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  • Question 1 - Which of the following conditions is associated with blunt trauma in a pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is associated with blunt trauma in a pregnant woman?

      Your Answer: Premature rupture of membranes

      Correct Answer: Abruptio placentae

      Explanation:

      Abruptio placentae, defined as a premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, is commonly seen with blunt abdominal trauma and can cause fetal distress. It occurs in 1% to 3% of pregnant women with minor trauma and in 40% to 50% with major life-threatening trauma.8,9 Abruption may present with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain and tenderness, uterine contractions, or fetal distress; however, it may be occult with no vaginal bleeding in up to 20% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following statements regarding management of obstetric anal sphincter injuries (OASIS)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding management of obstetric anal sphincter injuries (OASIS) is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be given routinely following OASIS

      Explanation:

      After perineal repair, lactulose and a bulking agent should ideally be given for 5-10 days as well as broad spectrum antibiotics should be given that will cover all possible anaerobic bacteria. At 6-12 months a full evaluation should be done regarding the progress of healing. 60 to 80% of women are asymptomatic 12 months post delivery and external anal sphincter repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 3 - The joint between the two pubic bones is called the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The joint between the two pubic bones is called the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pubis symphysis

      Explanation:

      The pubic symphysis or symphysis pubis is the midline cartilaginous joint (secondary cartilaginous) uniting the superior rami of the left and right pubic bones. It is located anterior to the urinary bladder and superior to it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 4 - A 24 year old woman presents to the clinic with foul smelling vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old woman presents to the clinic with foul smelling vaginal discharge. Which facultative anaerobic bacteria is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is a common infection of the vagina caused by the overgrowth of atypical bacteria, most commonly Gardnerella vaginalis, a gram indeterminate bacteria, which is also a facultative anaerobe. Patients often complain of foul-smelling fishy discharge and dysuria. In diagnosing BV, a swab is taken for microscopy, often revealing clue cells. Of the other organisms listed in the options, Neisseria is an obligate anaerobe, while Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular aerobe. Treponema Pallidum is an aerophilic bacteria and Mycoplasma hominis is a pleomorphic parasitic bacterium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 5 - The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cord entrapment

      Explanation:

      Cord entanglement, a condition unique to MoMo pregnancies, occurs in 42 to 80% of the cases and it has been traditionally related to high perinatal mortality. Umbilical cord entanglement is present in all monoamniotic twins when it is systematically evaluated by ultrasound and colour Doppler. Perinatal mortality in monoamniotic twins is mainly a consequence of conjoined twins, twin reversed arterial perfusion (TRAP), discordant anomaly and spontaneous miscarriage before 20 weeks’ gestation. Expectantly managed monoamniotic twins after 20 weeks have a very good prognosis despite the finding of cord entanglement. The practice of elective very preterm delivery or other interventions to prevent cord accidents in monoamniotic twins should be re-evaluated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - Serum prolactin levels are greatest in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Serum prolactin levels are greatest in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suckling

      Explanation:

      Serum prolactin levels are increased during suckling. Some other conditions in which serum prolactin is increased consist of: prolactin secreting brain tumours, anti psychotic drugs and hypothyroidism. It can also be increased in pregnancy, nipple stimulation and stress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 7 - Which of the following would normally be expected to increase during pregnancy: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would normally be expected to increase during pregnancy:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroxin-binding globulin

      Explanation:

      Thyroid function in pregnancy is altered in two ways; the circulating levels of the thyroid binding proteins are increased, resulting in an increase in the total circulating levels of thyroid hormones (but a slight fall in the free component).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 8 - A 31-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency department with complaints of fishy, thin, white homogeneous vaginal discharge accompanied with an offensive odour. The presence of clue cells was noted during a microscopic test on the discharge.
      All of the following statements are considered false regarding her condition, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Relapse rate > 50 percent within 3 months

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) affects women of reproductive age and can either be symptomatic or asymptomatic. Bacterial vaginosis is a condition caused by an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. Most commonly, this presents clinically with increased vaginal discharge that has a fish-like odour. The discharge itself is typically thin and either grey or white.

      Although bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection, women have an increased risk of acquiring other sexually transmitted infections (STI), and pregnant women have an increased risk of early delivery.

      Though effective treatment options do exist, metronidazole or clindamycin, these methods have proven not to be effective long term.

      BV recurrence rates are high, approximately 80% three months after effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - A 24 week pregnant patient complains of itching over the past 6 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 week pregnant patient complains of itching over the past 6 weeks particularly to the hands and feet which is worse at night. She has taken cetirizine but this hasn't settled her symptoms. Examination is unremarkable with no rash. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The history is typical of Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis and prurigo gravidarum. It is characterised by itching without rash and abnormal LFTs beyond normal pregnancy ranges. Itching affects around 23% of pregnancies and can occur before biochemical changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 10 - Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of: ...

    Incorrect

    • Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Luteinizing hormone

      Explanation:

      Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is the hormone responsible for the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks gestation.
      One week ago, she had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done which showed grade 3 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN3).
      What is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy.

      Explanation:

      The best next step in her management is a colposcopy.

      Patients diagnosed with high-grade lesions (CIN 2 or 3) or adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS) during pregnancy should undergo surveillance via colposcopy and age-based testing (cytology/HPV) every 12-24 weeks.

      Cone biopsy and long loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ biopsy) are not recommended if the lesion extends up the canal and out of the vision of the colposcope.
      It is not necessary to terminate the pregnancy.

      Because repeat colposcopic examination during pregnancy offers all of the information needed, the repeat Pap smear is best done after the pregnancy has ended.

      Unless colposcopy indicates aggressive cancer at an earlier time, the ultimate therapy required is usually not decided until the postpartum visit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 26 year old patient known to have Group B Streptococcus (GBS) on...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient known to have Group B Streptococcus (GBS) on vaginal swab is going into labour. A normal vaginal delivery is planned. She is penicillin allergic with a history of anaphylaxis. What intrapartum antibiotic treatment is advised?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV Vancomycin 1g 12 hourly

      Explanation:

      In a person who is infected by streptococcus (Group B) should be started on benzylpenicillin as soon as possible. In case of allergy vancomycin should be started at 1g every 12 hours. Tetracyclines should be avoided in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 13 - A 46-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of irregular heavy...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of irregular heavy menstruation. She had normal menstrual pattern 6 months back. Physical examination revealed no abnormality with a negative cervical smear. Laboratory investigation reveals a haemoglobin of 105g/L (Normal 115-165g/L). The most common cause of such menorrhagia is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anovulatory cycles.

      Explanation:

      Menorrhagia in a 45-year-old woman is most likely caused by an ovulation issue, most likely anovulatory cycles, particularly if the periods have grown irregular.

      Endometrial carcinoma is a rare cause of menorrhagia that usually occurs after menopause.

      Menorrhagia can be caused by fibroids, endometrial polyps, and adenomyosis, although the cycles are normally regular, and a dramatic change from normal cycles six months prior would be exceptional.
      If fibroids or adenomyosis are the source of the menorrhagia, the uterus is usually enlarged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - The following measures are usually performed during a routine antenatal visit for a...

    Incorrect

    • The following measures are usually performed during a routine antenatal visit for a healthy uncomplicated pregnancy at 36 weeks gestation, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mid-steam urine specimen (MSU) for culture & sensitivity

      Explanation:

      At the 36‑week appointment, all pregnant women should be seen again. At this appointment: measure blood pressure and test urine for proteinuria; measure and plot symphysis–fundal height; check position of baby; for women whose babies are in the breech presentation, offer external cephalic version (ECV)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 15 - The inferior 1/3 of the rectum is principally supplied by which artery? ...

    Incorrect

    • The inferior 1/3 of the rectum is principally supplied by which artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle rectal artery

      Explanation:

      Remember the inferior rectal artery supplies the anus. The middle rectal artery is the principle supply to the lower 1/3 rectum. The rectal arteries do form an anastomosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 16 - The main function of the cilia of the fallopian tube is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The main function of the cilia of the fallopian tube is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transport the ovum towards the uterus

      Explanation:

      Cilia are small hair line projections in the fallopian tube. Their main function is to transport the egg through he fallopian tube towards the uterus. It is present in many other tubular organs and its function varies accordingly to the organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 17 - You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She is 34 weeks gestation and her blood pressure is 149/98. Automated reagent strip testing shows protein 1+. What is the appropriate course of action regarding the urine result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send urine for protein:creatinine ratio

      Explanation:

      For a diagnosis of Preeclampsia to be established, hypertension of at least 140/90 mmHg recorded on at least two separate occasions and at least 4 hours apart and in the presence of at least 300 mg protein in a 24 hour collection of urine, arising de novo after the 20th week of pregnancy in a previously normotensive woman and resolving completely by the sixth postpartum week should be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 18 - Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is responsible for the let down mechanism that occurs during breast feeding in which the myothelial cells contract and push the milk into the ductules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 19 - A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of gestation comes to the hospital due to intense, constant lower abdominal pain.The patient got conceived via in-vitro fertilization and her prenatal course has been uncomplicated.Over the past 10 years, the patient has had 3 spontaneous abortions, all attributed to uterine leiomyoma.Two years ago, she had an abdominal myomectomy during which the uterine cavity was entered.
      On examination her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline rate in the 140s with moderate variability and persistent variable decelerations to the 90s. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and last for 45 seconds, her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced.
      Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy and cesarean delivery

      Explanation:

      Uterine surgical history & scope of vaginal birth are as follows:
      – In case of low transverse cesarean delivery with horizontal incision: trial of labor is not contraindicated.
      – Classical cesarean delivery with vertical incision: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy with uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy without uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is not contraindicated.

      In laboring patients with prior uterine surgical histories like a prior classical (vertical) cesarean delivery or a prior myomectomy that was extensive or has entered the uterine cavity like during removal of intramural or submucosal fibroids are at a higher risk for uterine rupture. Given this patient’s history of previous myomectomy, her intense and constant abdominal pain with an abnormal fetal heart rate tracing, like persistent variable decelerations, are pointing to uterine rupture. vaginal bleeding, abdominally palpable fetal parts, loss of fetal station and any change in contraction pattern are the other possible manifestations of uterine rupture. Based on the extent and exact location of the rupture and the presence or absence of regional anesthesia, presentation of a uterine rupture will change.

      Vaginal delivery is safe after a low transverse (horizontal uterine incision) cesarean delivery. Patients with a history of either classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy are delivered via cesarean delivery at 36-37 weeks gestation, so urgent laparotomy and cesarean delivery are required if these patients present in labor. Further management is determined by other intraoperative findings like, whether uterine rupture has occurred, if occured then delivery is done through the rupture site, followed by a uterine repair; If the uterus is unruptured, a hysterotomy (ie, cesarean delivery) is performed. In patients with prior classical cesarean delivery or extensive myomectomy, an expectant management for a vaginal delivery is contraindicated.

      Amnioinfusion is the technique of placing an intrauterine pressure catheter to decrease umbilical cord compression by doing an intrauterine infusion and this thereby helps to resolve variable decelerations. In patients with a history of uterine surgery Amnioinfusion is contraindicated.

      In cases with abnormal fetal heart rate tracings, if the patient is completely (10cm) dilated, an operative vaginal delivery can be performed to expedite a vaginal delivery.

      Terbutaline is a tocolytic, which is administered to relax the uterus in conditions with contractile abnormalities, such as tachysystole which presents with >5 contractions in 10 minutes or tetanic contractions were contractions last for >2 minutes, which results in fetal heart rate abnormalities. In the given case, the patient’s contractions are normal, which occurs in every 2-3 minutes and lasts for 45 seconds, causing pain and cervical dilation.

      After a classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy, labor and vaginal delivery are contraindicated due to its significant risk of uterine rupture. Laparotomy and cesarean delivery are preferred in laboring a patients at high risk of uterine rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 20 - A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying...

    Incorrect

    • A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying for 2.5 years. The semen analysis shows azoospermia. You perform a full examination of the male partner which reveals Height 192cm, BMI 20.5, small testes and scant facial hair. You decide to organise karyotyping. What is the result likely to show?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome is associated with testicular atrophy, eunuchoid body shape, tall, long extremities, female hair distribution and gynaecomastia. It is a common cause of hypogonadism seen during fertility workup.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 21 - The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HCG

      Explanation:

      The following hormones are excreted from the anterior pituitary gland: TSH, GN, ACTH, LH, FSH, MSH, PRL.
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG, or human chorionic gonadotrophin) is a placental hormone secreted by syncitiotrophoblasts during the second week of gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 22 - In which situation would you prescribe COCs? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which situation would you prescribe COCs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 20 year old woman with blood pressure 135/80mmHg

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications to OCs include breast cancer, history of deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, active liver disease, use of rifampicin, familial hyperlipidaemia, previous arterial thrombosis, and pregnancy, while relative contraindications include smoking, age over 35, hypertension, breastfeeding, and irregular spontaneous menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following uterotonic drugs is most strongly associated with a transient...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following uterotonic drugs is most strongly associated with a transient pyrexia occurring within 45 minutes of administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dinoprostone

      Explanation:

      Dinoprostone is associated with a transient pyrexia. This typically normalises within 4 hours of stopping treatment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 24 - A 22-year-old woman walks into your clinic. She had no menstrual cycles. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman walks into your clinic. She had no menstrual cycles. Her genital development appears to be within the usual range. The uterus and fallopian tubes are normal on a pelvic ultrasound. Ovaries have no follicles and just a little quantity of connective tissue.
      What do you think the most likely reason for her amenorrhea is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome is the clinical diagnosis for this patient. Turner syndrome affects women who are lacking all of one X chromosome (45, characterized by X gonadal dysgenesis).
      Turner Syndrome is characterized by small stature and non-functioning ovaries, resulting in infertility and lack of sexual development. Other sexual and reproductive organs (uterus and vagina) are normal despite the inadequate or missing ovarian activity.

      Webbing of the neck, puffy hands and feet, coarctation of the aorta, and cardiac anomalies are all physical symptoms of Turner Syndrome. Streak gonads are also a feature of Turner syndrome.

      The ovaries are replaced with fibrous tissue and do not produce much oestrogen, resulting in amenorrhea.

      Until puberty, when oestrogen-induced maturation fails, the external female genitalia, uterus, and fallopian tubes develop normally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - The source of progesterone that maintains the pregnancy during early 1st trimester: ...

    Incorrect

    • The source of progesterone that maintains the pregnancy during early 1st trimester:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corpus luteum

      Explanation:

      In early pregnancy Progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum.. This organ is fundamental for pregnancy maintenance until the placenta (syncytiotrophoblast) takes over its function at the 7-9th week of gestation, just after the expression of major histocompatibility complex antigens is suppressed in extra-embryonic fetal tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Standard heparin, an effective treatment for antepartum thromboembolic disease, is thought to be safe for the foetus since it does not cross the placenta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Explanation:

      The Inguinal Canal
      – Anterior wall: formed by the external oblique aponeurosis throughout the length of the canal; its lateral part is reinforced by muscle fibres of the internal oblique.
      – Posterior wall: formed by the transversalis fascia; its medial part is reinforced by pubic attachments of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis aponeuroses that frequently merge to variable extents into a common tendon—the inguinal falx (conjoint tendon)—and the reflected inguinal ligament.
      – Roof: formed laterally by the transversalis fascia, centrally by musculo-aponeurotic arches of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis, and medially by the medial crus of the external oblique aponeurosis.
      – Floor: formed laterally by the iliopubic tract, centrally by gutter formed by the infolded inguinal ligament, and medially by the lacunar ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following ultrasound findings form part of the Rotterdam criteria for...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following ultrasound findings form part of the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosis of PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome) ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased ovarian volume >10cm3

      Explanation:

      The Rotterdam criteria for the diagnosis of PCOS is based on a score of two out of the three criteria:
      1) Oligo or anovulation
      2) Hyperandrogenism – clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone)
      3) on ultrasound – contain 12 or more follicles measuring 2 to 9 mm in diameter and/or have an increased volume of 10 cm3 or greater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 29 - A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She admits she stopped her COCP treatment 18 months ago. Her blood exams reveal the following: FSH=8, LH=7, Prolactin=400, Oestradiol=500. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Functional Hypothalamic Amenorrhea (FHA) is a form of chronic anovulation, due to non-identifiable organic causes and often associated with stress, weight loss, excessive exercise, or a combination thereof. Investigations should include assessment of systemic and endocrinologic aetiologies, as FHA is a diagnosis of exclusion. A multidisciplinary treatment approach is necessary, including medical, dietary, and mental health support. Medical complications include, among others, bone density loss and infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual periods. Her general physical examination, pelvic examination, and HPV test are normal and she has a negative pregnancy test. A CBC and chemistry profile are also normal. The next step in her workup should be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclic administration of progesterone for 3 months

      Explanation:

      Abnormal uterine bleeding is a relatively common disorder which may be due to functional disorders of the hypothalamus, pituitary, or ovary, as well as uterine lesions. However, the patient who is younger than 30 years of age will rarely be found to have a structural uterine defect. Once pregnancy, hematologic disease, and renal impairment are excluded, administration of intramuscular or oral progesterone will usually produce definitive flow and control the bleeding. No further evaluation should be necessary unless the bleeding recurs.

      Endometrial aspiration, dilatation and curettage, and other diagnostic procedures are appropriate for recurrent problem or for older women. Oestrogen would only increase the problem, which is usually due to anovulation with prolonged oestrogen secretion, producing a hypertrophic endometrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

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