00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - What is the role of ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 in the inflammatory process? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the role of ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 in the inflammatory process?

      Your Answer: Leukocyte transmigration

      Correct Answer: Leukocyte adhesion

      Explanation:

      Steps involved in leukocyte arrival and function include:
      1. margination: cells migrate from the centre to the periphery of the vessel.
      2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls.
      3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes. Interaction of these results in adhesion.
      4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product.
      5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A teenager is taken to his doctor because his mother noticed a patch...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager is taken to his doctor because his mother noticed a patch of hair overlying his lower lumbar spine and a birth mark at the same location. Neurological examination of the lower limbs is normal. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spina bifida occulta

      Explanation:

      Answer: Spina bifida occulta

      Spina Bifida Occulta is the mildest type of spina bifida. It is sometimes called “hidden” spina bifida. With it, there is a small gap in the spine, but no opening or sac on the back. The spinal cord and the nerves usually are normal. Many times, Spina Bifida Occulta is not discovered until late childhood or adulthood. This type of spina bifida usually does not cause any disabilities.

      Eighty percent of those with a spinal cord problem will have skin over the defect with:
      a hairy patch
      a fatty lump
      a haemangioma—a red or purple spot made up of blood vessels
      a dark spot or a birthmark—these are red and don’t include blue-black marks, called “Mongolian spots”
      a skin tract (tunnel) or sinus—this can look like a deep dimple, especially if it’s too high (higher than the top of the buttocks crease), or if its bottom can’t be seen
      a hypopigmented spot—an area with less skin colour.

      Myelocele is herniation of spinal cord tissue through a defect in a region of the vertebral column. The protrusion of the tissue is flush with the level of the skin surface. In myelocele, the spinal cord is exposed so that nerve tissue lies exposed on the surface of the back without even a covering of skin or of the meninges, the membranous tissue surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 58 year old man presents with complaints of recurrent episodes of diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 58 year old man presents with complaints of recurrent episodes of diarrhoea over the past week that has resulted in marked exhaustion and fatigue. He underwent a successful cadaveric renal transplant last year and was able to return to his job as a swimming instructor. Stool microscopy is carried out and it shows evidence of cysts. Which of the following is the most likely source of infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium

      Explanation:

      Cryptosporidium infection occurs through the faecal-oral route of transmission. It usually lasts for 5–7 days. In immunocompetent patients it is self-limiting (nitazoxanide may be used to shorten the duration). In immunocompromised patients: Antiretroviral therapy to elevate the CD4 cell count/restore the immune system is essential prior to eradication with antiparasitic drugs. Diarrhoea is the main disease. The cysts are typically identified on stool microscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - After severe injury of the upper limb following an accident. The humerus is...

    Incorrect

    • After severe injury of the upper limb following an accident. The humerus is injured as well as the nerve which innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm. Which nerve is injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous

      Explanation:

      The musculoskeletal nerve supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm including the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii and the greater part of the brachialis. This nerve derives its fibres from the fifth, sixth and seventh cervical nerves and arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. It also provides a branch to the elbow joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following malignancies is associated with the development of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following malignancies is associated with the development of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome is a rare disorder of the neuromuscular junction. It can occur as a solitary diagnosis but it can also occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung cancer, particularly small-cell histology. It can also be associated with other cancers such as lymphoma, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, T-cell leukaemia, non-small-cell lung cancer, prostate cancer and thymoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year old gentleman presented to the emergency department at 5.00 AM with...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old gentleman presented to the emergency department at 5.00 AM with pain in his left flank. The pain began suddenly and presented in waves throughout the night. Urine examination was normal except for presence of blood and few white blood cells. The pH and specific gravity of the urine were also found to be within normal range. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ureteric calculus

      Explanation:

      A calculus in the ureter, if less than 5mm in diameter is likely to pass spontaneously. However, a larger calculus irritates the ureter and may become lodged, leading to hydroureter and/or hydronephrosis. Likely sites where the calculus might get lodged, include pelviureteric junction, distal ureter at the level of iliac vessels and the vesicoureteric junction. An obstruction can result in reduced glomerular filtration. There can be deterioration in renal function due to hydronephrosis and a raised glomerular pressure, leading to poor renal blood flow. Permanent renal dysfunction usually takes about 4 weeks to occur. Secondary infection can also occur in chronic obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitochondrion

      Explanation:

      A mitochondria is a membrane bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. They are called the powerhouse of the cell and are the place where ATP is formed from energy generated through metabolism. They are capable of replication as well as repair and regeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What principal artery that supplies the meninges is susceptible to rupture following trauma...

    Incorrect

    • What principal artery that supplies the meninges is susceptible to rupture following trauma to the side of the head over the temporal region:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery normally arises from the first or mandibular segment of the maxillary artery. The artery runs in a groove on the inside of the cranium, this can clearly be seen on a lateral skull X-ray. An injured middle meningeal artery is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following cells would be increased in a patient suffering from...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cells would be increased in a patient suffering from a hydatid cyst in the liver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eosinophils

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils are granulocytes that respond to parasitic infections. They are also involved in allergy response and asthma. They contain granules which stain red with Romanowsky’s method and contain peroxidase, Rnase, Dnase, histamine, lipase and major basic proteins that are toxic to the parasite as well as the hosts tissue. They are about 1-5% of the total WBC population and persist in the blood for 6-12 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 5 year old boy is taken to the family doctor following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old boy is taken to the family doctor following a history of difficult, painful defecation with bright red rectal bleeding. Which of the following would be the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      An anal fissure is a painful linear tear or crack in the distal anal canal, which, in the short term, usually involves only the epithelium and, in the long term, involves the full thickness of the anal mucosa. Anal fissures develop with equal frequency in both sexes; they tend to occur in younger and middle-aged persons.

      Treatment should include stool softeners and lifestyle advice. Failure of medical therapy is an indication for surgical therapy. Controversy mostly involves continued efforts to find a medical therapy for anal fissure that is as successful as the surgical therapy for the condition.
      Typically, the patient reports severe pain during a bowel movement, with the pain lasting several minutes to hours afterward. The pain recurs with every bowel movement, and the patient commonly becomes afraid or unwilling to have a bowel movement, leading to a cycle of worsening constipation, harder stools, and more anal pain. Approximately 70% of patients note bright-red blood on the toilet paper or stool. Occasionally, a few drops may fall in the toilet bowl, but significant bleeding does not usually occur with an anal fissure.

      Children with intussceception usually present at a relatively young age with colicky abdominal pain, together with a mass on clinical examination. The often cited red current jelly type stool is a rare but classical feature.

      Juvenile polyps may occur as part of the familial polyposis coli syndromes. The lesions, which are hamartomas, are often cherry red if they protrude externally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department having been trapped in...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department having been trapped in a burning house for 20 minutes before rescue. He has sustained burns to his entire back, and left arm, anteriorly and posteriorly and they are red and painful. He does not appear to have airway compromise, in particular, no singing of nasal hairs. His blood pressure and pulse are acceptable. His estimated weight is 80 kg. What is the most appropriate resuscitation plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4.5 L compound crystalloid over 8 hours, and the same again over the next 16 hours

      Explanation:

      Patients with burns of more than 20% – 25% of their body surface should be managed with aggressive IV fluid resuscitation to prevent “burn shock.
      Rule of 9’s for Adults: 9% for each arm, 18% for each leg, 9% for head,18% for front torso, 18% for back torso.
      A variety of formulas exist, like Brooke, Galveston, Rule of Ten, but the most common formula is the Parkland Formula. This formula estimates the amount of fluid given in the first 24 hours, starting from the time of the burn.
      Four mL lactated ringers solution × percentage total body surface area (%TBSA) burned × patient’s weight in kilograms = total amount of fluid given in the first 24 hours.
      One-half of this fluid should be given in the first eight hours.
      For example, a 75 kg patient with 55% total body surface area burn would need; 4 mL LR × 75kg × 55% TBSA = 16,500 mL in the first 24 hours, with 8,250 mL in the first eight hours or approximately 1 litre/hr for the first eight hours.
      For paediatric patients, the Parkland Formula can be used plus the addition of normal maintenance fluids added to the total.
      Whichever formula is used, the important point to remember is the fluid amount calculated is just a guideline. Patient’s vital signs, mental status, capillary refill and urine output must be monitored and fluid rates adjusted accordingly. Urine output of 0.5 mL/kg or about 30 – 50 mL/hr in adults and 0.5-1.0 mL/kg/hr in children less than 30kg is a good target for adequate fluid resuscitation.
      Other management for severe burns includes nasal gastric tube placement as most patients will develop ileus. Foley catheters should be placed to monitor urine output. Cardiac and pulse oximetry monitoring is indicated. Pain control is best managed with IV medication. Finally, burns are considered tetanus-prone wounds and tetanus prophylaxis are indicated if not given in the past five years. In any severe flame burn, you should always consider possible associated inhalation injury, carbon monoxide or cyanide poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the...

    Incorrect

    • A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the urinary bladder. Which of the following abdominal wall layers will the surgeon NOT traverse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior rectus sheath

      Explanation:

      Pfannenstiel incision (a transverse suprapubic incision) is made below the arcuate line. Thus, there is no posterior layer of the rectus sheath here, only the transversalis fascia lines the inner layer of the rectus abdominis. The layers traversed include: skin, superficial fascia (fatty and membranous), deep fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus abdominis muscle, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal connective tissue and peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 27-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is struck by a car....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is struck by a car. On arrival in the emergency department, she has a systolic blood pressure of 105 mmHg and a pulse rate of 126 bpm. Abdominal examination demonstrates diffuse tender abdomen and some bruising of the left flank. The FAST scan is normal.

      What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an urgent abdominal CT scan

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history and examination point towards a significant visceral injury. FAST scan is associated with a false-negative result in pregnancy which makes the normal result, in this scenario, less reassuring. CT scan of the abdomen remains the gold standard for diagnosis.

      Sonography and FAST scanning are established in pregnancy and provide the advantage of avoiding ionising radiations. However, the sensitivity of the FAST scan is reduced in pregnancy especially with advanced gestational age. CT scan remains the first-line investigation in major trauma where significant visceral injury is suspected. The maximum permitted safe dose of radiation in pregnancy is 5 mSv.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You are asked to help a junior medical student studying anatomy to identify...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to help a junior medical student studying anatomy to identify the left lung. Which of the following features found only in the left lung will you use the identify it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac notch

      Explanation:

      Oblique fissure: is found on both the left and the right lungs. It separates the upper from the lower lobes in both lungs and the middle lobe from the lower lobe in the right lung(which has three lobes.)
      The superior lobar bronchus is found in both lungs.
      Cardiac notch: found only on the left lung.
      Horizontal fissure: a deep groove separating the middle lobe from the upper lobe of the right lung is absent on the left lung.
      Diaphragmatic surface: refers to the part of the lung, both the left and the right, that is in contact with the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The transverse colon has two curvatures known as the colic flexures on each...

    Incorrect

    • The transverse colon has two curvatures known as the colic flexures on each side of its lateral ends, the right and left. The left colic flexure found on the side of the descending colon is attached to an organ superiorly by a mesenteric ligament. Which organ is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The left colic flexure is the bend of the transverse colon as it continues to form the descending colon on the left upper quadrant. The spleen is located on the superior aspect of the left colic flexure. It is commonly referred to as the splenic flexure because of its relation o the spleen superiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A previously healthy 40-year-old housewife suddenly complains of a headache and loses consciousness....

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 40-year-old housewife suddenly complains of a headache and loses consciousness. A CT scan reveals subarachnoid haemorrhage. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ruptured berry aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Saccular aneurysms, also known as berry aneurysms, appear as a round outpouching and are the most common form of cerebral aneurysm. They are a congenital intracranial defect, and haemorrhage can occur at any age, but is most common between the ages of 40-65 years. A second rupture (rebleeding) sometimes occurs, most often within about 7 days of the first bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 34-year-old woman with severe burns, presented to casualty with a blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman with severe burns, presented to casualty with a blood pressure of 75/40 mmHg and pulse of 172/minute. Obviously the patient is in shock. Which type of shock is it more likely to be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypovolaemic shock

      Explanation:

      Shock is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the organs and tissues of the body are not receiving a sufficient flow of blood. Lack of blood flow, oxygen and nutrients results in the inability to function properly and damage to many organs. Shock requires immediate treatment because, if left untreated the impaired tissue perfusion and cellular hypoxia can cause irreversible tissue injury, collapse, coma or even death. There are various types of physiological shock, including: cardiogenic (due to heart damage), hypovolaemic (due to low total volume of blood or plasma), neurogenic (due to nervous system damage), septic (due to infections) and anaphylactic shock (due to allergic reactions). Hypovolaemic shock can be caused by blood loss due to trauma, internal bleeding or other fluid loss due to severe burns, prolonged diarrhoea, vomiting and sweating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 20 year old man is involved in a car accident where he...

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year old man is involved in a car accident where he is thrown out of the car. He is seen with distended neck veins and a weak pulse on admission. The trachea is central. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hemopericardium

      Explanation:

      Answer: Hemopericardium

      Hemopericardium refers to the presence of blood within the pericardial cavity, i.e. a sanguineous pericardial effusion. If enough blood enters the pericardial cavity, then a potentially fatal cardiac tamponade can occur. There is a very long list of causes but some of the more common are:
      -ruptured myocardial infarction
      -ruptured left ventricular aneurysm
      -aortic dissection
      -pericarditis
      -trauma
      -blunt/penetrating/deceleration
      -iatrogenic, e.g. pacemaker wire insertion
      -cardiac malignancies
      -ruptured coronary artery aneurysm
      -post-thrombolysis

      Cardiac tamponade is a clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space, resulting in reduced ventricular filling and subsequent hemodynamic compromise. The condition is a medical emergency, the complications of which include pulmonary oedema, shock, and death.
      Symptoms vary with the acuteness and underlying cause of the tamponade. Patients with acute tamponade may present with dyspnoea, tachycardia, and tachypnoea. Cold and clammy extremities from hypoperfusion are also observed in some patients. Other symptoms and signs may include the following:
      Elevated jugular venous pressure

      Pulsus paradoxus

      Chest pressure

      Decreased urine output

      Confusion

      Dysphoria

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old cleaner is admitted after a fall. She is haemodynamically unstable and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old cleaner is admitted after a fall. She is haemodynamically unstable and a CT has shown a massive retroperitoneal haematoma. She is on warfarin. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infusion of human prothrombin complex and vitamin K

      Explanation:

      Active, serious haemorrhage due to Warfarin should be treated with four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC), if available.
      While costly, an essential advantage FFP confers to emergency care is that, in contrast to FFP, it results in a more rapid reversal of coagulopathy and does not require thawing or blood group typing. Additionally, it has a reduced risk of volume overload, transfusion-related acute lung injury, transfusion reactions, and infectious disease transmission. Despite these advantages, no mortality benefit has been proven for PCC compared with FFP.
      Alternatively, recombinant factor VIIa (rFVIIa) has been reported to be effective in rapidly lowering INR due to warfarin toxicity and may be considered if PCC is not available. FFP is effective at lowering the INR and was historically first-line therapy for warfarin toxicity with serious or life-threatening bleeding, although it has now been superseded by PCC, which lowers the INR more rapidly. If PCC or rFVIIa is not available, 4 units of FFP may be administered instead.
      Administer vitamin K1, 10 mg, by slow IV infusion,

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A mechanic sustained a deep laceration to his right cubital fossa which resulted...

    Incorrect

    • A mechanic sustained a deep laceration to his right cubital fossa which resulted in him unable to move the proximal radioulnar joint of his right arm. Which muscles was affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pronator teres

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the pronator teres muscle. This muscle arises from 2 heads of origin: the humerus and ulnar. Between the 2 heads is the site of entrance of median nerve to the forearm. This muscle acts on the proximal radio-ulnar joint to rotate the radius on the ulna, otherwise known as pronation. It also assists in forearm flexion if the radius is fixed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 20-year old gentleman was brought to the emergency department with headache and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old gentleman was brought to the emergency department with headache and nausea for 2 days. He also complained of intolerance to bright light and loud sounds. Lumbar puncture showed glucose < 45 mg/dl, protein > 5 mg/dl and neutrophil leucocytosis. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningitis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of meningitis can be carried out with examination of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) with a lumbar puncture (LP). In a case of bacterial meningitis, the CSF analysis will show:
      – Opening pressure: > 180 mmH2O
      – White blood cell count: 10–10 000/μl with neutrophil predominance
      – Glucose: < 40 mg/dl
      – CSF glucose to serum glucose ratio: < 0.4
      – Protein: > 4.5 mg/dl
      – Gram stain: positive in > 60%
      – Culture: positive in > 80%
      – Latex agglutination: may be positive in meningitis due to Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, Escherichia coli and group B streptococci
      – Limulus, lysates: positive in Gram-negative meningitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 30 year old carpenter falls off the roof of a house and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old carpenter falls off the roof of a house and lands on his right arm. X-ray and clinical examination show that he has fractured the proximal ulna and associated radial dislocation. Which of the following names would be used to describe this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monteggia's

      Explanation:

      The Monteggia fracture refers to a dislocation of the proximal radio-ulnar joint (PRUJ) in association with a forearm fracture, most commonly a fracture of the ulna. Depending on the type of fracture and severity, they may experience elbow swelling, deformity, crepitus, and paraesthesia or numbness. Some patients may not have severe pain at rest, but elbow flexion and forearm rotation are limited and painful.
      The dislocated radial head may be palpable in the anterior, posterior, or anterolateral position. In Bado type I and IV lesions, the radial head can be palpated in the antecubital fossa. The radial head can be palpated posteriorly in type II lesions and laterally in type III lesions.

      Colles’ fractures have the following 3 features:
      – Transverse fracture of the radius
      – 1 inch proximal to the radio-carpal joint
      – Dorsal displacement and angulation

      Smith’s fracture (reverse Colles’ fracture)
      – Volar angulation of distal radius fragment (Garden spade deformity)
      – Caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed

      Bennett’s fracture
      – Intra-articular fracture of the first carpometacarpal joint
      – Impact on flexed metacarpal, caused by fist fights
      – X-ray: triangular fragment at ulnar base of metacarpal

      Galeazzi fracture
      – Radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint

      Pott’s fracture
      – Bimalleolar ankle fracture
      – Forced foot eversion

      Barton’s fracture
      – Distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation
      – Fall onto extended and pronated wrist
      – Involvement of the joint is a defining feature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perineal membrane

      Explanation:

      The urogenital fascia is mostly commonly referred to as the perineal membrane. This term refers to an anatomical fibrous membrane in the perineum. It is triangular in shape, and thus at times referred to as the triangular ligament. It is about 4 cm in depth. Its The perineal membrane’s apex is anterior and is separated from the arcuate pubic ligament by an oval opening for the passage of the deep dorsal vein of the penis. The lateral marginas of this triangular ligament are attached on either side to the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium, above the crus penis. Its base faces the rectum, and connects to the central tendinous point of the perineum. The pelvic fascia and Colle’s fascia is fused to the base of this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An 80 year old woman is undergoing excision of a basal cell carcinoma...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old woman is undergoing excision of a basal cell carcinoma from her periorbital region under local anaesthesia. Medical history reveals multiple medical comorbities. Which medication should be stopped prior to surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Answer: Aspirin

      Aspirin increases bleeding time when taken orally. Aspirin causes several different effects in the body, mainly the reduction of inflammation, analgesia (relief of pain), the prevention of clotting, and the reduction of fever. Much of this is believed to be due to decreased production of prostaglandins and TXA2. Aspirin’s ability to suppress the production of prostaglandins and thromboxanes is due to its irreversible inactivation of the cyclooxygenase (COX) enzyme. Cyclooxygenase is required for prostaglandin and thromboxane synthesis. Prostaglandins are local chemical messengers that exert multiple effects including but not limited to the transmission of pain information to the brain, modulation of the hypothalamic thermostat, and inflammation. They are produced in response to the stimulation of phospholipids within the plasma membrane of cells resulting in the release of arachidonic acid (prostaglandin precursor). Thromboxanes are responsible for the aggregation of platelets that form blood clots.
      Low-dose, long-term aspirin use irreversibly blocks the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, producing an inhibitory effect on platelet aggregation.

      Antihypertensive and antidiabetic medications do not need to be stopped when a patient is undergoing local anaesthesia. Steroid (Prednisolone) use cannot be stopped abruptly; tapering the drug gives the adrenal glands time to return to their normal patterns of secretion. Withdrawal symptoms and signs (weakness, fatigue, decreased appetite, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, abdominal pain) can mimic many other medical problems. Some may be life-threatening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding the coagulation cascade, Factor VII: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the coagulation cascade, Factor VII:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is mainly synthesised by the vascular endothelium

      Explanation:

      Factor VII is an important part of the coagulation cascade. Deficiency causes haemophilia A. It is synthesised predominantly by the vascular endothelium and is not affect by liver disease. In the circulation it is bound to von Willebrand factor and it forms a stable complex. It is activated by thrombin or factor Xa and acts as a co-factor to factor IXa to activate factor X.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is characterized by a rapid-onset muscle weakness caused by the immune system damaging the peripheral nervous system. In about two-thirds of patients, the syndrome begins 5 days to 3 weeks after an infectious disease, surgery or vaccination. Infection is the trigger in over 50% of patients; common pathogens include Campylobacter jejuni, enteric viruses, herpesviruses (including cytomegalovirus and those causing infectious mononucleosis) and Mycoplasma species. The underlying mechanism involves an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves and damages their myelin insulation, although the cause for this is still unknown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Carbachol is a cholinergic agonist. In which of these cases should carbachol be...

    Incorrect

    • Carbachol is a cholinergic agonist. In which of these cases should carbachol be administered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cataract surgery

      Explanation:

      Carbachol (carbamylcholine) is a cholinergic agent, a choline ester and a positively charged quaternary ammonium compound. It is primarily used for various ophthalmic purposes, such as for treating glaucoma, or for use during ophthalmic surgery. It is usually administered topically to the eye or through intraocular injection. It is not well absorbed in the gastro-intestinal tract and does not cross the blood–brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 5-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department because of fever, erythema...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department because of fever, erythema and neck stiffness. The child is also hypotensive upon physical examination. Which is the most likely toxin responsible for this child's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endotoxin

      Explanation:

       An endotoxin is part of the bacterial outer membrane, and it is not released until the bacterium is killed by the immune system. The body’s response to an endotoxin can involve severe inflammation. In general, the inflammation process is usually considered beneficial to the infected host, but if the reaction is severe enough, it can lead to sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which nerve lies immediately medial to the psoas major muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve lies immediately medial to the psoas major muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obturator

      Explanation:

      The obturator nerve is formed from the ventral divisions of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th lumbar nerves. It courses through the fibres of the psoas major and emerges from the medial border near the pelvic brim.
      The iliohypogastric nerve comes from the first lumbar nerve and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of psoas major.
      The ilioinguinal nerve arises with the iliohypogastric nerve from the first lumbar nerve and also emerges from the lateral border of the psoas major muscle.
      The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve comes from the posterior division of the 2nd and 3rd lumbar nerves to emerge from the lateral border of the psoas major muscle near its middle.
      The femoral nerve also arises from the dorsal divisions, but of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th lumbar nerves and courses through the muscle fibres to emerge at the lower part of the lateral border.
      The coccygeal nerve doesn’t arise from the lumbar plexus but from the sacral plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - During an appendicectomy in a 16 year old girl, the registrar initially did...

    Incorrect

    • During an appendicectomy in a 16 year old girl, the registrar initially did not find the appendix on entering the peritoneal cavity. She, however, remained calm as she knew she could find it by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Looking at the confluence of the taenia coli

      Explanation:

      The vermiform appendix arises from the apex of the caecum. Although it has a constant base, it can pass in one of several directions such as upward behind the caecum, to the left behind the ileum and mesentery or downward into the lesser pelvis. It is retained in place by a peritoneal fold, the mesoenteriole derived from the left leaf of the mesentery. Taenia coli meet at the appendix which is the terminal portion of the caecum. The appendix is below the ileocecal valve, not above. It is not near the right colic artery (which supplies the ascending colon). It would not be found by removing a layer of the jejuno-ileum and is not in the pelvic brim.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Passmed