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  • Question 1 -  A 45-year-old man presented to the doctor complaining of a flank pain and...

    Correct

    •  A 45-year-old man presented to the doctor complaining of a flank pain and episodes of haematuria. Abdominal ultrasound revealed a left renal mass and the patient underwent a nephrectomy. Histopathological pattern was triphasic with blastemal, epithelial, and stromal components. The pathologist suggested the tumour resulted from the lack of a tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 11. Which of the following tumours is the pathologist most likely suggesting?

      Your Answer: Wilms’ tumour

      Explanation:

      Wilms’ tumour is one of the most common malignant tumours of childhood but it can also rarely be found in adults. In biopsy, classical histopathological findings include the triphasic pattern composed by blastemal, epithelial, and stromal elements. First symptoms in children include an abdominal palpable mass, while in adults pain and haematuria are the most common complaints. Deletions of tumours’ suppressor genes on chromosome 11 are usually associated with Wilms’ tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A retroperitoneal structure is: ...

    Incorrect

    • A retroperitoneal structure is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      Retroperitoneal structures are those that are found behind the peritoneum. They include: kidneys, suprarenal glands, bladder, ureter, inferior vena cava, rectum, oesophagus (part of it), part of the pancreas, 2nd, 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum and ascending and descending parts of the colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 3 - The patient who is diagnosed with bladder cancer asked his physician, what could...

    Incorrect

    • The patient who is diagnosed with bladder cancer asked his physician, what could have been the contributing factor in the development of his bladder cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Tobacco smoking is the main known contributor to urinary bladder cancer. In most populations, smoking is associated with over half of bladder cancer cases in men and one-third of cases among women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 4 - A 52 year old man presents to the emergency department with a stab...

    Incorrect

    • A 52 year old man presents to the emergency department with a stab wound to his left iliac fossa. He is hemodynamically unstable and is taken immediately to the OT for emergency laparotomy. During surgery, colonic mesentery is found to be injured that has resulted in the blood loss. The left colon is also injured with signs of local perforation and contamination. Which of the following is the most important aspect of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Resect the left colon and construct a left iliac fossa end colostomy

      Explanation:

      Colonic injuries that are managed with resection are associated with a high complication rate regardless of whether an anastomosis or colostomy is performed. Colonic resection and anastomosis can be performed safely in the majority of patients with severe colonic injury, including injuries to the left colon. For injuries of the right colon, an ileocolostomy has a lower incidence of leakage than a colocolonic anastomosis. For injuries to the left colon, there remains a role for colostomy specifically in the subgroups of patients with a high ATI or hypotension, because these patients are at greater risk for an anastomotic leak. The role of resection and primary anastomosis versus colostomy in colonic trauma requires further investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 5 - Which one of the following groups of lymph nodes is most likely to...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following groups of lymph nodes is most likely to be inflamed due to paronychia involving the big toe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vertical group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Paronychia affecting the big toe will result in inflammation of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes as it drains lymph from the big toe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - During an appendicectomy in a 16 year old girl, the registrar initially did...

    Incorrect

    • During an appendicectomy in a 16 year old girl, the registrar initially did not find the appendix on entering the peritoneal cavity. She, however, remained calm as she knew she could find it by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Looking at the confluence of the taenia coli

      Explanation:

      The vermiform appendix arises from the apex of the caecum. Although it has a constant base, it can pass in one of several directions such as upward behind the caecum, to the left behind the ileum and mesentery or downward into the lesser pelvis. It is retained in place by a peritoneal fold, the mesoenteriole derived from the left leaf of the mesentery. Taenia coli meet at the appendix which is the terminal portion of the caecum. The appendix is below the ileocecal valve, not above. It is not near the right colic artery (which supplies the ascending colon). It would not be found by removing a layer of the jejuno-ileum and is not in the pelvic brim.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 7 - A 37 year old woman presents to the clinic with signs of lymphoedema...

    Incorrect

    • A 37 year old woman presents to the clinic with signs of lymphoedema that has occurred after a block dissection of the groin for malignant melanoma several years ago. She has persistent lower limb swelling despite having used pressure stockings. This has impaired her daily life activities. Currently there is no evidence of a recurrent malignancy. Lymphoscintigraphy shows significant occlusion of the groin lymphatics. However, examination reveals the distal lymphatic system to be healthy. Which of the following options would be most helpful in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphovenous anastomosis

      Explanation:

      Lymphovenous anastomosis – Identifiable lymphatics are anastomosed to sub dermal venules. Usually indicated in 2% of patients with proximal lymphatic obstruction and normal distal lymphatics.

      Causes of lymphoedema:
      Primary:
      Sporadic, Milroy’s disease, Meige’s disease
      Secondary:
      Bacterial/fungal/parasitic infection (filariasis)
      Lymphatic malignancy
      Radiotherapy to lymph nodes
      Surgical resection of lymph nodes
      DVT
      Thrombophlebitis

      Other options given:
      Homans operation – Reduction procedure with preservation of overlying skin (which must be in good condition). Skin flaps are raised and the underlying tissue excised. Limb circumference typically reduced by a third.

      Charles operation – All skin and subcutaneous tissue around the calf are excised down to the deep fascia. Split skin grafts are placed over the site. May be performed if overlying skin is not in good condition. Larger reduction in size than with Homans procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
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  • Question 8 - Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of satiety

      Explanation:

      The ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is divided into an anterior and a superior part. The anterior part controls the female sexual drive, whereas the superior part is responsible for satiety. Destruction of the superior part of the nucleus will result in overeating, as no signal tells the body that it is satisfied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 9 - Into which vein does the left and right thyroid vein drain? ...

    Incorrect

    • Into which vein does the left and right thyroid vein drain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brachiocephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The brachiocephalic vein is formed by the confluence of the subclavian and internal jugular veins. In addition it receives drainage from: the left and right internal thoracic veins (also called internal mammary veins), left and right inferior thyroid veins
      and the left superior intercostal vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 11 - The middle meningeal artery is the largest among the arteries that supplies that...

    Incorrect

    • The middle meningeal artery is the largest among the arteries that supplies that dura mater of the brain. What is the terminal branch of the middle meningeal artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maxillary artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges. The middle meningeal artery is typically the third branch of the first part of the maxillary artery, one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 12 - the action of the semimembranosus muscle is: ...

    Incorrect

    • the action of the semimembranosus muscle is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee

      Explanation:

      the semimembranosus is situated at the back and medial side of the thigh. It arises from the upper and outer impression on the tuberosity of the ischium, above and lateral to the biceps femoris and semitendinosus. It is inserted mainly into the horizontal groove on the posterior medial aspect of the medial condyle of the tibia. it flexes the knee and assists in extension of the hip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 3 year old boy is taken to the doctor by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old boy is taken to the doctor by his mother who has noticed that he has been having rectal bleeding for a few months and a cherry red lesion appeared at the anal verge after defecation. Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juvenile polyp

      Explanation:

      Juvenile polyps are benign hamartomas with neoplastic potential that are the most frequent gastrointestinal polyp of childhood, with the peak incidence between 3 and 5 years of age.. The presence of multiple juvenile polyps may indicate a premalignant condition commonly named juvenile polyposis coli or juvenile polyposis syndrome (JPS). In contrast, single or solitary juvenile polyps generally are considered benign sporadic lesions that confer little to no future risk of malignancy. Most frequent presentation is painless rectal bleeding. Other features include a prolapsing rectal mass and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 14 - A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One...

    Incorrect

    • A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One day after the surgery patient complained of numbness of the skin over the right side of the neck. Injury to the cervical plexus of nerves is suspected. What is the possible nerve affected in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transverse cervical

      Explanation:

      The transverse cervical nerve (superficial cervical or cutaneous cervical) arises from the second and third spinal nerves, turns around the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid and, passing obliquely forward beneath the external jugular vein to the anterior border of the muscle, it perforates the deep cervical fascia, and divides beneath the platysma into the ascending and descending branches. It provides cutaneous innervation to this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following is the most abundant WBC seen in a smear...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most abundant WBC seen in a smear from a healthy person.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      neutrophils are the most abundant cell type of the WBC. These phagocytes are found normally in the blood and increase in number are seen during an acute inflammation. These the percentages of WBC in blood Neutrophils: 40 to 60%
      Lymphocytes: 20 to 40%
      Monocytes: 2 to 8%
      Eosinophils: 1 to 4%
      Basophils: 0.5 to 1%
      Band (young neutrophil): 0 to 3%. eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils are known as granulocytes and monocytes and lymphocytes as agranulocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman hits her head on the steering wheel during a collision...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman hits her head on the steering wheel during a collision with another car. She is brought to the A&E department with periorbital swelling and a flattened appearance of the face.

      What is the most likely injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Le Fort III fracture affecting the maxilla

      Explanation:

      The flattened appearance of the face is a classical description of the dish-face deformity associated with Le Fort III fracture of the midface.

      The term Le Fort fractures is applied to transverse fractures of the midface involving the maxillary bone and surrounding structures in either a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. There are three grades of Le Fort fractures:

      1. Le Fort I
      It is the horizontal fracture of the maxilla. Violent force over a more extensive area above the level of the
      teeth will result in this type of fracture. Horizontal fracture line is seen above the apices of the maxillary teeth, detaching the tooth-bearing portion of the maxilla from the rest of the facial skeleton. Floating maxilla and Guerin’s sign is seen in such patients.

      2. Le Fort II
      It is a pyramidal or subzygomatic fracture. Violent force in the central region extending from glabella to the alveolus results in this type of fracture, resulting in ballooning or moon-face facial deformity.

      3. Le Fort III
      It is a high-level transverse or suprazygomatic fracture associated with craniofacial disjunction. The entire facial skeleton moves as a single block as a result of the trauma. The patient develops a characteristic panda facies and dish-face deformity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 17 - A 60 year old man receives a cadaveric renal transplant for treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old man receives a cadaveric renal transplant for treatment of end stage renal failure. The organ is ABO group matched only. On completion of the vascular anastomoses the surgeons remove the clamps. Over the course of the next fifteen minutes, the donated kidney becomes dusky and swollen and appears non viable. Which of the following is the most likely process that has caused this event?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgG anti HLA Class I antibodies in the recipient

      Explanation:

      Antibody-mediated rejection (AMR) is defined as allograft rejection caused by antibodies of the recipient directed against donor-specific HLA molecules and blood group antigens. Although the mechanism by which HLA I antibodies promote inflammation and proliferation has been revealed by experimental models, the pathogenesis of HLA II antibodies is less defined. Antibodies to HLA II frequently accompany chronic rejection in renal transplants. AMR has been recognized as the leading cause of graft loss after kidney transplant if there is a donor-host antigenic disparity. Antibodies can be produced against epitopes of the antigen that differ from self by as little as one amino acid. Pre-existing antibodies or the development of de novo antibodies after transplantation has become a biomarker for AMR graft loss. HLA antibodies are risk factors for hyperacute, acute, and chronic allograft rejections.

      The specificity of HLA antibodies can be determined using single-antigen luminex beads that consist of fluorescent microbeads conjugated to single recombinant HLA class I and class II molecules. Complement-fixing ability would be assessed by the binding of C1q to HLA antibodies present in the serum. In several studies, C1q-positive DSA had associated with antibody-mediated rejection in renal transplantation compared with antibodies identified only by IgG. Complement-fixing ability is relevant to hyperacute and acute rejections. Hyperacute rejection is predominantly complement-mediated severe allograft injury occurring within hours of transplantation. It is caused by high titre of pre-existing HLA or non-HLA antibodies in presensitized patients. But the incidence of hyperacute rejection is reduced due to improved DSA detection methods and desensitization protocols.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Organ Transplantation
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  • Question 18 - Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      Latissimus dorsi is a triangular, flat muscle that covers the lumbar region and the lower half of the thoracic region. It is supplied by the sixth, seventh and eighth cervical nerves through the thoracodorsal (long subscapular) nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 19 - A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is: ...

    Incorrect

    • A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Used previously as a treatment for psychiatric disorders, prefrontal leucotomy severs the connection between the prefrontal cortical association area and the thalamus. This leads to functional isolation of the prefrontal and orbitofrontal association cortex. Thus, along with the desired reduction in anger and frustration, undesirable side effects included changes in mood and affect, as well as confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 20 - The glossopharyngeal nerve provides the parasympathetic innervation of the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The glossopharyngeal nerve provides the parasympathetic innervation of the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parotid salivary gland

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve provides parasympathetic innervation for the parotid salivary gland via the auriculotemporal nerve. The facial nerve supplies the parasympathetic innervation of the lacrimal, nasal, sublingual and submandibular glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 21 - A 10 hour old baby who was born by emergency caesarean section, is...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 hour old baby who was born by emergency caesarean section, is being observed for foetal distress. She has a displaced apex beat and decreased air entry on the left side of her chest. A scaphoid abdomen is seen on abdominal examination but all else is unremarkable. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

      Explanation:

      Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

      Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) occurs when the diaphragm muscle — the muscle that separates the chest from the abdomen — fails to close during prenatal development, and the contents from the abdomen (stomach, intestines and/or liver) migrate into the chest through this hole.

      Examination in infants with congenital diaphragmatic hernias include the following findings:

      Scaphoid abdomen

      Barrel-shaped chest

      Respiratory distress (retractions, cyanosis, grunting respirations)

      In left-sided posterolateral hernia: Poor air entry on the left, with a shift of cardiac sounds over the right chest; in patients with severe defects, signs of pneumothorax (poor air entry, poor perfusion) may also be found

      Associated anomalies: Dysmorphisms such as craniofacial abnormalities, extremity abnormalities, or spinal dysraphism may suggest syndromic congenital diaphragmatic hernia

      Ileal atresia is a congenital abnormality where there is significant stenosis or complete absence of a portion of the ileum. There is an increased incidence in those with chromosomal abnormalities. Ileal atresia results from a vascular accident in utero that leads to decreased intestinal perfusion and subsequent ischemia a segment of bowel. This leads to narrowing, or in the most severe cases, complete obliteration of the intestinal lumen. In the postnatal period, an abdominal radiograph will show air in the dilated loops of proximal bowel. An ileal atresia is often discovered prenatally at a routine prenatal ultrasound scan or following the development of polyhydramnios. On ultrasound, there is frequently a proximal dilated intestinal segment.

      Meconium Ileus (MI) is a condition where the content of the baby’s bowel (meconium) is extremely sticky and causes the bowel to be blocked at birth. In most cases the bowel itself is complete and intact but it is just the inside that is blocked.

      In some cases there has been a twist of the bowel before birth, which has caused the bowel to be blind ending (an atresia). Most babies with meconium ileus (90%) have Cystic Fibrosis (CF) and it is this that has caused the sticky meconium. Meconium ileus is a rare condition affecting only 1 in 25,000 babies. There is normally a delay in your baby passing meconium (black sticky stool normally passed within 24 hours of delivery) and your baby may also be reluctant to feed and may vomit a green fluid called bile which would normally pass through the bowel.

      Your baby may be uncomfortable because of constipation and trapped air in the bowel and the abdomen (tummy) will become distended. Some babies present at delivery with a distended abdomen and may be unwell due to infection around the bowel.

      Pyloric stenosis is a problem that affects babies between birth and 6 months of age and causes forceful vomiting that can lead to dehydration. It is the second most common problem requiring surgery in new-borns. The lower portion of the stomach that connects to the small intestine is known as the pylorus. In pyloric stenosis, the muscles in this part of the stomach enlarge, narrowing the opening of the pylorus and eventually preventing food from moving from the stomach to the intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 22 - A 68 year old woman has undergone surgical repair of her femoral hernia....

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old woman has undergone surgical repair of her femoral hernia. The surgeon used bipolar diathermy for haemostasis. Which of the following options would be regarded as the greatest risk with the usage of bipolar diathermy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fires when used near alcoholic skin preparations that have pooled

      Explanation:

      An operating room fire is rare but a well-known hazard that can result in significant patient morbidity. When it comes to the disposal of surgical spirits, the SPC for chlorhexidine states: ‘The solution is flammable. The risk of surgical fires due to spirit-based skin preparation fluid should be actively reduced. Data from the US show that up to 650 surgical fires occur each year, with up to 5% causing death or serious harm.

      Diathermy use electric currents to produce local heat and thereby facilitate haemostasis or surgical dissection. There are two major types of diathermy:
      1. Monopolar – current flows through a handheld device, from the tip of the device into the patient. The earth electrode is located some distance away.
      2. Bipolar – current flows from one electrode to another however, both electrodes are usually contained within the same device e.g. a pair of forceps. The result is that heating is localised to the area between the two electrodes and surrounding tissue damage is minimised. However this may create a spark and ignite flammable solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
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  • Question 23 - A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 24 - A 20-year-old woman presents with a posteriorly-sited anal fissure. Treatment with stool softeners...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with a posteriorly-sited anal fissure. Treatment with stool softeners and topical GTN have failed to improve the condition.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Injection of botulinum toxin

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate management option to consider, after GTN or other topical nitrates have failed, is botulinum toxin injection. In males, a lateral internal sphincterotomy would be an acceptable alternative. In a female who has yet to conceive, this may predispose to an increased risk of sphincter dysfunction. Moreover, division of the external sphincter would result in faecal incontinence and is not a justified treatment for anal fissure.

      Anal fissures are a common cause of painful, bright red rectal bleeding. Most fissures are idiopathic and present as a painful mucocutaneous defect in the posterior midline (90% cases). Fissures are more likely to be anteriorly located in females, particularly if they are multiparous. Diseases associated with fissure-in-ano include:
      1. Crohn’s disease
      2. Tuberculosis
      3. Internal rectal prolapse

      Diagnostic options are as follows:
      In most cases, the defect can be visualised as a posterior midline epithelial defect. Where symptoms are highly suggestive of the condition and examination findings are unclear, an examination under anaesthesia may be helpful. Atypical disease presentation should be investigated by colonoscopy and EUA, with biopsies of the area.

      For management of anal fissure:
      1. Stool softeners are important as hard stools may tear the epithelium and result in recurrent symptoms. The most effective first-line agents are topically applied GTN (0.2%) or Diltiazem (2%) paste.
      2. Resistant cases may benefit from injection of botulinum toxin or lateral internal sphincterotomy. Advancement flaps may be used to treat resistant cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
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  • Question 25 - Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trapezius

      Explanation:

      The latissimus dorsi receives blood from the thoracodorsal artery, the supraspinatus receives its blood from the suprascapular artery, the levator scapulae and the rhomboids are supplied by the dorsal scapular artery and the transverse cervical artery supplies blood to the trapezius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 26 - Which of the following is true about myasthenia gravis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about myasthenia gravis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Response of skeletal muscle to nerve stimulation is weakened

      Explanation:

      An autoimmune disorder, myasthenia gravis leads to progressive muscle weakness. It occurs due to formation of antibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) receptor of the motor endplate, which leads to impaired neuromuscular transmission. Thus, nerve stimulation will lead to a weakened muscle response, but direct electrical stimulation will bring about a normal response. Diagnostic test includes improvement of muscle weakness by small doses of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (physostigmine or edrophonium). However, a large dose of physostigmine worsens the weakness due to desensitisation of the endplate to persistent Ach. One of the investigative tools includes radiolabelled snake venom α-bungarotoxin. It is an in vitro study performed on muscle biopsy specimens and used to quantify the number of ACh receptors at the motor endplate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 27 - A 26-year-old Indian woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented with increasing shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old Indian woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented with increasing shortness of breath, chest pain, and was coughing clear sputum. On examination, she was afebrile with a blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg, heart rate of 130 bpm and saturation of 94% on 15L oxygen. Furthermore, there was a mid-diastolic murmur, bibasilar crepitations, and mild pedal oedema. Her urgent CXR was requested.

      Suddenly, she deteriorated and had a respiratory arrest. Her CXR showed bilateral complete whiteout of her lungs.

      What could be the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral valve stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral valve stenosis is the most common cause of cardiac abnormality occurring in pregnant women. It is becoming less common in the UK population; however, it should be considered in women from countries where there is a higher incidence of rheumatic heart disease. Physiological changes in pregnancy may cause an otherwise asymptomatic patient to suddenly deteriorate.

      Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur which may be difficult to auscultate unless the patient is placed in the left lateral position. These patients are at risk of atrial fibrillation (up to 40%) which can also contribute to rapid decompensation such as pulmonary oedema (hence, whiteout of lungs seen on CXR). Balloon valvuloplasty is the treatment of choice in patients with mitral valve stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 28 - A 22-year old man presented with a mass in his left scrotum which...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year old man presented with a mass in his left scrotum which was more prominent when standing and felt like a 'bag of worms'. Examination revealed a non-tender mass along the spermatic cord. Also, the right testis was larger than the left testis. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicocele

      Explanation:

      Varicocele refers to dilatation and increased tortuosity of the pampiniform plexus – which is a network of veins found in spermatic cord that drain the testicle. Defective valves or extrinsic compression can result in outflow obstruction and cause dilatation near the testis. Normal diameter of the small vessels ranges from 0.5 – 1.5mm. A varicocele is a dilatation more than 2mm.
      The plexus travels from the posterior aspect of testis into the inguinal canal with other structures forming the spermatic cord. They then form the testicular veins out of which the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava and the left into the left renal vein.
      It affects 15-20% men, and 40% of infertile males. Usually diagnosed in 15-25 years of age, they are rarely seen after 40 years of age. Because of the vertical path taken by the left testicular vein to drain into left renal vein, 98% idiopathic varicoceles occur on the left side. It is bilateral in 70% cases. Right-sided varicoceles are rare.
      Symptoms include pain or heaviness in the testis, infertility, testicular atrophy, a palpable mass, which is non-tender and along the spermatic cord (resembling a ‘bag of worms’). The testis on the affected side might be smaller.
      Diagnosis can be made by ultrasound. Provocative measures such as Valsalva manoeuvre or making the patient stand up to increase the dilatation by increasing the intra-abdominal venous pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 29 - A 40-year old Caucasian male came to the hospital with complaints of fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old Caucasian male came to the hospital with complaints of fatigue and lethargy. On examination, he was found to have raised blood pressure. Urine examination showed >300 mg/dl proteinuria (4+) and 24-hour urine protein 3.5g. No glucose, blood, nitrites, urobilinogen or casts were present in urine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Membranous glomerulonephritis or nephropathy, is a renal disorder with insidious course and usually affects people aged 30-50 years. 85% cases are primary (or idiopathic). The other 15% are secondary to autoimmune conditions like SLE, infections like malaria or hepatitis B, drugs like captopril and NSAIDs, or malignancies (particularly lung or colonic carcinoma). This disease is caused due to circulating immune complexes which are said to form by binding of antibodies to antigens in glomerular basement membrane. This antigens could be endogenous or derived from systemic circulation. This immune complex triggers the complement system, resulting in formation of membrane attack complex (MAC) on glomerular epithelial cells. This further results in release of proteases and oxidants which damage the capillaries making them ‘leaky’. Moreover, the epithelial cells also secrete a mediator to reduce nephron synthesis and distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 30 - A 33 year old firefighter is recovering from an appendicectomy where the operation...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old firefighter is recovering from an appendicectomy where the operation was complicated by the presence of perforation. On observation, he is seen to be vomiting and his urine output is decreasing. Which intravenous fluid should be initially administered, pending analysis of his urea and electrolyte levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hartmann's solution

      Explanation:

      Compound Sodium Lactate (Hartmann’s) is used:
      • for intravenous fluid and electrolyte replacement
      • as a source of bicarbonate in the treatment of mild to moderate metabolic acidosis associated with dehydration or associated with potassium deficiency
      • as a vehicle for intravenous drug delivery, if the drugs are compatible with the solutions

      The total amount of electrolytes per litre are: sodium 131 mmol, potassium 5mmol, chloride 112 mmol, calcium 2mmol, bicarbonate (as lactate) 28 mmol.
      The osmolality is approximately 255 mOsm/kg water. The solutions are isotonic, sterile, non-pyrogenic and do not contain antimicrobial agent or added buffers. The pH range is 5.0 to 7.0. Compound Sodium Lactate

      Ringer’s lactate solution (RL), also known as sodium lactate solution and Hartmann’s solution, is a mixture of sodium chloride, sodium lactate, potassium chloride, and calcium chloride in water. It is used for replacing fluids and electrolytes in those who have low blood volume or low blood pressure.

      Hartmann’s solution is often preferred over normal saline as it contains both fluids and electrolytes. The solution is also associated with fewer adverse effects and it can be administered to both adults and children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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