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  • Question 1 - The transvaginal ultrasound of a 37 year old woman reveals a left ovarian...

    Correct

    • The transvaginal ultrasound of a 37 year old woman reveals a left ovarian mass. The mass is a unilocular cyst with diffuse homogenous ground glass echoes as a result of hemorrhagic debris. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometrioma

      Explanation:

      An endometrioma, also known as a chocolate cyst is a benign ovarian cyst that occurs as a result of the trapping of endometriosis tissue inside the ovary. The findings on transvaginal ultrasound are often a unilocular cyst, with ground glass echogenicity due to haemorrhage. Other benign masses that can be evaluated using transvaginal ultrasound are functional cysts, serous and mucinous cystadenomas and mature teratomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      3
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  • Question 2 - Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Contraindications to tocolysis in preterm labor are as follows:
      – Gestational age > 34 weeks or <24 weeks
      – Labor is too advanced with an advanced cervical dilation of >4 cm
      – Abnormal CTG suggesting a non-reassuring fetal status
      – Lethal fetal anomalies
      – Intrauterine fetal demise
      – Suspected fetal compromise
      – Significant antepartum hemorrhage, such as placental abruption/ active vaginal bleeding with hemodynamic instability
      – Any suspected intrauterine infections like chorioamnionitis
      – Maternal hypotension
      – Pregnancy-induced hypertension/ eclampsia/ pre-eclampsia
      – Placenta previa
      – Placental insufficiency
      – Intrauterine growth retardation
      – Maternal allergy to specific tocolytic agents or cases where tocolytics are contraindicated due to specific comorbidities like in case of cardiac disease, were beta agonists cannot be administered.

      As there are nonpulmonary morbidities associated with preterm birth, fetal pulmonary maturity, known or suspected, is not an absolute contraindication for tocolysis. These fetuses could potentially benefit from prolongation of pregnancy and from the nonpulmonary benefits of glucocorticoid therapy.

      When cervical dilation is greater than 3 cm inhibition of preterm labor is less likely to be successful. In such cases Tocolysis can be considered when the goal is to administer antenatal corticosteroids or to safely transport the mother to a tertiary care center.

      Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication to suppression of labor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in her underpants one day prior to consultation. Her mother reports that the girl started cycling lessons one week ago. How will you proceed with the investigation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Examination under Anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      A local exam might not help in locating the cause of the bleeding because it might be underneath the superficial structures. A thorough examination should be done under GA to accurately locate the source of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after 18 months of regular sexual activity. She inquires about the possible outcomes for the treatment of various aetiologies during the discussion on aetiology, further work-up, and treatment.
      Which of the following conditions has the best chance of being treated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      Treatment for infertility caused by ovulation issues has had the best results by far. PCOS, also known as Stein-Leventhal syndrome, is marked by hyperandrogenism, tiny cysts in the ovaries, acne, and hirsutism, as well as ovulation issues that result in anovulatory cycles due to hormonal imbalance.

      70% of females with anovulatory periods begin ovulation under medical supervision, and 50% of those conceive within 6 to 9 months.

      Infertility can be caused by low or no sperm counts, poor sperm motility, or dysmorphic sperms. Treatment options include fertility medicines that promote sperm production, artificial insemination with donor sperm, and intracytoplasmic injection of sperm, but success rates are poor (less than 25 percent ). Following pelvic inflammatory disease, previous surgery, or tuberculosis, the Fallopian tubes become obstructed or damaged, preventing sperm from reaching the ovum. Tubal blockages and adhesions are treated by laparoscopic surgery. The success rate of conception varies greatly depending on the degree of the blockage, ranging from 10% to 70%.

      Turner syndrome is linked to infertility and ovarian dysgenesis. Treatment for gonadal dysgenesis and reversal of infertility is not an option. Because of the high likelihood of miscarriages, even after egg donation, the success rate is relatively low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15-20

      Explanation:

      The basic components of the mammary gland are the alveoli. These are lined with milk-secreting cuboidal cells surrounded by myoepithelial cells. The alveoli join to form groups known as lobules. The lobules form lobes. Each lobe has a lactiferous duct that drains into openings in the nipple. Each breast typically contains 15-20 lobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 6 - A 24 year old patient decides to take a Chlamydia screening test whilst...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old patient decides to take a Chlamydia screening test whilst in the GP surgery. He is asymptomatic. The results are positive for chlamydia infection. His partner attends for testing and wants to know the risk of contracting Chlamydia. What is the risk of chlamydia infection following intercourse with an asymptomatic chlamydia positive partner?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 65%

      Explanation:

      The chances of transmitting chlamydia from an asymptomatic partner through sexual intercourse is 65%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 7 - What is the incubation period for Varicella Zoster infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incubation period for Varicella Zoster infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10-21 days

      Explanation:

      The incubation period of varicella is 10-21 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 8 - A 43-year-old woman complains of a greenish foul smelling discharge from her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman complains of a greenish foul smelling discharge from her left nipple. She has experienced the same case before. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duct ectasia

      Explanation:

      Mammary duct ectasia occurs when the lactiferous duct becomes blocked or clogged. This is the most common cause of greenish discharge. Mammary duct ectasia can mimic breast cancer. It is a disorder of peri- or post-menopausal age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital due to contractions and spontaneous rupture of membranes.Patient underwent a cesarean delivery with her first child due to breech presentation, but this pregnancy has been uncomplicated.She has no chronic medical conditions and is taking only a prenatal vitamin.
      Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 20 kg/m2 and she has gained 15.9 kg (35 lb) during pregnancy. On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/80 mm Hg.
      The patient is admitted and epidural anesthesia is administered with an intrauterine pressure catheter in place.She quickly dilates to 10 cm with the fetal vertex at 0 station, occiput transverse. Four hours later, the pelvic examination is unchanged but there is molding and caput on the fetal head. Fetal monitoring is category I. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and the patient pushes with each contraction. The contraction strength is an average of 210 MVU every 10 minutes.
      Which among the following is most likely the etiology for this patient’s clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal malposition

      Explanation:

      Condition where there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours in nulliparous and ≥2 hours if multiparous women is defined as Second stage arrest of labor. Common risk factors for this presentation are maternal obesity, excessive weight gain during pregnancy and diabetes mellitus. Cephalopelvic disproportion, malposition, inadequate contractions and maternal exhaustion are the common etiologies of Second stage arrest of labor. Management includes Operative vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery as indicated in the case.

      The second stage of labor begins with the dilatation of cervix to 10 cm and will end with fetal delivery. Parity and use of neuraxial anesthesia are the two factors which will affect the duration of second stage of labor and fetal station, which measures the descent of the fetal head through the pelvis determines its progression.

      When there is no fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours or ≥2 hours in in nulliparous and multiparous patients respectively the condition is called an arrested second stage of labor. As her first delivery was a cesarean session due to breech presentation, this patient in the case is considered as nulliparous.

      Most common cause of a protracted or arrested second stage is fetal malposition, which is the relation between the fetal presenting part to the maternal pelvis. Occiput anterior is the optimal fetal position as it facilitates the cardinal movements of labor, any deviations from this position like in occiput transverse position, can lead to cephalopelvic disproportion resulting in second stage arrest.
      Inadequate contractions, that is less than 200 MVU averaged over 10 minutes, can lead to labor arrest but contractions are adequate in case of the patient mentioned.
      Second stage arrest can be due to maternal obesity and excessive weight gain during pregnancy but this patient had a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 20 kg/m2 and an appropriate weight gain of 15.9 kg 35 lb. So this also cannot be the reason.

      Maternal expulsive efforts will change the fetal skull shape. This process called as molding helps to facilitate delivery by changing the fetal head into the shape of the pelvis. Whereas prolonged pressure on head can result in scalp edema which is called as caput, presence of both molding and caput suggest cephalopelvic disproportion, but is not suggestive of poor maternal effort.

      Patients with a prior history of uterine myomectomy or cesarean delivery are at higher risk for uterine rupture.  In cases of uterine rupture, the patient will present with fetal heart rate abnormalities, sudden loss of fetal station (eg, going from +1 to −3 station) along with fetal retreat upward and into the abdominal cavity through the uterine scar due to decreased intrauterine pressure. In the given case patient’s fetal heart rate tracing is category 1 and fetal station has remained 0 which are non suggestive of uterine rupture.

      When there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing ≥3 hours in nulliparous patients or ≥2 hours in multiparous patients is considered as second stage arrest of labor. The most common cause of second stage arrest is cephalopelvic disproportion, were the fetus presents in a nonocciput anterior position called as fetal malposition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has a BMI of 24. Her FSH level is 55 U/L (2-8 U/L in luteal phase; >25 U/L in menopause), LH is 54 U/L, and oestradiol is low, according to laboratory tests. The level of serum prolactin is likewise normal. Her urine pregnancy test came out negative.
      Each ovary had 3-4 cysts on ultrasonography. She hopes to get pregnant in the near future.
      Which of the following would be the best treatment option for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

      Explanation:

      Ovarian insufficiency is a failure of the ovary to function adequately in a woman younger than 40 years, in its role either as an endocrine organ or as a reproductive organ. In women aged 40 years or older, the expected physiologic decline of ovarian function that takes place with aging is termed perimenopause or the menopausal transition.
      Medical treatment of patients with primary ovarian insufficiency should address the following aspects:

      Ovarian hormone replacement
      Restoration of fertility
      Psychological well-being of the patient

      It is not appropriate to give this patient contraceptive pills since she desires pregnancy.

      There is no evidence that Danazol or Metformin would improve ovarian follicle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A Bicornuate uterus is due to which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • A Bicornuate uterus is due to which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts

      Explanation:

      A Bicornuate uterus (heart shaped) is the result of abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts during embryogenesis. Mullerian agenesis typically results in failure to form a uterus. Mullerian duct fusion abnormalities can cause a bicornuate malformation. PKD-1 gene abnormalities are associated with PCOS. Crossed fused ectopia result in Horseshoe kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation, is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to a seizure. Patient was sitting outside when she suddenly had a 2-minute seizure with loss of urinary continence and is still confused when she arrived at the emergency department.Her mother reports that the patient had severe anxiety and had been acting out for the past several days.Her only surgery was a splenectomy after a motor vehicle collision last year.
      On physical examination patient's temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F), blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg, and pulse is 120/min.Patient seems agitated and diaphoretic with bilaterally dilated pupils.
      On systemic examination:
      Cranial nerves are intact, neck is supple and nontender.
      Cardiopulmonary examination is normal.
      The abdomen is gravid without any rebound or guarding and the uterus is nontender.
      There is 2+ pitting pedal edema bilaterally. Sensations and strength are normal in the bilateral upper and lower extremities.
      Laboratory results are as follows:
      a) Complete blood count shows
      - Hematocrit: 33%,
      - Platelets: 140,000/mm3,
      - Leukocytes: 13,000/mm3.
      b) Serum chemistry
      - Sodium: 124 mmol/L,
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L,
      - Chloride: 96 mmol/L,
      - Bicarbonate: 21 mmol/L,
      - Blood urea nitrogen: 6.43 umol/L,
      - Creatinine: 70.7 umol/L,
      - Glucose: 4.4 mmol/L.
      Urinalysis
      - Protein: none,
      - Ketones: present.
      CT scan of the head is normal.
      Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amphetamine intoxication

      Explanation:

      This patient at 36 weeks of gestation likely had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A new-onset seizures in pregnancy can be due to either due to eclampsia which is pregnancy-specific or due to other non-obstetric causes like meningitis, intracranial bleeding etc.

      In pregnant and postpartum women eclampsia is the most common cause for seizures which is classically associated with preeclampsia, a new-onset hypertension at ≥20 weeks gestation, with proteinuria and/or signs of end-organ damage. Although this patient has hypertension, absence of proteinuria and the additional findings like agitation, dilated pupils, hyponatremia and normal head CT scan are suggestive of another etiology. Patients with eclampsia will show white matter edema in head CT scan.

      Amphetamine intoxication, which causes overstimulation of the alpha-adrenergic receptors resulting in tachycardia, hypertension and occasional hyperthermia, might be the cause for this patient’s seizures. Some patients will also have diaphoresis and minimally reactive, dilated pupils and severe intoxication can lead to electrolyte abnormalities, including significant hyponatremia (possibly serotonin-mediated) and resultant seizure activity.
      Confirmation of Amphetamine intoxication can be done by a urine drug testing. it is essential to distinguishing between eclampsia and other causes of seizure in this case, as it will help to determine whether or not there is need for an emergency delivery.

      Altered mental status and electrolyte abnormalities can be due to heat stroke, however, patients affected this way will have an elevated temperature of >40 C /104 F associated with hemodynamic instabilities like hypotension.

      Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy which can result in seizures (ie, eclampsia), but this patient’s hematocrit level is normal without any hemolysis, also patients with HELLP syndrome typically presents with a platelet count <100,000/mm3. Seizures and altered mental status in patients with prior splenectomy can be due to pneumococcal meningitis however, such patients will present with high fever and nuchal rigidity, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case. Amphetamine intoxication can present with hypertension, agitation, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, and a generalized tonic-clonic seizure due to hyponatremia, which is most likely to be the case here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following changes would you expect in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following changes would you expect in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased TSH Increased Total T3 and T4

      Explanation:

      Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) has thyrotrophic activity owing to subunit homology with thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and maternal TSH production is suppressed during the first trimester of pregnancy, when hCG levels are highest. The TSH response to thyrotrophin-releasing hormone (TRH) is reduced during the first trimester but returns to normal after this. Thyroid binding globulin increases in the first 2 weeks of pregnancy and reaches a plateau by 20 weeks. This leads to increased production of total T3 (tri-iodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - You have just clerked in a patient on the labour ward who has...

    Incorrect

    • You have just clerked in a patient on the labour ward who has SLE. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is SLE an example of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type III

      Explanation:

      SLE is a type III hypersensitivity reaction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
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  • Question 15 - Warfarin inhibits which clotting factors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Warfarin inhibits which clotting factors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2,7,9 and 10

      Explanation:

      Warfarin inhibits Vitamin K dependent clotting factors. These include factors 2,7,9 and 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 16 - You see a patient who is 32 weeks pregnant. She complains of tingling...

    Incorrect

    • You see a patient who is 32 weeks pregnant. She complains of tingling to the right buttock and shooting pain down the leg. You suspect Piriformis syndrome. Regarding Piriformis which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insertion is onto the greater trochanter

      Explanation:

      Nerve Supply: L5 to S2 via Nerve to Piriformis
      Origin: Sacrum
      Insertion: Greater trochanter
      Action: External rotation of hip
      Blood Supply: Superior and Inferior gluteal arteries and lateral sacral arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 17 - A 52-year-old lady comes to your office with vaginal bleeding 7 hours after...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old lady comes to your office with vaginal bleeding 7 hours after sexual intercourse. She hasn't had a menstrual period in over a year. A year ago, she had a normal pap smear. She has no other symptoms and appears to be in good condition.
      Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this woman's postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Vaginal atrophy (thinning of vaginal tissue): Oestrogen helps to keep this tissue healthy. After menopause, low oestrogen levels can cause your vaginal walls to become thin, dry, and inflamed. That often leads to bleeding after sex.

      Vaginal atrophy is the most common cause of post menopausal vaginal bleeding.

      With a normal pap smear a year ago, this patient is unlikely to develop cervical cancer.

      Cervical ectropions are not common in post-menopausal women.

      Endometrial cancer and cervical polyps are possible causes of postcoital bleeding, however, they are not as common as vaginal atrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 26 year old female patient comes to a GP asking to see...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old female patient comes to a GP asking to see a gynaecologist for cervical screening test. She has no history of sexual intercourse and is not a lesbian.
      What would you do next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure her there is no need for cervical screening test at this stage

      Explanation:

      Women, who have never had sexual encounter, do not need cervical screening. However, any sort of sexual encounter (Lesbian or heterosexual) is considered a risk and the patient must be screened. Otherwise, routine cervical screening test can be performed every five years for woman 25-74 years who ever had sex with no evidence of cervical pathology. Perform a cervical screening test at the age of 25 or 2 years after first sexual intercourse-whichever is later in sexually active women. Perform cervical screening test in patients above 75 years if they request or if they never had any symptoms.

      All other options are unacceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - Where are ADH (vasopressin) and Oxytocin synthesised? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where are ADH (vasopressin) and Oxytocin synthesised?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      ADH and vasopressin are synthesized in the supraoptic and periventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus, they are eventually transported to the posterior pituitary where they are stored to be released later.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks. She complains of difficulty breathing and a distended belly. U/S scan was done showing polyhydramnios and an absent gastric bubble. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal atresia

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia of the foetus interrupts the normal circulation of the amniotic fluid. This causes polyhydramnios and subsequent distension of the uterus impacting proper expansion of the lungs. This would explain the difficulty breathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old female presents with a complaint of bloating and abdominal distension. History...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female presents with a complaint of bloating and abdominal distension. History reveals she underwent hysterectomy 3 months ago. Which investigation should be carried out in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plain X-ray abdomen

      Explanation:

      A complication of bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and hysterectomy is the formation of adhesions in the GIT that can cause intestinal obstruction. Abdominal X-ray is sufficient to visualize any obstruction in the GIT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 20-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a history of vaginal bleeding after intercourse. Pain is absent and upon examination, the following are found: abdomen soft and relaxed, uterus size is equal to dates and CTG reactive. What is the single most possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placenta previa

      Explanation:

      Placenta previa typically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding usually in the second to third trimester. Although it’s a condition that sometimes resolves by itself, bleeding may result in serious complications for the mother and the baby and so it should be managed as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following prolongs Prothrombin time? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following prolongs Prothrombin time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor V deficiency

      Explanation:

      Prothrombin time is increased in:
      – Factor V deficiency
      – Vitamin K deficiency (which affects factors 2,7 and 10)
      – Warfarin therapy
      – Severe liver failure
      Protein C is an anticoagulant and deficiency results in a hyper-coagulable state with tendency towards thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old woman, who had her last menstrual period at age 49, presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman, who had her last menstrual period at age 49, presented with an episode of per vaginal bleeding two weeks ago. It lasted four days in duration. A reduction in the severity of hot flushes as well as some breast enlargement preceded the bleeding episode.
      What is the most likely cause of the bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An episode of ovarian follicular activity.

      Explanation:

      It has been found that it is possible for premenopausal hormones to persist for a period of time after attaining menopause. If one or a few ovarian follicles remain, they could produce oestrogen in response to the very elevated levels of FSH typically seen in menopause. In doing so, the woman can then bleed as a result of this physiological response. The symptoms seen in this vignette are consistent with the rise in oestrogen levels, likely due to follicular activity.

      In the absence of any pathological findings such as endometrial carcinoma, this phenomenon would be the most likely cause of this post-menopausal bleed. Furthermore, it is unlikely for cervical cancer and endometrial cancer to present during the first few years following menopause. Atrophic vaginitis is unlikely to be associated with the other symptoms the patient presented with i.e. reduction in the intensity of hot flushes and breast enlargement. This patient was not stated to have any risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia such as obesity, late menopause and early menarche, which makes it a less likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to the medical clinic for a routine OB visit. Upon history taking, it was noted that her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and was delivered 10 years ago. At 40 weeks then, she had a normal vaginal delivery and the baby weighed 3.17kg.
      In her current pregnancy, she has no complications and no significant medical history. She is a non-smoker and has gained about 11.3 kg to date. She also declined any testing for Down syndrome even if she is of advanced maternal age.
      Upon further examination and observation, the following are her results:
      Blood pressure range has been 100 to 120/60 to 70.
      Fundal height measures only 25 cm.
      Which of the following is most likely the reason for the patient’s decreased fundal height?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal growth restriction

      Explanation:

      A fundal height measurement is typically done to determine if a baby is small for its gestational age. The measurement is generally defined as the distance in centimetres from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus. The expectation is that after week 24 of pregnancy the fundal height for a normally growing baby will match the number of weeks of pregnancy — plus or minus 2 centimetres.

      A fundal height that measures smaller or larger than expected — or increases more or less quickly than expected — could indicate:
      – Slow fetal growth (intrauterine growth restriction)
      – A multiple pregnancy
      – A significantly larger than average baby (fetal macrosomia)
      – Too little amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios)
      – Too much amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 26 - The inguinal canal is reinforced anterolaterally by which structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The inguinal canal is reinforced anterolaterally by which structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal oblique

      Explanation:

      The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal ligament is part of the floor.
      The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence. She is otherwise healthy and there is a history of a large amount of fluid intake daily as she believes it lowers her risk of genitourinary infections.
      Urinalysis and urine culture are performed which come back negative. The diagnosis of urge incontinence was suggested by physical examination and confirmed by cystometry.
      What should be the appropriate next step of management for such a patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Instruct her to eliminate excess water and caffeine from her daily fluid intake.

      Explanation:

      Urge incontinence is involuntary pee loss accompanied by a strong desire to urinate. The most common cause of urge incontinence is detrusor or bladder dyssynergia, which is characterized by an involuntary contraction of the bladder during urine distension.

      Bladder training, eliminating excess coffee and fluid intake, biofeedback, and pharmacological therapy are all options for treating urge incontinence. Treatment with anticholinergic medicines (oxybutynin chloride), -sympathomimetic agonists (metaproterenol sulphate), Valium, antidepressants (imipramine hydrochloride), and dopamine agonists (Parlodel) has proven successful if conservative approaches fail.

      The detrusor muscle will be relaxed by these pharmacologic drugs. Oestrogen therapy may improve urine control in postmenopausal women who are not on oestrogen replacement therapy. Kegel exercises can help women with stress urinary incontinence strengthen their pelvic musculature and improve bladder control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old female presents to a gynaecologist with a complaint of abnormal vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to a gynaecologist with a complaint of abnormal vaginal bleeding, usually postcoital. On pelvic examination, the cervix of was found to be of an unusually bright red colour and its texture was rougher than normal. Which of the following will you choose as the next step in the management of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical smear (2nd line)

      Explanation:

      Before considering invasive procedures, a cervical smear must first be performed. Antibiotics can only be given when inflammation has been confirmed and culture results have identified the organism causing the inflammation. Endometrial ablation, colposcopy and vaginal US are all invasive procedures that are not relevant in the immediate management of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - You see a 28 year old woman who is 22 weeks pregnant. She...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 28 year old woman who is 22 weeks pregnant. She complains of vaginal soreness and yellow frothy discharge. Microscopy confirms Trichomoniasis. What percentage of infected pregnant women present with yellow frothy discharge?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women, and is caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour. About 20-30% of women with the infection however are asymptomatic. For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy. The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis during pregnancy and breastfeeding is 400-500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 5 -7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated and screened for other STIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 30 - Regarding oogenesis & ovulation: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding oogenesis & ovulation:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The 1st meiotic division is arrested in the diplotene stage until just before ovulation

      Explanation:

      The oocyte (eggs, ova, ovum) is arrested at an early stage of the first meiosis (first meiotic) division as a primary oocyte (primordial follicle) within the ovary. Following puberty, during each menstrual cycle, pituitary gonadotrophin stimulates completion of meiosis 1 the day before ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
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