also present with giant cell arteritis. The cause of this disease is unknown but studies have shown it have infectious origins. Diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica can be difficult and other inflammatory diseases have to be excluded first. Patients with this disease are usually over 60 years of age (it is very rarely seen in those under 50). Muscle weakness does not present, although this can be hard to assess when the patient is in pain. Low-grade fever and weight loss are typical of this disease due to chronic inflammation. As such, weight gain is very rare and peripheral joints are usually not affected (they can be affected but it is very rare). Also, muscle tenderness is not a specific symptom of the disease – it is therefore not a classical finding of polymyalgia rheumatica. Although patients usually complain of stiffness and pain, the muscles are usually not significantly tender – this is usually more associated with fibromyalgia or myositis. When investigated, a normochromic/normocytic anaemia; a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate often over 50 mm/hr., and raised C reactive protein are usually revealed. Symptoms of giant cell arteritis should also be sought, such as headaches, visual disturbances, TIAs (transient ischemic attacks), jaw claudication, and thickened temporal arteries. The patient response to a moderate dose of steroids is useful when confirming a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica. The maximum dose of prednisolone should not exceed 20mg once a day. After treatment, patients should show a 70 per cent improvement in symptoms within a month (between 3-4 weeks). Inflammatory markers should also fall back to their normal levels. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are of little use and are associated with morbidity. There is also little evidence for the use of steroidal-sparing agents.
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An 18 year-old female is brought in by her worried parents. She has a BMI of 12 but is otherwise happy with her weight. What is the next best step to help this girl?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medical admission
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa, commonly referred to as anorexia, is an eating disorder characterized by low body weight, a distortion of the perception of body image, and an obsessive fear of gaining weight. A BMI below 17.5 in adults is one of the common physical characteristics used to diagnose anorexia. There are also different tiers of anorexia based on BMI ranging from mild (<17.5), moderate (16-16.99), and severe (15-15.99), to extreme (<15). A BMI below 13.5 can lead to organ failure, while a BMI below 12 can be life threatening. At this critical low BMI medical admission is indicated to improve her deficiency states and for proper nutrition.
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Question 18
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A 57-year-old female presented to the cardiology centre with a history of chest tightness for a few hours, accompanied by pain radiating to the left side of the shoulder and neck. ECG was normal. What is the next best investigation for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac enzymes
Explanation:This patient’s symptoms of angina radiating to the neck and shoulders gives a strong suspicion of MI. Cardiac enzymes such as troponins are highly specific and sensitive for a heart attack.
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Question 19
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A 42 year old female presents with a funny bone sensation in her right elbow that is accompanied by numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th digits. The symptoms are aggravated when the elbow is bent for a prolonged period. Which of the following explains the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital Tunnel Syndrome is a condition that involves pressure or stretching of the ulnar nerve (also known as the “funny bone” nerve), which can cause numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th digit, pain in the forearm, and/or weakness in the hand. Epicondylitis of the elbow is a condition associated with repetitive forearm and elbow activities. Both lateral epicondylitis (commonly known as tennis elbow) and medial epicondylitis (commonly known as golfer’s elbow) are characterized by elbow pain during or following elbow flexion and extension. Radial tunnel syndrome is a set of symptoms that include fatigue or a dull, aching pain at the top of the forearm with use. Although less common, symptoms can also occur at the back of the hand or wrist.
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe jaundice within the first 24 hours of delivery. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rh incompatibility
Explanation:Jaundice is considered pathologic if it presents within the first 24 hours after birth. Although up to 60 percent of term new-borns have clinical jaundice in the first week of life, few have significant underlying disease.1,2 However, hyperbilirubinemia in the new-born period can be associated with severe illnesses such as haemolytic disease, metabolic and endocrine disorders, anatomic abnormalities of the liver, and infections. The risk factors here is the mothers blood ground which suggests the cause is fetal-maternal blood group incompatibility.
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Question 21
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A 75 year old woman presented with difficulty in climbing the stairs and difficulty in holding her head up, for the past 6 months. She didn't have any significant joint pain. Her creatinine phosphokinase level was very high and ESR was normal. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polymyositis
Explanation:Polymyositis is an idiopathic inflammatory myopathy characterized by symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness, elevated skeletal muscle enzyme levels and characteristic electromyography (EMG) and muscle biopsy findings. Weak neck extensors cause difficulty holding the head up. Pain is not a significant symptom, which differentiates it from arthritic conditions. ESR is elevated in only 50% of patients with polymyositis.
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 23 year old male has complained of pain when swallowing and dysphagia. He has a sore mouth and soreness in the corners of his mouth. From the list of options, what is the single most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Candida infection
Explanation:The symptoms could indicate CMV or Candida infections, but CMV is much less common.
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man suffers from depression, poor concentration and inability to sleep. A few months earlier, he had a few episodes of debauchery and tantrums. Which drug is most likely to benefit him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Carbamazepine would be the drug of choice in this case because it is an anti-convulsant. It helps to restore the normal levels of nerve activity in the brain.
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old girl's ECG revealed a normal PR interval and QRS while the QT is prolonged. History reveals she has been having frequent fainting attacks since childhood. What is the cause of these syncopal attacks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Torsade de pointes
Explanation:Patients with a long QT wave syndrome are prone to recurrent syncope if they have Torsade’s de pointes since it degenerates into fibrillation of the ventricles.
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old post-menopausal woman with an ESR of 72mm/hr, complains of pain on chewing and unilateral headache. Which additional treatment would you choose if she is already on oral steroids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisphosphonates
Explanation:The symptoms in concordance with the elevated ESR and the age of the patient should make you think of temporal arteritis. Temporal arteritis is treated with steroids which predispose the patient to develop osteopenia and finally osteoporosis. Its very important to take into account the sex and the age of the patient because osteoporosis is common in post-menopausal women. Bisphosphonates are protective towards osteoporosis and they should be administered next.
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What are the chances of offspring developing cystic fibrosis if one of the parents, more specifically the mother, is suffering from the disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depends on genetic makeup of partner
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that a person might be a carrier of the disease without developing it. If the unaffected partner is a carrier, then there is a 50% chance of inheritance and another 50% chance of having a child who is a carrier. However, if the partner is not a carrier, the offspring will not develop the disease but the possibility of being a carrier raises up to 100%.
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an exacerbation of wrist pain. Which of the following markers would be the most suitable for monitoring disease activity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA titres
Explanation:A high level of anti-dsDNA in the blood is strongly associated with lupus and is often significantly increased during or just prior to a flare-up. When the anti-dsDNA is positive and the person tested has other clinical signs and symptoms associated with lupus, it means that the person tested likely has lupus. This is especially true if an anti-Sm test is also positive.
In the evaluation of someone with lupus nephritis, a high level (titre) of anti-dsDNA is generally associated with ongoing inflammation and damage to the kidneys.
A very low level of anti-dsDNA is considered negative but does not exclude a diagnosis of lupus. Only about 65-85% of those with lupus will have anti-dsDNA.
Low to moderate levels of the autoantibody may be seen with other autoimmune disorders, such as Sjögren syndrome and mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Neurofibromatosis is characterised by which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scoliosis
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis (aka Von Recklinghausen’s disease) includes: neurofibrosarcomas, pheochromocytoma, optic nerve tumours, scoliosis and acoustic neuromas.
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30 year old male presented with palpitations for 1 week. The palpitations were intermittent and lasted a few hours per day. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24 hr ECG
Explanation:Palpitations can be due to many reasons. As palpitations are not constant in this case, a 24 hr ECG is important to isolate these episodes and find any cardiac cause. Drugs depend on the cause for the palpitations.
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 55 year old male, known hypertensive on anti-hypertensive medications, presented with complaints of dizziness and lethargy, especially when rising from the chair. The most appropriate test would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ambulatory blood pressure
Explanation:Ambulatory blood pressure recording is used to monitor BP for 24 hours whilst continuing the daily routine activities.
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