-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 60 yr. old man presented with difficulty in breathing. On examination he was severely dyspnoeic and tachycardic. What is the clinical sign that would favour the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade over constrictive pericarditis?
Your Answer: Pulsus paradoxus
Explanation:Pulsus paradoxus is defined as the exaggerated fall in systolic blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mmHg. Cardiac tamponade is the classic cause of pulsus paradoxus. Kussmaul’s sign (a rise in the jugular venous pressure on inspiration) is mostly seen in constrictive pericarditis. Hypotension, muffled heart sounds and raised JVP can be seen in both conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man having small cell lung cancer is admitted onto the ward for chemotherapy. He has a history of severe nausea and vomiting secondary to chemotherapy, in the past.
The consultant asks you to prescribe a neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor blocker. Which agent, out of the following, will you choose?Your Answer: Domperidone
Correct Answer: Aprepitant
Explanation:Aprepitant is an anti-emetic which blocks the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor and acts as a substance P antagonist. It is licensed for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) and for prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting.
Nausea and vomiting are the common side effects of chemotherapy. Risk factors for the development of these symptoms include age<50 years, anxiety, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy administered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase in B2-microglobulin levels
Explanation:The immunological changes in HIV include depletion in CD4+ T cell, cytokine dysregulation and immune dysfunction. The dominant immunologic feature of HIV infection is progressive depletion of the helper T cell (CD4+ T cell), which reverses the normal CD4:CD8 ratio and subsequently lead to immunodeficiency. Other imuunological changes include:
increased B2-microglobulin
decreased IL-2 production
polyclonal B-cell activation
decreased NK cell function
reduced delayed hypersensitivity responses -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
How should DVT during pregnancy be managed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dalteparin
Explanation:Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition in which a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the leg.
Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred treatment for most patients with acute DVT, including in pregnancy. A large meta-analyses comparing LMWH to unfractionated heparin (UFH) showed that LMWH decreased the risk of mortality, recurrent veno-thrombo embolism (VTE), and haemorrhage compared with heparin. Other advantages of LMWH may include more predictable therapeutic response, ease of administration and monitoring, and less heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Disadvantages of LMWH include cost and longer half-life compared with heparin.
Warfarin, which is administered orally, is used if long-term anticoagulation is needed. The international normalized ratio (INR) is followed, with a target range of 2-3. Warfarin crosses the placenta and is teratogenic, causing a constellation of anomalies known as warfarin embryopathy, with greatest risk between the sixth and twelfth week of gestation.
Other options are not indicated for use. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 46-year-old woman was referred to the endocrinology department with hypercalcemia and raised parathyroid hormone levels. Her blood tests are highly suggestive of primary hyperparathyroidism.
She has type 2 diabetes controlled by metformin alone. Her albumin-adjusted serum calcium level is 3.5 mmol/litre.
Which of the following is the most important reason for her referral?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Albumin-adjusted serum calcium level of 3.5 mmol/litre
Explanation:Indications for surgery for the treatment of primary hyperparathyroidism:
1. Symptoms of hypercalcaemia such as thirst, frequent or excessive urination, or constipation
2. End-organ disease (renal stones, fragility fractures or osteoporosis)
3. An albumin-adjusted serum calcium level of 2.85 mmol/litre or above. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A woman is prescribed docetaxel as part of her chemotherapy for breast cancer. What is the mechanism of action of docetaxel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevents microtubule disassembly
Explanation:The principal mechanism of action of taxanes (e.g. docetaxel) is the prevention of microtubule disassembly.
Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:
1. Doxorubicin: stabilizes DNA topoisomerase II complex and inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis.
2. Vincristine, vinblastine: inhibits formation of microtubules.
3. Cisplatin: causes cross-linking in DNA.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history of Sjogren Syndrome. The foetus would be at a risk for which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All correct
Explanation:Women with Sjögren syndrome are likely to experience more complications during pregnancy than women without an autoimmune disease as the anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies cross the placenta and lead to various life threatening complications. Studies show a high incidence of poor fetal outcomes for these patients. Congenital heart block, neonatal lupus, congestive cardiac failure, hydrops fetalis can all be caused as a result of Sjogren syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 19-year-old female is admitted with a headache, photophobia, fever and confusion. She is managed with antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action of the most commonly used first line antibiotic class?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Explanation:In adults, the most common symptom of meningitis is a severe headache, occurring in almost 90% of cases of bacterial meningitis, followed by nuchal rigidity (the inability to flex the neck forward passively due to increased neck muscle tone and stiffness). Other signs commonly associated with meningitis include photophobia (intolerance to bright light) and phonophobia (intolerance to loud noises).
In the United Kingdom empirical treatment consists of a third-generation cefalosporin such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone. In the USA, where resistance to cefalosporins is increasingly found in streptococci, addition of vancomycin to the initial treatment is recommended. Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems and monobactams all act via inhibition of cell wall synthesis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow release tablet (MST) 60mg bd as an analgesic, is reviewed. Recently, he has been unable to take medications orally and, thus, a decision has been made to set up a syringe driver.
Out of the following, what dose of diamorphine should be prescribed for the syringe driver?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40mg
Explanation:The dose is calculated, using the conversion factor, as follows:
(Conversion factor used to convert oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine = Divide the total daily dose of oral morphine by 3)
Hence,
60mg*2 = 120mg
120mg/3 = 40mgThe side effects of opioids can be transient or persistent, and these include constipation, nausea, and drowsiness. Therefore, all patients taking opioids should also be prescribed a laxative and an anti-emetic (if the nausea is persistent). Dose-adjustment may be necessary in cases of persistent drowsiness. Moreover, strong opioids can also provide quick relief from metastatic bone pain, as compared to NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A husband visits the clinic with his wife because he wants to be screened for cystic fibrosis. His brother and wife had a child with cystic fibrosis so he is concerned. His wife is currently 10 weeks pregnant. When screened, he was found to be a carrier of the DF508 mutation for cystic fibrosis but despite this result, the wife declines testing. What are the chances that she will have a child with cystic fibrosis, given that the gene frequency for this mutation in the general population is 1/20?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The chance of two carriers of a recessive gene having a child that is homozygous for that disease (that is both genes are transmitted to the child) is 25%. Therefore, the chances of this couple having a child with CF are 25%(1/4) x 1/20 = 1/80.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He is concerned that she may have taken an overdose of her mom's morphine sulphate pills after being depressed about her mother, who is dying of carcinoma of the breast.
Which of the following may point towards his suspicion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sweating
Explanation:Excessive sweating points towards a morphine overdose.
Morphine is considered the classic opioid analgesic with which other painkillers are compared. Like other medications in this class, morphine has an affinity for delta, kappa, and mu-opioid receptors.
Most commonly used in pain management, morphine provides major relief to patients afflicted with pain.Among the more common adverse effects of morphine use is constipation. Other side effects include nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, and confusion. Psychological and physical dependence may occur.
Other side effects include bronchospasm, angioedema, urinary retention, ureteric or biliary spasm, dry mouth, sweating, rash, facial flushing, vertigo, tachycardia, bradycardia, palpitations, orthostatic hypotension, hypothermia, restlessness, mood change, hallucinations, seizures (adults and children) and miosis, headache and allergic reactions (including anaphylaxis) and decreased libido or potency.
Raised intracranial pressure occurs in some patients. Muscle rigidity may occur with high doses. Elevated liver enzymes may occur due to biliary sphincter constriction. Large doses can lead to respiratory depression, circulatory failure, and coma.
Treatment of opioid overdose:
Initial treatment of overdose begins with supportive care.
Naloxone is a pure competitive antagonist of opiate receptors and has no agonistic activity. The drug is relatively safe and can be administered intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or via the endotracheal tube.
Alternatively, nalmefene and naltrexone maybe considered. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Which of the following types of motor neuron diseases carries the worst prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progressive bulbar palsy
Explanation:Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition of unknown cause which can present with both upper and lower motor neuron signs. It rarely presents before 40 years and various patterns of disease are recognised including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, primary lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy and progressive bulbar palsy. In some patients however, there is a combination of clinical patterns. In progressive bulbar palsy there is palsy of the tongue and muscles of chewing/swallowing and facial muscles due to loss of function of brainstem motor nuclei. This carries the worst prognosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted after slipping on ice and falling over. Some routine blood tests are performed:
Na+ 141 mmol/L,
K+ 2.9 mmol/L,
Chloride 114 mmol/L,
Bicarbonate 16 mmol/L,
Urea 5.2 mmol/L,
Creatinine 75 µmol/L,
Which one of the following is most likely to explain these results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis (type 1)
Explanation:The patient’s underlying arthritis has most likely led to Renal tubular acidosis RTA type 1, which presents with the following symptoms consistent with the presentation of the patient: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis/acidaemia, hypokalaemia and hyperchloremia. Comparatively, the other conditions are ruled out because Aspirin and diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a raised anion gap, Conn’s syndrome explains hypokalaemia but not the metabolic acidosis, and RTA type 4 is associated with hyperkalaemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 73-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes mellitus, complains of difficulty walking and trouble with his hands. It began with a tingling sensation in his soles, which later extended up to his ankles. He now feels unsteady when walking, and more recently, has noticed numbness and tingling in the fingers of both hands.
On examination, he has absent ankle reflexes, a high steppage gait, and altered sensation to his mid-calves.
What is the underlying pathological process?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axonal degeneration
Explanation:This case presents with sensorimotor neuropathy secondary to his DM. The progression of the neuropathy, known dying-back neuropathy, is a distal axonopathy or axonal degeneration as where the sensorimotor loss begins distally and travels proximally.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 51-year-old man was brought to the Emergency department for loose stools. He was dehydrated, weak and in shock. He had previously been complaining of large stool volumes for a one month period. Stool colour was normal. There was no history of laxative abuse and no significant past medical history.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: VIPoma
Explanation:Given that the patient has had large amount, high volume watery diarrhoea in an acute period of time, from the answer choices given, this narrows the diagnosis down to VIPoma or carcinoid syndrome. You would expect with carcinoid syndrome for there to be periodic episodes of diarrhoea, though, with a description of flushing, additionally, associated with these episodes. Thus, VIPoma is the most likely answer here. VIPomas are known to cause hypokalaemia from this large amount of watery diarrhoea. Stool volume should be > 700 ml/day.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 57 year old man is reviewed and discovered to be dependent on Temazepam which was prescribed for him as a hypnotic. He wants to end his addiction and requests help. What is the most appropriate strategy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to the equivalent diazepam dose then slowly withdraw over the next 2 months
Explanation:Temazepam is a medication that is often prescribed for the treatment of short-term insomnia. It belongs to the benzodiazepine family of drugs and is classed as intermediate-acting, meaning that it can take between six and twenty-four hours for the drug to take effect.
Although it is known that shorter-acting benzodiazepines are more harmful and more likely to cause addiction, temazepam is, nevertheless, a highly addictive drug. It should not be taken for longer than four weeks.
-Adverse effects associated with the use of benzodiazepine hypnotics (to which the elderly are most vulnerable) include confusion, over sedation, increased risks of falls and consequent fractures
-Withdrawal from a benzodiazepine hypnotic must be agreed between the clinician and the patient – patients should never be forced or threatened. The risks of continued benzodiazepine use should be explained. An agreed schedule for reduction of and gradual withdrawal from the benzodiazepine hypnotic should also be agreed. This will involve substitution of the hypnotic with a long-acting benzodiazepine (e.g. diazepam) and a subsequent gradual reduction in dose of the substituted benzodiazepine -the substituted benzodiazepine can then be withdrawn in steps of about one-eighth to one-tenth every fortnight
Example: withdrawal schedule for patient on temazepam 20mg nocte
week 1 – temazepam 10mg, diazepam 5mg
week 2 – stop temazepam, diazepam 10mg
week 4 – diazepam 9mg
week 6 – diazepam 8mg
continue reducing dose of diazepam by 1mg every fortnight – tapering of dose may be slower if necessary -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 68 yr. old male with history of poorly controlled hypertension was admitted with shortness of breath on exertion, orthopnoea for three months. He was diagnosed with congestive cardiac failure and was started on digoxin 62.5 μg daily, furosemide 80mg daily and amiloride 10mg daily. On admission his lab results showed that his serum urea was 6 mmol/L and serum creatinine was 115 μmol/L. One month later he came for a follow up consultation. On examination he had bilateral ankle oedema. His blood pressure was 138/90 mmHg and pulse rate was 92 bpm. His JVP was not elevated. His apex beat was displaced laterally and he had a few bibasal crepitations on auscultation. There were no cardiac murmurs. His investigation results revealed the following:
Serum sodium 143 mmol/L (137-144),
Serum potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9),
Serum urea 8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5),
Serum creatinine 140 μmol/L (60-110),
Serum digoxin 0.7 ng/mL (1.0-2.0).
CXR showed cardiomegaly and a calcified aorta. ECG showed left ventricular hypertrophy.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add an ACE inhibitor to the current regimen
Explanation:From the given history the patient has NYHA grade III heart failure. He can be safely started on an ACE inhibitor as his serum potassium was towards the lower limit. As there an impairment of renal function, his urea, creatinine and serum electrolytes should be closely monitored after commencing an ACE inhibitor. Adding atenolol will not have any clinical benefit. Increasing the digoxin dose is not needed as the patient is in sinus rhythm. Increasing furosemide will only have symptomatic relief.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 55 yr. old female with a history of hypertension presented with severe central chest pain for the past one hour, associated with sweating and vomiting. Her ECG showed ST elevation myocardial infarction, evident in leads V2-V4. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for thrombolysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intracranial neoplasm
Explanation:Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI
Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
Ischemic stroke within 3 months
Suspected aortic dissection
Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old male was admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit last night. He is a poor historian, answering most questions minimally and stating he does not need to be here as he is deceased, and hospitals should be for living patients.
What is the type of delusion in this patient and what is it commonly associated with?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome and Major Depressive Disorder
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis of this patient is Cotard syndrome with major depressive disorder.
Cotard syndrome is a rare mental disorder where the affected patient believes that they (or in some cases just a part of their body) is either dead or non-existent. This delusion is often difficult to treat and can result in significant problems due to patients stopping eating or drinking as they deem it not necessary. Cotard syndrome is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders (like schizophrenia).
Other delusional syndromes:
– Othello syndrome is a delusional belief that a patients partner is committing infidelity despite no evidence of this. It can often result in violence and controlling behaviour.
– De Clerambault syndrome (otherwise known as erotomania), is where a patient believes that a person of higher social or professional standing is in love with them. Often this presents with people who believe celebrities are in love with them.
– Capgras syndrome is characterised by a person believing their friend or relative had been replaced by an exact double.
– Couvade syndrome is also known as ‘sympathetic pregnancy’. It affects fathers, particularly during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy, who suffer the somatic features of pregnancy.
– Ekbom syndrome is also known as delusional parasitosis and is the belief that they are infected with parasites or have ‘bugs’ under their skin. This can vary from the classic psychosis symptoms in narcotic use where the user can ‘see’ bugs crawling under their skin or can be a patient who believes that they are infested with snakes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Procainamide
Explanation:Many drugs are responsible for causing drug induced lupus. However, it is most commonly associated with hydralazine, procainamide and quinidine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 20 yr. old male presented after an episode where he had collapsed. This was the second time he has collapsed during the past 3 weeks. His father passed away at the age of 40 due to sudden cardiac death. Echocardiography showed evidence of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. His 24 hr ECG revealed several short runs of non sustained ventricular tachycardia (VT). Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Implantable cardiovertor defibrillator
Explanation:This patient has a high risk of sudden cardiac death due to a strong family history and non sustained VT. So the most appropriate management is implantable cardiovertor defibrillator.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competiung in an iron man triathlon. His blood results are as follows:
Na+: 122 mmol/L,
K+: 3.4 mmol/L,
Urea: 3.2 mmol/L,
Creatinine: 69 umol/l.
During assessment he becomes increasingly obtunded and goes on to have multiple tonic clonic seizures. What is the most appropriate treatment from the list below to improve his neurological status?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertonic saline
Explanation:Over consumption of fluids, prolonged race duration and inadequate training all can predispose to acute hyponatraemia.
Mild symptoms include a decreased ability to think, headaches, nausea, and an increased risk of falls. Severe symptoms include confusion, seizures, and coma. Normal serum sodium levels are 135 – 145 mEq/liter (135 – 145 mmol/L). Hyponatremia is generally defined as a serum sodium level of less than 135 mEq/L and is considered severe when the level is below 120 mEq/L.
The correct treatment to give is hypertonic saline. Decompressive craniotomy would help alleviate raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral oedema however is not an appropriate first line treatment. Demeclocycline is used for SIADH and mannitol is more likely to be used in the context of traumatic brain injury.
Hyponatremia is corrected slowly, to lessen the risk of the development of central pontine myelinolysis (CPM), a severe neurological disease involving a breakdown of the myelin sheaths covering parts of nerve cells. During treatment of hyponatremia, the serum sodium (salt level in the blood) should not rise by more than 8 mmol/L over 24 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
What is correct statement regarding pulsus alternans?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound
Explanation:Pulsus alternans is the alternation of one strong and one weak beat without a change in the cycle length. It occurs most commonly in heart failure due to increased resistance to LV ejection, as occurs in hypertension, aortic stenosis, coronary atherosclerosis, and dilated cardiomyopathy. Pulsus alternans is usually associated with an S3 gallop, which is associated with a poor prognosis. It usually disappears with treatment of the heart failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Choose the part of the antibody to which immune cells bind:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fc region
Explanation:Fc Receptors include the IgG receptors (FcγR), high-affinity IgE receptor (FcεRI), IgA and IgA/IgM receptors, and neonatal Fc receptor for IgG (FcRn). In particular, the FcγRs have been well known to play an important role in many biologic processes including those associated with the response to infection and cancer as well as in the pathogenesis of immune-mediated diseases. Fc receptors, the receptors for the Fc region of immunoglobulins, play an essential role in antibody-dependent immune responses. Fc receptors are detected on many types of hematopoietic cells including macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, and NK cells. Plasma cells produce five classes of antibodies, IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG and IgM. Fc receptors with an Ig superfamily related structure exist that correspond to each of these classes of immunoglobulins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A new study was developed to assess the benefit of omega-3 fish oils in patients with established ischaemic heart disease. The power of the study is equal to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 - probability of making a type II error
Explanation:The power of a test is defined as 1 − the probability of Type II error. The Type II error is concluding at no difference (the null is not rejected) when in fact there is a difference, and its probability is named β. Therefore, the power of a study reflects the probability of detecting a difference when this difference exists. It is also very important to medical research that studies are planned with an adequate power so that meaningful conclusions can be issued if no statistical difference has been shown between the treatments compared. More power means less risk for Type II errors and more chances to detect a difference when it exists.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 60 yr. old male patient with hypertension presented with acute onset retrosternal chest pain for 3 hours. On examination his pulse rate was 68 bpm, BP was 100/60 mmHg and JVP was seen 3mm from the sternal notch. Respiratory examination was normal. His ECG showed narrow QRS complexes, ST segment elevation of 2mm in leads II, III and aVF and a complete heart block. What is the most immediate treatment from the following answers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chewable aspirin 300 mg
Explanation:The diagnosis is inferior ST elevation myocardial infarction. As the right coronary artery supplies the SA and AV nodes and bundle of His, conduction abnormalities are more common with inferior MIs. The most immediate drug management is high dose Aspirin. Definite treatment is urgent cardiac revascularization.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 43-year-old police officer is admitted with a history of unsteadiness and slurring of speech. This has worsened over a period of three months. He complains of a tremor affecting his right hand and diplopia on right lateral gaze. He smokes 30 cigarettes a day and takes regular diclofenac for his arthritis. On examination, he is dysarthric and feels nauseated. Fundoscopy is normal, however there is marked horizontal nystagmus and evidence of a right VI nerve palsy. There also appears to be some mild facial weakness on the right side. Upon conducting Weber’s test, a louder tone is heard in the left ear. On conducting the Rinne test, both ears are normal. On examination of the upper limb, there is a right intention tremor and dysdiadochokinesis. Tone, power and reflexes are normal. On examination of the lower limb, tone, power and reflexes are normal, however he appears to walk with a broad-based gait and is leaning to the right.
Lumbar puncture:
Opening pressure 13 cm H20 (5–18)
Protein 0.67 g/l (0.15–0.45)
WCC 3 cells/ml (<5)
Red cell count (RCC) 2 cells/ml (<5)
Glucose 3.2 mmol/l (3.3–4.4)
Blood glucose 5.8 mmol/l (3.0–6.0)
Oligoclonal bands Present
Serum oligoclonal bands Present
Magnetic resonance scan shows a calcified lesion broadly attached to the petrous part of the temporal bone. In view of the above history and findings, what is the likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meningioma of the cerebellar pontine angle
Explanation:This patient has a combination of right cerebellar dysfunction with right-sided cranial nerve palsies (VI, VII, and VIII). The magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) shows a calcified meningioma within the right cerebellar pontine area, which would account for these findings. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows oligoclonal bands, however, these are matched in the serum, which reflects a systemic inflammatory response from his rheumatoid arthritis.
The MRI scan and CSF analysis would not be consistent with progressive multiple sclerosis. The progressive nature of her symptoms would be against a diagnosis of brainstem infarct, and one would expect more pyramidal signs in the peripheral nervous system.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is under treatment. The GP decides to start him on sildenafil citrate. Which of the following medications may contraindicate the use of sildenafil in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nicorandil
Explanation:The use of nitrates and nicorandil concomitantly with sildenafil citrate is contraindicated.
Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.
Contraindications
– Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil
– Hypotension
– Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)Side-effects:
Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic Neuropathy
Nasal congestion
Flushing
Gastrointestinal side-effects
Headache -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is worried she may be depressed.
On examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease and a gold-yellow ring at the periphery of the iris in both eyes. Her serum copper level is low.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease
Explanation:This patient has Wilson’s disease. They Kayser-Fleischer ring (ring that encircles the iris) is diagnostic of this. Low serum copper is seen in Wilson’s disease. With the Kayser-Fleischer ring, this makes all of the other answer choices incorrect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old boy presents with a 2 day history of colicky abdominal pain, vomiting and diarrhoea. He has been passing blood mixed with diarrhoea. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medication.
On examination he is pyrexial and clinically dehydrated. Cardiorespiratory and abdominal examinations are normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Campylobacter infection
Explanation:The patient has bloody diarrhoea that sounds like a food poisoning in the clinical scenario. Campylobacter is the most common cause of this in the United Kingdom. This is then followed by Salmonella and Shigella. The symptoms are usually self limiting. This is more likely to be bacterial from the food than a viral gastroenteritis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)