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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod?

      Your Answer: Legionella

      Correct Answer: Clostridium tetani

      Explanation:

      Gram-positive rods include Clostridia, Listeria and diphtheroids.
      Gram-negative rods include Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Yersinia, Haemohilus, Pseudomonas, Shigella, Legionella, proteus and Salmonella

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      3
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when they pass through capillaries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spectrin

      Explanation:

      Spectrin is a structural protein found in the cytoskeleton that lines the intercellular side of the membrane of cells which include RBCs. They maintain the integrity and structure of the cell. It is arranged into a hexagonal arrangement formed from tetramers of spectrin and associated with short actin filaments that form junctions allowing the RBC to distort its shape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 3 - A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After taking the medication the patient developed Steven-Johnson syndrome. Which particular antibiotic usually causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulphonamides

      Explanation:

      Stevens–Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a type of severe skin reaction. The most common cause is certain medications such as lamotrigine, carbamazepine, allopurinol, sulphonamide antibiotics, and nevirapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 4 - A patient is unable to move the mandible to the left. Which muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is unable to move the mandible to the left. Which muscle is affected in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right lateral pterygoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Patients with paralysis of the right pterygoid muscle are unable to move their mandible laterally to the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 5 - A 51 year old female presents with a sensation of grittiness in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 51 year old female presents with a sensation of grittiness in her eyes which has been present for the past few months. She also complains of symptoms of a dry mouth. On examination, she is seen with a swelling of her parotid gland. However, she has no evidence of facial nerve palsy. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sjogren's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sjogren syndrome (SS) is a long-term autoimmune disease that affects the body’s moisture-producing glands. Primary symptoms are a dry mouth and dry eyes. Other symptoms can include dry skin, vaginal dryness, a chronic cough, numbness in the arms and legs, feeling tired, muscle and joint pains, and thyroid problems. Those affected are at an increased risk (5%) of lymphoma. It primarily affects women in their peri and post-menopausal years of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
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  • Question 6 - C5a (a complement component) is a potent? ...

    Incorrect

    • C5a (a complement component) is a potent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaphylotoxin

      Explanation:

      C5a is a strong chemoattractant as well as an anaphylotoxin and is involved in the recruitment of inflammatory cells such as neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, and T lymphocytes. It is also involved in activation of phagocytic cells, release of granule-based enzymes and generation of oxidants. All of which contribute to innate immune functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 7 - Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Edinger–Westphal nucleus

      Explanation:

      The Edinger–Westphal nucleus (accessory oculomotor nucleus) is the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 8 - What is the pH of freshly formed saliva at ultimate stimulation? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the pH of freshly formed saliva at ultimate stimulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      Saliva has four major components: mucus (lubricant), α-amylase (enzyme that initiates digestion of starch), lingual lipase (enzyme that begins fat digestion), and a slightly alkaline electrolyte solution for moistening food. As the secretion rate of saliva increases, its osmolality increases. Moreover, the pH changes from slightly acidic (at rest) to basic (pH 8) at ultimate stimulation. This occurs due to increase of HCO3-. Amylase and mucus also increase in concentration after stimulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 9 - A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which...

    Incorrect

    • A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perineum

      Explanation:

      Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old man has a tissue defect measuring 3 x 1 cm, following...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man has a tissue defect measuring 3 x 1 cm, following the excision of a lipoma from the scapula. What should be the best option for managing the wound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct primary closure

      Explanation:

      This wound should be managed by primary closure as there is minimal associated tissue loss and the surgery is minor and uncontaminated.

      Primary wound closure is the fastest type of closures, and is also known as healing by primary intention. Wounds that heal by primary closure have a small, clean defect that minimizes the risk of infection and requires new blood vessels and keratinocytes to migrate only a small distance. Standard methods of suturing are usually sufficient for primary wound closure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
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  • Question 11 - A 20 year old army recruit injures her ankle during a training course....

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year old army recruit injures her ankle during a training course. On examination, she is seen with a severely swollen ankle, as well as tenderness over the medial malleolus and proximal fibula. X-rays demonstrate a medial malleolar fracture, spiral fracture of the proximal fibula and widening of the syndesmosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical fixation

      Explanation:

      Surgical fixation is recommended in this type of fracture. The Maisonneuve fracture is a spiral fracture of the proximal third of the fibula associated with a tear of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis and the interosseous membrane. There is an associated fracture of the medial malleolus or rupture of the deep deltoid ligament. Ankle views may either show a fracture of the medial malleolus or widening of the ankle joint due to disruption of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis (lateral talar shift) or deltoid ligament complex.
      Although management is variable depending on complexity of injuries, this type of fracture pattern is generally managed by operative treatment. Specific aims generally include:
      1) internal fixation of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis
      ​commonly achieved by trans-syndesmotic screws.
      2) reduction and stabilization of medial malleolus fracture and/or ligamentous injuries
      ​3) reduction and stabilization of fibular fracture- fracture involving distal 2/3 of fibula may compromise ankle mortise, and so may benefit from surgery, fracture involving proximal 1/3 fibula often managed non-operatively

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old male falls on the back of his hand. On x-ray, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male falls on the back of his hand. On x-ray, he has a fractured distal radius demonstrating volar displacement of the fracture. What eponymous term is used to describe this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smith's

      Explanation:

      The Frykman classification of distal radial fractures is based on the AP appearance and encompasses the eponymous entities of Colles fracture, Smith fracture, Barton fracture, chauffeur fracture.

      Colles fractures are very common extra-articular fractures of the distal radius that occur as the result of a fall onto an outstretched hand. They consist of a fracture of the distal radial metaphyseal region with dorsal angulation and impaction, but without the involvement of the articular surface.
      Colles fractures are the most common type of distal radial fracture and are seen in all adult age groups and demographics. They are particularly common in patients with osteoporosis, and as such, they are most frequently seen in elderly women.

      Smith fractures, also known as Goyrand fractures in the French literature 3, are fractures of the distal radius with associated volar angulation of the distal fracture fragment(s). Classically, these fractures are extra-articular transverse fractures and can be thought of like a reverse Colles fracture.
      The term is sometimes used to describe intra-articular fractures with volar displacement (reverse Barton fracture) or juxta-articular fractures

      Barton fractures are fractures of the distal radius. It is also sometimes termed the dorsal type Barton fracture to distinguish it from the volar type or reverse Barton fracture.
      Barton fractures extend through the dorsal aspect to the articular surface but not to the volar aspect. Therefore, it is similar to a Colles fracture. There is usually associated with dorsal subluxation/dislocation of the radiocarpal joint.

      Chauffeur fractures (also known as Hutchinson fractures or backfire fractures) are intra-articular fractures of the radial styloid process. The radial styloid is within the fracture fragment, although the fragment can vary markedly in size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      0
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  • Question 13 - The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of...

    Incorrect

    • The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of the spinal cord?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1

      Explanation:

      THE correct answer is A. The posterior cord derives its fibres from the spinal nerves C5,C6,C7,C8,T1. This cord is formed from the fusion of the posterior divisions of the upper, lower, and middle trunks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 14 - A 39-year-old man, after radiological evaluation and thoracentesis, was found to have chylothorax....

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man, after radiological evaluation and thoracentesis, was found to have chylothorax. What is the most probable cause of this diagnose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mediastinal malignant lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Chylothorax is a potentially lethal condition characterized by fluid (chyle) accumulation in the pleural cavity, resulting from disruption of lymphatic drainage in the thoracic duct. Chyle is a fluid rich in triglycerides and chylomicrons and can originate from the thorax, the abdomen or both. Malignant tumours, especially lymphoma, are the most common causes of nontraumatic chylothorax. Bronchogenic carcinoma and trauma are the most common causes after lymphomas. Other rare causes of chylothorax are; granulomatous diseases, tuberculosis, congenital malformations, nephrotic syndrome, hypothyroidism, cirrhosis, decompensated heart failure and idiopathic chylothorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 15 - A 34 year old woman presents with severe right sided abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old woman presents with severe right sided abdominal pain and pyrexia 2 weeks after undergoing chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukaemia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neutropenic enterocolitis

      Explanation:

      Neutropenic enterocolitis is a life threatening complication occurring most frequently after intensive chemotherapy in acute leukaemia and solid tumours. It is an acute life-threatening condition classically characterized by transmural inflammation of the cecum, often with involvement of the ascending colon and ileum, in patients who are severely myelosuppressed. Neutropenic enterocolitis has an incidence of 5% in patients typically undergoing chemotherapy for haematological malignancies. Mortality can be >50% in the presence of perforation and sepsis so patients must be identified quickly and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
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  • Question 16 - A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following an MVA. His BP...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following an MVA. His BP is 70/33 mmhg, heart rate of 140 beats/mins and very feeble pulse. He was transfused 3 units of blood resulting in his BP returning to 100/70 and his heart rate to 90 beats/min. What decreased following transfusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Total peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The patient is in hypovolemic shock, he is transfused with blood to replace the volume lost. It is important not only to replace fluids but stop active bleeding in resuscitation. Fluid replacement will result in a decreased sympathetic discharge and adequate ventricular filling thus reducing total peripheral resistance and increasing cardiac output and cardiac filling pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following malignancies is likely to have the best prognosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following malignancies is likely to have the best prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

      Explanation:

      Papillary carcinoma accounts for 70-80% of all thyroid cancers and is seen commonly in people aged 30-60 years. It is more aggressive in elderly patients. 10-20% cases may have recurrence or persistent disease. More common in females with a female to male ratio of 3:1. Papillary carcinomas can also contain follicular carcinomas. The common route of spread is through lymphatics to regional nodes in one-third cases and pulmonary metastasis can also occur. Papillary carcinomas of the thyroid have the best prognosis, especially in patients less than 45 years of age with small tumours confined to the thyroid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 18 - A 60-year old patient presenting with squamous cell carcinoma of the anal canal...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year old patient presenting with squamous cell carcinoma of the anal canal was brought in to the oncology ward for chemotherapy. In which of the following lymph nodes of this patient would you likely find metastases?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac

      Explanation:

      The efferent lymphatics from the anal canal proceed to the internal iliac lymph nodes. This would most likely form the site of enlargement in the lymphatics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 19 - When at rest, which of the following will be higher in a marathon...

    Incorrect

    • When at rest, which of the following will be higher in a marathon runner compared to an untrained individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac muscle hypertrophy is seen in trained athletes as compared to the normal population. This hypertrophy results in higher stroke volume at rest and increased cardiac reserve (maximum cardiac output during exercise). However, the cardiac output at rest is almost the same in both trained and untrained people. This is because in trained athletes, the heart rate is slower, even up to 40-50 beats/min. There is minimal affect of athletic training on oxygen consumption and respiratory rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 20 - A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic with a lump in the inguinal region. He was booked for surgery, during which, the surgeon opened the inguinal region and found a hernial sac with a small segment of intestine projecting through the abdominal wall. It was located just above the inguinal ligament and lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type of hernia was this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      An indirect inguinal hernia exits the abdominal cavity lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels and enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring. These are the most common types of hernias often caused by heavy weigh lifting. Direct inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through weak fascia.
      Congenital inguinal hernias are indirect hernias that occur due to persistence of the processus vaginalis.
      Femoral hernias occur when abdominal viscera push through the femoral ring in the femoral canal.
      Incisional hernia occurs after surgery when the omentum or organ protrudes through a previous site of incision.
      Obturator hernia are a very rare type of hernia where the pelvic or abdominal contents protrude through the obturator foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 21 - The lateral thoracic artery: ...

    Incorrect

    • The lateral thoracic artery:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accompanies the long thoracic nerve to the serratus anterior muscle

      Explanation:

      The thoracic nerve, along with the lateral thoracic artery, follow the pectoralis minor to the side of the chest which supplies the serratus anterior and the pectoralis. It then sends branches across the axilla to the axillary glands and subscapularis. The pectoral branch of the thoraco-acromial anastomoses with the internal mammary, subscapular and intercostal arteries, which in women, supply an external mammary branch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 22 - During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic...

    Incorrect

    • During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic carcinoma of the right upper lobe bronchus, a patient's right sympathetic trunk is accidentally severed above the level of spinal nerve T1. Which function would be left intact in the affected region?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Voluntary muscle activity

      Explanation:

      The sympathetic nervous system regulates vascular tone, dilation of pupils, arrector pili muscles, sweat production and visceral reflexes. Neurones that supply the voluntary muscles originate from the ventral horn of the spinal cord. If these nerves were thus damaged, these functions would be impaired. The sympathetic nervous system is not responsible for voluntary muscle activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following is an anion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an anion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Cations: sodium, magnesium, calcium and potassium
      Anions: chloride, phosphate, bicarbonate, lactate, sulphate and albumin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old male chronic smoker is diagnosed with non-small-cell cancer. His right lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male chronic smoker is diagnosed with non-small-cell cancer. His right lung underwent complete atelectasis and he has a 7cm tumour involving the chest wall. What is the stage of the lung cancer of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Non-small-cell lung cancer is staged through TNM classification. The stage of this patient is T3 because based on the TNM classification the tumour is staged T3 if > 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: Chest wall (including superior sulcus tumours), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, or parietal pericardium; or the tumour is in the main bronchus < 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina, Or it is associated with atelectasis/obstructive pneumonitis of the entire lung or separate tumour nodule(s) in the same lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 25 - A 39 year old decides to donate one of her kidneys to her...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old decides to donate one of her kidneys to her niece. Which of the following types of transplants would this be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allograft

      Explanation:

      Allograft is a tissue graft from a donor of the same species as the recipient but not genetically identical.

      Isograft Graft – tissue between two individuals who are genetically identical

      Autograft – transplantation of organs or tissues from one part of the body to another in the same individual

      Xenograft – tissue transplanted from another species

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Organ Transplantation
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  • Question 26 - Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of 130/70 mm HG and cardiac output of 5 litres / min?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18 mmHg × min/l

      Explanation:

      Total peripheral resistance = Mean arterial pressure/Cardiac output. And the mean arterial pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3 (Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure), i.e., 70 + 1/3 (130-70) = 90 mmHg. Therefore, total peripheral resistance = 90 mmHg/5 l per min = 18 mmHg × min/l.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 27 - Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which...

    Incorrect

    • Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which of the following sites?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sacrococcygeal area

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. It is derived from all three cell layers. The most common location of teratoma in new-born infants is in the sacrococcygeal area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 28 - A drug abuser developed an infection which spread from the dorsum of the...

    Incorrect

    • A drug abuser developed an infection which spread from the dorsum of the hand to the medial side of the arm along the course of the large cutaneous vein. Which vein is involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basilic

      Explanation:

      The basilic vein is one of two veins found in the forearm, the other is the cephalic vein. These veins originate from the deep venous arch of the hand. The cephalic vein ascends along the lateral side of the forearm, and the basilic vein runs up the medial side of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following is a likely cause of jaundice? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a likely cause of jaundice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic disease if plasma albumin is low and serum aminotransferase elevations > 500 units

      Explanation:

      Jaundice can occur due to any of the possible causes and treatment depends upon diagnosing the correct condition. Mild hyperbilirubinemia with normal levels of aminotransferase and alkaline phosphatase is often unconjugated (e.g., due to haemolysis or Gilbert’s syndrome rather than hepatobiliary disease). Moderate or severe hyperbilirubinemia along with increased urinary bilirubin (bilirubinuria), high alkaline phosphatase or aminotransferase levels suggest hepatobiliary disease. Hyperbilirubinemia produced by any hepatobiliary disease is largely conjugated. In this case, other blood tests include hepatitis serology for suspected hepatitis, prothrombin time (PT) or international normalised ratio (INR), albumin and globulin levels, and antimitochondrial antibody levels (suspected primary biliary cirrhosis). Low albumin and high globulin levels suggest chronic rather than acute liver disease. In cases where there is only a an elevation of alkaline phosphatase, γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) levels should be checked – the levels of which will be found high in hepatobiliary disease, but not in bone disorder which can also lead to elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. In diseases of hepatobiliary origin, aminotransferase elevations > 500 units suggest a hepatocellular cause, whereas disproportionate increases of alkaline phosphatase (e.g., alkaline phosphatase > 3 times normal and aminotransferase < 200 units) suggest cholestasis. Because hepatobiliary disease alone rarely causes bilirubin levels > 30 mg/dl, higher levels are suggestive of a combination of severe hepatobiliary disease and haemolysis or renal dysfunction. Imaging is best for diagnosing infiltrative and cholestatic causes of jaundice. Liver biopsy is rarely needed, but can be of use in intrahepatic cholestasis and in some types of hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old woman complains of pain in the proximal and distal interphalangeal joins,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman complains of pain in the proximal and distal interphalangeal joins, and back pain which has increased over the last 4 years and worsens after activity. X-rays reveal Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes in her interphalangeal joints and the presence of osteophytes in her spine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis is most common in older adults, predominating in women between the ages of 40 and 70; after this age, men and women are affected equally. It affects an entire joint, with disruption and potential loss of joint cartilage, along with other joint changes, including bone hypertrophy (osteophyte formation). The pain is usually gradual and is worse after activity, with occasional joint swelling. X-ray findings include marginal osteophytes, narrowing of the joint space, increased density of the subchondral bone, subchondral cyst formation, bony remodelling and joint effusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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