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  • Question 1 - A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a fire at home. She was transferred to the critical care unit after the wound was cleaned and dressed. She became tachycardic and hypotensive one day after skin grafts were done. She has vomited three times and blood was seen in it. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing's ulcers

      Correct Answer: Curling's ulcers

      Explanation:

      Answer: Curling’s ulcers

      Curling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The most common mode of presentation of stress ulcer is the onset of acute upper GI bleed like hematemesis or melena in a patient with the acute critical illness.

      A similar condition involving elevated intracranial pressure is known as Cushing’s ulcer. Cushing’s ulcer is a gastro-duodenal ulcer produced by elevated intracranial pressure caused by an intracranial tumour, head injury or other space-occupying lesions. The ulcer, usually single and deep, may involve the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Increased intracranial pressure may affect different areas of the hypothalamic nuclei or brainstem leading to overstimulation of the vagus nerve or paralysis of the sympathetic system. Both of these circumstances increase secretion of gastric acid and the likelihood of ulceration of gastro-duodenal mucosa.

      Mallory-Weiss syndrome is characterized by upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to longitudinal mucosal lacerations (known as Mallory-Weiss tears) at the gastroesophageal junction or gastric cardia. However, Mallory-Weiss syndrome may occur after any event that provokes a sudden rise in the intragastric pressure or gastric prolapse into the oesophagus, including antecedent transoesophageal echocardiography. Precipitating factors include retching, vomiting, straining, hiccupping, coughing, primal scream therapy, blunt abdominal trauma, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In a few cases, no apparent precipitating factor can be identified. One study reported that 25% of patients had no identifiable risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 2 - A 44 year old actor presents with an attack of mild acute pancreatitis....

    Incorrect

    • A 44 year old actor presents with an attack of mild acute pancreatitis. Imaging identifies gallstones but a normal calibre bile duct, and a peripancreatic fluid collection. Which management option would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholecystectomy once the attack has settled

      Explanation:

      Pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas with variable involvement of regional tissues or remote organ systems. Acute pancreatitis (AP) is characterized by severe pain in the upper abdomen and elevation of pancreatic enzymes in the blood. In the majority of patients,
      Biliary pancreatitis should always be treated eventually with a cholecystectomy after the process has subsided.
      Feeding should be introduced enterally as the patient’s anorexia and pain resolves.
      The use of nasogastric aspiration offers no clear advantage in patients with mild AP, but is beneficial in patients with profound pain, severe disease, paralytic ileus, and intractable vomiting.
      AP is a mild, self-limiting disease that resolves spontaneously without complications. Patients can be initiated on a low-fat diet initially and need not invariably start their dietary advancement using a clear liquid diet. Systematic reviews and meta-analyses have shown that administration of enteral nutrition may reduce mortality and infectious complications compared with parenteral nutrition. Although the ideal timing to initiate enteral feeding remains undetermined, administration within 48 hours appears to be safe and tolerated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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  • Question 3 - During an exploratory laparotomy a herniation of bowel is identified between the lateral...

    Incorrect

    • During an exploratory laparotomy a herniation of bowel is identified between the lateral edge of the rectus abdominis, the inguinal ligament and the inferior epigastric vessels. These boundaries define the hernia as being a:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      The boundaries given define the inguinal triangle which is the site for direct inguinal hernias. Indirect inguinal hernias occur lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.
      Femoral hernias protrude through the femoral ring, into the femoral canal.
      Umbilical hernias protrude through a defect in the umbilical area.
      Obturator hernias, occur through the obturator foramen. These are very rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 4 - Which of these substances is secreted by pericytes in the juxtaglomerular cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these substances is secreted by pericytes in the juxtaglomerular cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renin

      Explanation:

      The juxtaglomerular cells synthesise, store and secrete the enzyme renin in the kidney. They are specialised smooth muscle cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole that delivers blood to the glomerulus and thus play a critical role in the renin– angiotensin system and so in renal autoregulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 5 - A 20 year old lady is involved in a motor vehicle accident in...

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year old lady is involved in a motor vehicle accident in which her car crashes head on into a truck. She complains of severe chest pain and a chest x-ray performed as part of a trauma series shows widening of the mediastinum. Which of the following is the most likely injury that she has sustained?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rupture of the aorta distal to the left subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      Answer: Rupture of the aorta distal to the left subclavian artery

      Aortic rupture is typically the result of a blunt aortic injury in the context of rapid deceleration. After traumatic brain injury, blunt aortic rupture is the second leading cause of death following blunt trauma. Thus, this condition is commonly fatal as blood in the aorta is under great pressure and can quickly escape the vessel through a tear, resulting in rapid haemorrhagic shock, exsanguination, and death.
      Traumatic aortic transection or rupture is associated with a sudden and rapid deceleration of the heart and the aorta within the thoracic cavity. Anatomically, the heart and great vessels (superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, pulmonary arteries, pulmonary veins, and aorta) are mobile within the thoracic cavity and not fixed to the chest wall, unlike the descending abdominal aorta. Injury to the aorta during a sudden deceleration commonly originates near the terminal section of the aortic arch, also known as the isthmus. This portion lies just distal to the take-off of the left subclavian artery at the intersection of the mobile and fixed portions of the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 6 - A 4-year-old boy suffers 20% burns to the torso. On examination, there is...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy suffers 20% burns to the torso. On examination, there is fixed pigmentation and the affected area has a white and dry appearance. Which of the following options represents the best management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Split thickness skin graft

      Explanation:

      Burn depth is classified as first, second, third, or fourth degree, as follows:
      First-degree burns are usually red, dry, and painful. Burns initially termed first-degree are often actually superficial second-degree burns, with sloughing occurring the next day.
      Second-degree burns are often red, wet, and very painful. Their depth, ability to heal, and propensity to form hypertrophic scars vary enormously.
      Third-degree burns are generally leathery in consistency, dry, insensate, and waxy. These wounds will not heal, except by contraction and limited epithelial migration, with resulting hypertrophic and unstable cover. Burn blisters can overlie both second- and third-degree burns. The management of burn blisters remains controversial, yet intact blisters help greatly with pain control. Debride blisters if infection occurs.
      Fourth-degree burns involve underlying subcutaneous tissue, tendon, or bone. Usually, even an experienced examiner has difficulty accurately determining burn depth during an early examination. As a general rule, burn depth is underestimated upon initial examination.

      The management plan for patients with large burns that require inpatient care is usually determined by the physiology of the burn injury.
      Hospitalization is divided into 4 general phases, including (1) initial evaluation and resuscitation, (2) initial wound excision and biologic closure, (3) definitive wound closure, and (4) rehabilitation and reconstruction.

      Early excision and closure of full-thickness wounds change the natural history of burn injury, avoiding the otherwise common occurrence of wound sepsis. Wound size is the most important factor in determining the need for early operation

      Medications
      See the list below:
      – Silver sulfadiazine – Broad antibacterial spectrum; painless application
      – Aqueous 0.5% silver nitrate – Broad-spectrum coverage, including fungi; leeches electrolytes
      – Mafenide acetate – Broad antibacterial spectrum; penetrates eschar best
      – Petrolatum – Bland and nontoxic
      – Various debriding enzymes – Useful in selected partial-thickness wounds
      – Various antibiotic ointments – Useful in many superficial partial-thickness wounds
      Membranes
      See the list below:
      – Porcine xenograft – Adheres to wound coagulum and provides excellent pain control
      – Split-thickness allograft – Vascularizes and provides durable temporary closure of wounds
      – Various hydrocolloid dressings – Provide vapour and bacteria barrier while absorbing wound exudate
      – Various impregnated gauzes – Provide vapour and bacteria barrier while allowing drainage
      – Various semipermeable membranes – Provide vapour and bacteria barrier
      – Acticoat (Westhaim Biomedical, Saskatchewan, Canada) – Nonadherent wound dressing that delivers a low concentration of silver for antisepsis
      – Biobrane (Dow-Hickman, Sugarland, Tex) – Synthetic bilaminate that facilitates fibrovascular tissue growth into the inner layer and provides temporary vapour and bacteria barrier
      – Transcyte (Smith and Nephew, Largo, Fla) – Synthetic bilaminate that facilitates fibrovascular tissue growth into the inner layer populated with allogenic fibroblasts and overlying layer that provides temporary vapour and bacteria barrier
      – AlloDerm R – Consists of cell-free allogenic human dermis; requires an immediate thin overlying autograft
      – Integra R – Provides scaffold for neodermis; requires delayed thin autograft

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
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  • Question 7 - An 11 year old boy is referred to the clinic with pain in...

    Incorrect

    • An 11 year old boy is referred to the clinic with pain in the left knee. He has been experiencing the pain for the past four months and it usually lasts for a few hours. He is seen to be walking with an antalgic gait and has apparent left leg shortening. The left knee is normal but the left hip reveals pain on internal and external rotation. Flattening of the femoral head is shown on imaging. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perthes disease

      Explanation:

      Answer: Perthes disease

      Perthes’ disease is a condition affecting the hip joint in children. It is rare (1 in 9,000 children are affected) and we do not clearly understand why it occurs.

      Part or all of the femoral head (top of the thigh bone: the ball part of the ball-and-socket hip joint) loses its blood supply and may become misshapen. This may lead to arthritis of the hip in later years.

      The earliest sign of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (LCPD) is an intermittent limp (abductor lurch), especially after exertion, with mild or intermittent pain in the anterior part of the thigh. LCPD is the most common cause of a limp in the 4- to 10-year-old age group, and the classic presentation has been described as a painless limp.
      The patient may present with limited range of motion of the affected extremity. The most common symptom is persistent pain.

      Hip pain may develop and is a result of necrosis of the involved bone. This pain may be referred to the medial aspect of the ipsilateral knee or to the lateral thigh. The quadriceps muscles and adjacent thigh soft tissues may atrophy, and the hip may develop adduction flexion contracture. The patient may have an antalgic gait with limited hip motion.
      Early radiographic changes may reveal only a nonspecific effusion of the joint associated with slight widening of the joint space, metaphyseal demineralization (decreased bone density around the joint), and periarticular swelling (bulging capsule). This is the acute phase, and it may last 1-2 weeks. Decreasing bone density in and around the joint is noted after a few weeks. Eventually, the disease may progress to collapse of the femoral head, increase in the width of the neck, and demineralization of the femoral head. The final shape of this area depends on the extent of necrosis and the degree of collapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old male presents with a lump in his scalp. It is located...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents with a lump in his scalp. It is located approximately 4cm superior to the external occipital protuberance. It feels smooth and slightly fluctuant and has a centrally located small epithelial defect. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sebaceous cyst

      Explanation:

      Epidermoid cysts represent the most common cutaneous cysts. While they may occur anywhere on the body, they occur most frequently on the face, scalp, neck, and trunk.
      Because most lesions originate from the follicular infundibulum, the more general term epidermoid cyst is favoured. The term sebaceous cyst should be avoided because it implies that the cyst is of sebaceous origin.
      Epidermoid cysts are usually asymptomatic. Discharge of a foul-smelling “cheese like” material may be described. Less frequently, the cysts can become inflamed or infected, resulting in pain and tenderness. In the uncommon event of malignancy, rapid growth, friability, and bleeding may be reported.
      Epidermoid cysts appear as flesh–coloured-to-yellowish, firm, round nodules of variable size. A central pore or punctum may be present.
      Certain hereditary syndromes are associated with epidermoid cysts. Such syndromes include Gardner syndrome, basal cell nevus syndrome, and pachyonychia congenita. In addition, idiopathic scrotal calcinosis may actually represent an end-stage of dystrophic calcification of epidermoid cysts.
      Epidermoid cysts may be removed via simple excision or incision with removal of the cyst and cyst wall through the surgical defect. If the entire cyst wall is not removed, the lesion may recur. Excision with punch biopsy technique may be used if the size of the lesion permits. Minimal-incision surgery, with reduced scarring, has been reported. An intraoral approach has been used to minimize facial scarring.
      Incision and drainage may be performed if a cyst is inflamed. Injection of triamcinolone into the tissue surrounding the inflamed cyst results in a faster improvement in symptoms. This may facilitate the clearing of infection; however, it does not eradicate the cyst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Skin Lesions
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  • Question 9 - A 34-year-old woman has been suffering from headaches, fever, vomiting, and confusion for...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman has been suffering from headaches, fever, vomiting, and confusion for the last 5 days. A CT scan reveals an oedematous mass with ring enhancement in the left temporal region. It is biopsied, revealing glial cells, necrosis, neutrophils and lymphocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral abscess

      Explanation:

      A cerebral abscess can result from direct extension of cranial infections, penetrating head trauma, haematogenous spread, or for unknown causes. An abscess forms when an area of cerebral inflammation becomes necrotic and encapsulated by glial cells and fibroblasts. Oedema around the abscess can increase the intracranial pressure. Symptoms result from increased intracranial pressure and mass effects. It is most frequent in the third decade of life, and when it occurs in children, it is usually associated with congenital heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 10 - A 24-year old patient diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia was scheduled for...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year old patient diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia was scheduled for surgery to have the hernia repaired. The hernia was discovered to be protruding through the Hesselbach's triangle (inguinal triangle). Which of the following blood vessels that is a branch of the external iliac artery forms the lateral border of this triangle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric

      Explanation:

      The inguinal triangle is formed by the following structures; inguinal ligament at the base; inferior epigastric vessels laterally and the lateral border of the rectus sheath medially. This triangle (also known as Hesselebach’s triangle) is where direct inguinal hernias protrude. The inferior epigastric artery is this the branch of the external iliac artery being referred to. All the other blood vessels are branches of the internal iliac artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 11 - To reach the oral vestibule, the parotid duct must pierce this muscle: ...

    Incorrect

    • To reach the oral vestibule, the parotid duct must pierce this muscle:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buccinator muscle

      Explanation:

      The parotid duct or Stensen duct is a duct and the route that saliva takes from the major salivary gland, the parotid gland into the mouth. The parotid duct is formed when several interlobular ducts—the largest ducts inside the parotid gland join. It emerges from the gland and runs forward along the lateral side of the masseter muscle. In this course, the duct is surrounded by the buccal fat pad. It takes a steep turn at the border of the masseter and passes through the buccinator muscle, opening into the vestibule of the mouth, between the cheek and the gums, at the parotid papilla, which lies across the second superior molar tooth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 12 - A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in the middle of the posterior aspect of the left thigh, was discharged from hospital after dressing and antibiotic prophylaxis. Later on the patient developed bleeding through the wound and upon review, the source was discovered to be an artery that is the direct source of the medial and lateral circumflex arteries. Which is this artery that was injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Profunda femoris artery

      Explanation:

      The medial and lateral circumflex arteries are direct branches of the Profunda femoris artery otherwise also known as the deep artery of the thigh. The Profunda femoris artery arises from the femoral artery just below the inguinal ligament (approximately 2-5cm below it).
      The following are the branches of the deep artery of the thigh:
      Lateral circumflex femoral artery
      Medial circumflex femoral artery
      Perforating arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 13 - During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: +10 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      To determine compliance of the respiratory system, changes in transmural pressures (in and out) immediately across the lung or chest cage (or both) are measured simultaneously with changes in lung or thoracic cavity volume. Changes in lung or thoracic cage volume are determined using a spirometer with transmural pressures measured by pressure transducers. For the lung alone, transmural pressure is calculated as the difference between alveolar (pA; inside) and intrapleural (ppl; outside) pressure. To calculate chest cage compliance, transmural pressure is ppl (inside) minus atmospheric pressure (pB; outside). For the combined lung–chest cage, transmural pressure or transpulmonary pressure is computed as pA – pB. pA pressure is determined by having the subject deeply inhale a measured volume of air from a spirometer. Under physiological conditions the transpulmonary or recoil pressure is always positive; intrapleural pressure is always negative and relatively large, while alveolar pressure moves from slightly negative to slightly positive as a person breathes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 14 - A 23-year-old female with a history of bilateral vitreous haemorrhage is referred with...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female with a history of bilateral vitreous haemorrhage is referred with bilateral lesions in the cerebellar region. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

      Explanation:

      von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) disease, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, is a rare genetic disorder characterized by visceral cysts and benign tumours in multiple organ systems that have a subsequent potential for malignant change.
      Clinical hallmarks of VHL disease include the development of retinal and central nervous system (CNS) hemangioblastomas (blood vessel tumours), pheochromocytomas, multiple cysts in the pancreas and kidneys, and an increased risk for malignant transformation of renal cysts into renal cell carcinoma. The wide age range and the pleiotropic manner in which VHL disease presents complicates diagnosis and treatment in affected individuals, as well as their at-risk relatives.

      Because VHL disease is a multiple-organ disease that widely varies in clinical presentation, various manifestations may lead to the diagnosis. Criteria are the following:
      More than one hemangioblastoma in the CNS (brain, spinal cord) or eye
      A single hemangioblastoma in the CNS or retina, plus a visceral manifestation (multiple renal, pancreatic, or hepatic cysts; pheochromocytoma; renal cancer)
      Positive family history plus any one of the above clinical manifestations
      Elucidation of a deleterious mutation in the VHL gene

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
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  • Question 15 - When conducting an exploratory laparotomy procedure of a patient diagnosed with a bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • When conducting an exploratory laparotomy procedure of a patient diagnosed with a bleeding ulcer of the lesser curvature of the stomach, which artery in this patient are you most likely to ligate to control the bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left gastric

      Explanation:

      The lesser curvature of the stomach is supplied by the left gastric artery along with the right gastric artery. These two arteries are the ones to most likely be ligated if bleeding was to be stopped at the lesser curvature of the stomach. The splenic artery branches from the celiac branch and supplies the spleen. The left gastro-omental, the right and left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 16 - A 2-day old baby develops dyspnoea. A chest x-ray is performed and shows...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day old baby develops dyspnoea. A chest x-ray is performed and shows a radio-opaque shadow with an air-fluid level in the chest. It is located immediately anterior to the 6th hemivertebra. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchogenic cyst

      Explanation:

      Bronchogenic cysts, although relatively rare, represent the most common cystic lesion of the mediastinum.
      Bronchogenic cysts are the result of anomalous development of the ventral foregut; they are usually single but may be multiple and can be filled with fluid or mucus. They have been found all along the tracheoesophageal course, in perihilar or intraparenchymal sites, with a predilection for the area around the carina. Those in the mediastinum frequently attach to but do not communicate with the tracheobronchial tree. Bronchogenic cysts have also been described in more remote locations, including the interatrial septum, neck, abdomen, and retroperitoneal space.
      With the advent of improved antenatal diagnosis, many infants are identified before the development of symptoms:
      Chest pain and dysphagia are the most common symptoms in adults with bronchogenic cysts.
      Recurrent infections may be the clinical presentation in some children
      In infants, symptoms are most often produced as a result of airway or oesophageal compression.

      Oesophageal duplication cysts are rare inherited lesions usually diagnosed in early childhood. Most of them are found in the mediastinum and manifest themselves as separate masses along or in continuity with the native oesophagus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 17 - A 14-year old girl presented with a 2cm, mobile, cystic mass in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year old girl presented with a 2cm, mobile, cystic mass in the midline of her neck. Fine needle aspiration of the mass revealed clear fluid. This is most likely a case of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroglossal duct cyst

      Explanation:

      Thyroglossal cyst is the most common congenital thyroid anomaly which is clinically significant and affects women more than men. It is a vestigial remnant of developing thyroid. Although the thyroglossal cyst can develop anywhere along the thyroglossal duct, the most common site is in the midline between the isthmus of thyroid and hyoid bone, or just above the hyoid. Thyroglossal cysts are also associated with ectopic thyroid tissue. Clinically, the cyst moves upward with protrusion of the tongue. Rarely, the persistent duct can become malignant (thyroglossal duct carcinoma) where the cancerous cells arise in the ectopic thyroid tissue that are deposited along the duct. Exposure to radiation is a predisposing factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 18 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with symptoms of urinary hesitancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with symptoms of urinary hesitancy and poor stream. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valves

      Explanation:

      In children, more common causes of Urinary tract obstruction include the following:
      UPJ or UVJ obstruction
      Ectopic ureter
      Ureterocoele
      Megaureter
      Posterior urethral valves

      Posterior urethral valves:

      During the early stages of embryogenesis, the most caudal end of the wolffian duct is absorbed into the primitive cloaca at the site of the future verumontanum in the posterior urethra. In healthy males, the remnants of this process are the posterior urethral folds, called plicae colliculi. Histologic studies suggest that PUVs are formed at approximately 4 weeks’ gestation, as the wolffian duct fuses with the developing cloaca.
      Congenital obstructing posterior urethral membrane (COPUM) was first proposed by Dewan and Goh and was later supported by histologic studies by Baskin. This concept proposes that instead of a true valve, a persistent oblique membrane is ruptured by initial catheter placement and, secondary to rupture, forms a valve like configuration.
      Indicators of possible PUVs later in childhood include the following:
      Urinary tract infection (UTI)
      Diurnal enuresis in boys older than 5 years
      Secondary diurnal enuresis
      Voiding pain or dysfunction
      Abnormal urinary stream

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 19 - In which of the following conditions will the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve shift to...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following conditions will the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve shift to the right?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve plots saturated haemoglobin against the oxygen tension and is usually a sigmoid plot. Each molecule of haemoglobin can bind to four molecules of oxygen reversibly. Factors that can influence the binding include: pH, concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG), temperature, type of haemoglobin molecules, and presence of toxins, especially carbon monoxide. Shape of the curve is due to interaction of bound oxygen molecules with the incoming molecules. The binding of first molecule is difficult, with easier binding of the second and third molecule and increase in difficulty with the fourth molecule – partly as a result of crowding and partly as a natural tendency of oxygen to dissociate. Left shift of curve indicates haemoglobin’s increased affinity for oxygen (seen at lungs). Right shift indicates decreased affinity and is seen with
      increase in body temperature, hydrogen ions, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (DPG), carbon dioxide concentration and exercise. Under normal resting conditions in a healthy individual, the normal position of the curve is at a pH of 7.4. A shift in the position of the curve with a change in pH is called the Bohr effect. Left shift occurs in acute alkalosis, decrease in p(CO2), decrease in temperature and decrease in 2,3-DPG. The fetal haemoglobin curve is to the left of the adult haemoglobin to allow for oxygen diffusion across the placenta. The curve for myoglobin is even further to the left. Carbon monoxide has a much higher affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen does. Thus, carbon monoxide poisoning leads to hypoxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 20 - A 28 years old women presents with a history of chronic cough with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 years old women presents with a history of chronic cough with fever for the past 2 months. A chest x ray revealed a diffuse bilateral reticulonodular pattern. A transbronchial biopsy was performed and histological examination showed focal areas of inflammation with epithelioid macrophages, Langhans cells and lymphocytes. Which of the immune reaction is responsible for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      A reactivated tuberculosis with granuloma formation is characteristic of type IV reaction. It is also called a delayed type of hypersensitivity reaction and takes around 2-8 days to deliver. It is a cell mediated response with the involvement of CD8 and CD4 cells and the release of IL-1 from macrophages that further activate these CD cells.
      Granulomatous reactions are mostly cell-mediated.
      Type I reactions are allergic and anaphylactic reactions and type II are complement-mediated immune reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 21 - When at rest, which of the following will be higher in a marathon...

    Incorrect

    • When at rest, which of the following will be higher in a marathon runner compared to an untrained individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac muscle hypertrophy is seen in trained athletes as compared to the normal population. This hypertrophy results in higher stroke volume at rest and increased cardiac reserve (maximum cardiac output during exercise). However, the cardiac output at rest is almost the same in both trained and untrained people. This is because in trained athletes, the heart rate is slower, even up to 40-50 beats/min. There is minimal affect of athletic training on oxygen consumption and respiratory rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 22 - A 58-year-old woman diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis had been using warfarin for...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis had been using warfarin for 10 days. When she presented to the doctor she had haemorrhagic bullae and necrotic lesions in her lower limbs and buttocks. Deficiency of which of the following proteins may have caused the necrotic skin lesions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protein C

      Explanation:

      Warfarin-induced skin necrosis is a rare complication of anticoagulant therapy that requires immediate drug cessation. The most common cutaneous findings include petechiae that progress to ecchymoses and haemorrhagic bullae. Warfarin inactivates vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and vitamin K-dependent proteins C and S. The concentration of protein C falls more rapidly than other vitamin K-dependent factors because they have a shorter half-lives. Skin necrosis is seen mainly in patients with prior protein C deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 23 - The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing...

    Incorrect

    • The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing an indirect inguinal hernia in a female patient. Which structure could this be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The main structure traversing the inguinal canal in women is the round ligament. In men, it is the spermatic cord.
      The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the abdominal wall and runs between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles before piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to run between the internal and external obliques.
      The inferior epigastric artery is between the peritoneum and the transversus abdominis creating the lateral umbilical fold.
      The ovarian artery and the ovarian vein are branches from the descending aorta and inferior vena cava that supply the ovary in the pelvic cavity.
      The pectineal ligament is a thick fascial layer over the pectineal line of the pubis. It doesn’t traverse the canal.
      The broad ligament if found on the lateral sides of the uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 24 - A young girl who presented with a clinical picture of type I hypersensitivity...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl who presented with a clinical picture of type I hypersensitivity reaction with eosinophilia is most likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver flukes

      Explanation:

      Usually a parasitic infection will be associated with a type I hypersensitivity reaction.
      Amyloid deposition will not cause an immune reaction.
      Organic dust will lead to a type III hypersensitivity reaction.
      Cell mediated as well as humoral immune mechanism play a part in syphilis, but they are do not specifically cause a type I reaction.
      Malaria is cause by plasmodium and is not cause of a hypersensitivity reaction.
      Atopic dermatitis will not be accompanied by eosinophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 25 - When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must...

    Incorrect

    • When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must identify the second costal cartilage by palpating which landmark?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sternal angle

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle is the site for identification of the second rib as the second rib is attached to the sternum at this point.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 26 - A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which...

    Incorrect

    • A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perineum

      Explanation:

      Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 27 - A 21-year-old woman presents with an episode of greenish discharge from the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with an episode of greenish discharge from the left nipple. Clinical examination of the breast is normal. Her breast USS report is U1 (normal).

      What should be the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and discharge

      Explanation:

      This is likely to be a case of simple duct ectasia. Normal USS report coupled with normal examination would favour discharge from the clinic. Mammography is generally not helpful in this age group.

      Possible causes of nipple discharge include:
      1. Abscess
      2. Birth control pills
      3. Breast cancer
      4. Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
      5. Endocrine disorders
      6. Excessive breast stimulation
      7. Fibrocystic breasts (lumpy or rope-like breast tissue)
      8. Galactorrhoea
      9. Injury or trauma to the breast
      10. Intraductal papilloma (benign, wart-like growth in a milk duct)
      11. Mammary duct ectasia
      12. Mastitis (an infection in breast tissue that most commonly affects women who are breast-feeding)
      13. Medication use
      14. Menstrual cycle hormone changes
      15. Paget’s disease of the breast
      16. Periductal mastitis
      17. Pregnancy and breast-feeding
      18. Prolactinoma

      Assessment and management of non-malignant nipple discharge includes:
      1. Exclude endocrine disease
      2. Nipple cytology is not carried out as it would be unhelpful
      3. Smoking cessation advice given for duct ectasia
      4. Total duct excision may be warranted for duct ectasia with severe symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has the femoral nerve lying lateral to it

      Explanation:

      The femoral artery begins immediately behind the inguinal ligament, midway between the anterior superior spine of the ilium and the symphysis pubis. The first 4 cm of the vessel is enclosed, together with the femoral vein, in a fibrous sheath (the femoral sheath). The femoral nerve lies lateral to this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 29 - Which type of thyroid tumour represents 75 - 80% of thyroid cancer cases?...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of thyroid tumour represents 75 - 80% of thyroid cancer cases? This type is predominant in children and in patients who have had a previous history of head or neck radiation.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Papillary carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common thyroid cancer. This cancer has a high cure rate with 10-year survival rates for all patients with papillary thyroid cancer estimated at 80% to 90%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old male presents with an ulcerated mass at the anal verge. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents with an ulcerated mass at the anal verge. A biopsy is taken and the histology demonstrates as squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following viral infection is most likely to have contributed to the development of the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus 16

      Explanation:

      Anal squamous cell cancer is believed to be directly linked to the presence of a complex inflammatory process most commonly caused by HPV infection (particularly with serotypes 16 and 18) in the histologically unique area of the anal squamocolumnar epithelium. In one Scandinavian study, serotype 16 HPV DNA was detected in 73% of anal cancer specimens, and serotype 16, 18, or both were detected in 84% of specimens. In contrast, no rectal cancer specimens contained HPV DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 31 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a motorcycle accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a motorcycle accident. He sustained a closed, unstable spiral tibial fracture and has been managed with an intramedullary nail. However, after being transferred to the ward, he is noted to have increasing pain in the affected limb. On examination, the limb is swollen and tender with pain felt on passive stretching of the toes.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compartment syndrome

      Explanation:

      Severe pain in the limb following fixation with intramedullary devices should raise suspicion of compartment syndrome, especially in tibial fractures.

      Compartment syndrome is a particular complication that may occur following fractures, especially supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries. It is characterised by raised pressure within a closed anatomical space which may, eventually, compromise tissue perfusion, resulting in necrosis.

      The clinical features of compartment syndrome include:
      1. Pain, especially on movement
      2. Paraesthesia
      3. Pallor
      4. Paralysis of the muscle group may also occur

      Diagnosis is made by measurement of intracompartmental pressure. Pressures >20mmHg are abnormal and >40mmHg are diagnostic.

      Compartment syndrome requires prompt and extensive fasciotomy. Myoglobinuria may occur following fasciotomy, resulting in renal failure. Therefore, aggressive IV fluids are required. If muscle groups are frankly necrotic at fasciotomy, they should be debrided, and amputation may have to be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 32 - A 3 year old girl is taken to the clinic with a 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old girl is taken to the clinic with a 3 day history of feeling unwell and having a sore throat. When examined by the doctor, marked cervical lymphadenopathy is observed and the oropharynx is covered with a thick grey membrane which bleeds following attempted removal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      Diphtheria is an infection caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Signs and symptoms may vary from mild to severe. They usually start two to five days after exposure. Symptoms often come on fairly gradually, beginning with a sore throat and fever. In severe cases, a grey or white patch develops in the throat. This can block the airway and create a barking cough as in croup. The neck may swell in part due to enlarged lymph nodes.

      The disease may remain manageable, but in more severe cases, lymph nodes in the neck may swell, and breathing and swallowing are more difficult. People in this stage should seek immediate medical attention, as obstruction in the throat may require intubation or a tracheotomy. Abnormal cardiac rhythms can occur early in the course of the illness or weeks later, and can lead to heart failure. Diphtheria can also cause paralysis in the eye, neck, throat, or respiratory muscles. Patients with severe cases are put in a hospital intensive care unit and given a diphtheria antitoxin (consisting of antibodies isolated from the serum of horses that have been challenged with diphtheria toxin). Since antitoxin does not neutralize toxin that is already bound to tissues, delaying its administration increases risk of death. Therefore, the decision to administer diphtheria antitoxin is based on clinical diagnosis, and should not await laboratory confirmation.
      Antibiotics are used in patients or carriers to eradicate C. diphtheriae and prevent its transmission to others. The Centres for Disease Control and Prevention recommends either:
      Metronidazole
      Erythromycin is given (orally or by injection) for 14 days (40 mg/kg per day with a maximum of 2 g/d), or
      Procaine penicillin G is given intramuscularly for 14 days (300,000 U/d for patients weighing <10 kg and 600,000 U/d for those weighing >10 kg); patients with allergies to penicillin G or erythromycin can use Rifampicin or clindamycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      0
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  • Question 33 - Regarding the extensor retinaculum of the wrist, which of these is CORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the extensor retinaculum of the wrist, which of these is CORRECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It prevents the tendons of the posterior compartment of the forearm from ‘bowstringing’ when the hand is extended at the wrist

      Explanation:

      This extensor retinaculum, as the name indicates, holds the tendons of the extensors against the dorsal surface of the distal radius and ulna. Therefore, the correct answer is that it prevents bowstringing of the extensor tendons with wrist extension. It forms compartments between it and its bony attachment, and these compartments guide and hold the tendons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 34 - A 41 year old librarian undergoes a gastric bypass surgery and she returns...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old librarian undergoes a gastric bypass surgery and she returns to the clinic complaining that she develops vertigo and crampy abdominal pain after eating. Which of the following is the underlying cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dumping syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dumping syndrome is the effect of altered gastric reservoir function, abnormal postoperative gastric motor function, and/or pyloric emptying mechanism. Clinically significant dumping syndrome occurs in approximately 10% of patients after any type of gastric surgery and in up to 50% of patients after laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. Dumping syndrome has characteristic alimentary and systemic manifestations. It is a frequent complication observed after a variety of gastric surgical procedures, such as vagotomy, pyloroplasty, gastrojejunostomy, and laparoscopic Nissan fundoplication. Dumping syndrome can be separated into early and late forms, depending on the occurrence of symptoms in relation to the time elapsed after a meal.
      Postprandially, the function of the body of the stomach is to store food and to allow the initial chemical digestion by acid and proteases before transferring food to the gastric antrum. In the antrum, high-amplitude contractions triturate the solids, reducing the particle size to 1-2 mm. Once solids have been reduced to this desired size, they are able to pass through the pylorus. An intact pylorus prevents the passage of larger particles into the duodenum. Gastric emptying is controlled by the fundic tone, antropyloric mechanisms, and duodenal feedback. Gastric surgery alters each of these mechanisms in several ways.

      The late dumping syndrome is suspected in the person who has symptoms of hypoglycaemia in the setting of previous gastric surgery, and this late dumping can be proven with an oral glucose tolerance test (hyperinsulinemic hypoglycaemia), as well as gastric emptying scintigraphy, which shows the abnormal pattern of initially delayed and then accelerated gastric emptying.

      The clinical presentation of dumping syndrome can be divided into GI symptoms and vasomotor symptoms. GI symptoms include early satiety, crampy abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and explosive diarrhoea. Vasomotor symptoms include diaphoresis, flushing, dizziness, palpitations, and an intense desire to lie down.

      The expression of these symptoms varies in different individuals. Most patients with early dumping have both GI and vasomotor symptoms, while patients with late dumping have mostly vasomotor symptoms. Patients with severe dumping often limit their food intake to avoid symptoms. This leads to weight loss and, over time, malnutrition.

      Early dumping syndrome generally occurs within 15 minutes of ingesting a meal and is attributable to the rapid transit of food into the small intestine, whereas late dumping syndrome occurs later and may be attributed to hypoglycaemia with tremors, cold sweats, difficulty in concentrating, and loss of consciousness.

      Early dumping systemic symptoms are as follows:
      Desire to lie down
      Palpitations
      Fatigue
      Faintness
      Syncope
      Diaphoresis
      Headache
      Flushing

      Early dumping abdominal symptoms are as follows:
      Epigastric fullness
      Diarrhoea
      Nausea
      Abdominal cramps
      Borborygmi

      Late dumping symptoms are as follows:
      Perspiration
      Shakiness
      Difficulty to concentrate
      Decreased consciousness
      Hunger

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
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  • Question 35 - Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of...

    Incorrect

    • Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Outer membrane

      Explanation:

      The reason bacteria are either Gram-positive or Gram-negative is due to the structure of their cell envelope (the cell envelope is defined as the cell membrane and cell wall plus an outer membrane, if one is present.) Gram-positive bacteria, for example, retain the crystal violet due to the amount of peptidoglycan in the cell wall. It can be said therefore that the Gram-stain procedure separates bacteria into two broad categories based on structural differences in the cell envelope.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 36 - A 1 year old baby is taken to the A&E with colicky abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 year old baby is taken to the A&E with colicky abdominal pain and an ileo-ileal intussusception is found on investigation. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Undertake a laparotomy

      Explanation:

      Answer: Undertake a laparotomy

      Intussusception, which is defined as the telescoping or invagination of a proximal portion of intestine (intussusceptum) into a more distal portion (intussuscipiens), is one of the most common causes of bowel obstruction in infants and toddlers.
      Intussusception may be ileoileal, colocolic, ileoileocolic, or ileocolic (the most common type).
      Most infants with intussusception have a history of intermittent severe cramping
      or colicky abdominal pain, occurring every 5-30 minutes. During these attacks, the infant screams and flexes at the waist, draws the legs up to the abdomen, and may appear pale. These episodes may last for only a few seconds and are separated by periods of calm normal appearance and activity. However, some infants become quite lethargic and somnolent between attacks.
      Infants with intussusception require surgical correction. Prompt laparotomy following diagnosis is crucial for achieving better outcomes. Primary anastomosis can be performed successfully, and stomas can be created in the critically ill patients or those with late detection and septicaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 37 - A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left leg. He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract is a sensory pathway originating in the spinal cord that transmits information to the thalamus. There are two main parts of the spinothalamic tract: the lateral spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature and the anterior spinothalamic tract transmits touch (crude touch). The decussation of this pathway occurs at the level of the spinal cord. Hence, a unilateral lesion of the lateral spinothalamic tract causes contralateral loss of pain and temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 38 - A 39-year-old woman is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains a...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains a significant laceration to the lateral aspect of the nose, associated with tissue loss.

      What should be the best management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rotational skin flap

      Explanation:

      Nasal injuries can be challenging to manage and where there is tissue loss, it can be difficult to primarily close them and obtain a satisfactory aesthetic result. Debridement together with a rotational skin flap would produce the best results.

      A rotation flap is a semi-circular skin flap that is rotated into the defect on a fulcrum point. It provides the ability to mobilize large areas of tissue with a wide vascular base for reconstruction. Rotation flaps may be pedicled or free. Pedicled flaps are more reliable but are limited in the range of movement. Free flaps have increased range but carry greater risk of breakdown as they require vascular anastomosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 39 - A patient who complained of pain on the lower left side of the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who complained of pain on the lower left side of the back had an x-ray done which confirmed a hernia passing posterolaterally, just superior to the iliac crest. Where is this hernia passing through?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar triangle

      Explanation:

      The lumber triangle is bound medially by the border of the latissimus dorsi, laterally by the external abdominal oblique and by the iliac crest inferiorly. This is exactly where the hernia that is described is located.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 40 - A 24-year-old man presents with a six-day history of bloody diarrhoea along with...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man presents with a six-day history of bloody diarrhoea along with passage of mucus. He has been defecating about eight to nine times per day. Digital rectal examination is carried out in which no discrete abnormality is felt. However, some blood-stained mucus is seen on the glove.

      What could be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Passage of bloody diarrhoea together with mucus and a short history makes this a likely presentation of inflammatory bowel disease. Rectal malignancy in a young age would be a very unlikely event. Furthermore, the history is too short to be consistent with solitary rectal ulcer syndrome.

      Rectal bleeding is a common cause for patients to be referred to the surgical clinic. In the clinical history, it is important to try and localise the anatomical source of the bleeding. Bright red blood is usually of rectal origin, whereas, dark red blood is more suggestive of a proximally located bleeding source. Blood which has entered the gastrointestinal tract from a gastroduodenal source will typically resemble melaena due to the effects of the digestive enzymes on the blood itself.

      PR bleeding in ulcerative colitis (UC) is usually bright red and often mixed with stool. It is mostly associated with the passage of mucus as well. Other clinical features reported on history include diarrhoea, weight loss, and nocturnal incontinence. Proctitis is the most marked finding on examination and perianal disease is usually absent. Colonoscopy is carried out which shows continuous mucosal lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
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  • Question 41 - A 21-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and severe abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and severe abdominal pain for the past 18 hours. He was asymptomatic before that.

      Which of the following is the likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni infection

      Explanation:

      Severe abdominal pain tends to favour infection with Campylobacter jejuni.

      Infection with Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common causes of gastroenteritis worldwide. In developed countries, the incidence of Campylobacter jejuni infections peaks during infancy and, again, during early adulthood. Most infections are acquired by the consumption and handling of poultry. A typical case is characterized by diarrhoea, fever, and severe abdominal cramps. Obtaining cultures of the organism from stool samples remains the best way to diagnose this infection. Complications of C. jejuni infections are rare, and most patients do not require antibiotics. Careful food preparation and cooking practices may prevent some Campylobacter infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
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  • Question 42 - A patient is brought to the accident and emergency department. He is said...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is brought to the accident and emergency department. He is said to have been involved in a mall explosion. Chest imaging reveals metal fragments in his thoracic cavity. He also has a pericardial effusion suggestive of a pericardial tear. An emergency thoracotomy is done which revealed a tear of the pericardium inferiorly. The surgeon began to explore for fragments in the pericardial sac with his hand from below the apex. He slips his fingers upward and to the right within the sac until they were stopped by the cul-de-sac formed by the pericardial reflection near the base of the heart. His finger tips were now in the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.
      Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this sinus.
      Coronary sinus: large vein that drains the heart into the right atrium. Located on the surface of the heart.
      Coronary sulcus: groove on the heart demarcating the atria from the ventricles.
      Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.
      Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 43 - A 56-year-old woman complains of back pain, muscle spasms, weakness, and a burning...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman complains of back pain, muscle spasms, weakness, and a burning sensation that radiates from her left hip to her toes. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herniated nucleus pulposus

      Explanation:

      A herniated disk will produce sensory disturbances, causing pain that radiates along the course of the sciatic nerve which is typically burning or stabbing, with or without back pain. The herniation is usually caused by age-related degeneration although trauma, injuries, or straining may also trigger it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 44 - The gastrosplenic ligament also known as the gastrolienal ligament is the structure that...

    Incorrect

    • The gastrosplenic ligament also known as the gastrolienal ligament is the structure that connects the greater curvature of the stomach to the hilum of the spleen. Which of the following arteries would most likely be injured if a surgeon accidentally tore this ligament?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short gastric

      Explanation:

      The short gastric arteries arise from the end of the splenic arteries and form five to seven branches. The short gastric arteries inside the gastrosplenic ligament from the left to the right, supply the greater curvature of the stomach. The hepatic artery proper runs inside the hepatoduodenal ligament. The right gastric artery and the left gastric artery are contained in the hepatogastric ligament. The caudal pancreatic artery branches off from the splenic artery and supplies the tail of the pancreas. The middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon. The splenic artery does not travel in the gastrosplenic ligament and so it would not be damaged by a tear to this ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 45 - Difficulty in retracting the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male is...

    Incorrect

    • Difficulty in retracting the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male is known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phimosis

      Explanation:

      Phimosis is the inability to fully retract the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male. It can be physiological in infancy, in which it could be referred to as ‘developmental non-retractility of the foreskin. However, it is almost always pathological in older children and men. Causes include chronic inflammation (e.g. balanoposthitis), multiple catheterisations, or forceful foreskin retraction. One of the causes is chronic balanitis xerotica obliterans. It leads to development of a ring of indurated tissue near the tip of the prepuce, which prevents retraction. Contributory factors include infections, hormonal and inflammatory factors. The recommended treatment includes circumcision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 46 - Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which...

    Incorrect

    • Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which of the following sites?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sacrococcygeal area

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. It is derived from all three cell layers. The most common location of teratoma in new-born infants is in the sacrococcygeal area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 47 - A 6 week old baby who is developing well starts having profuse and...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 week old baby who is developing well starts having profuse and projectile vomiting after feeding. She has been losing weight and the vomit is non-bilious. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter

      Explanation:

      Pyloric stenosis is a narrowing of the opening from the stomach to the first part of the small intestine (the pylorus). Symptoms include projectile vomiting without the presence of bile. This most often occurs after the baby is fed. The typical age that symptoms become obvious is two to twelve weeks old.

      The cause of pyloric stenosis is unclear. Risk factors in babies include birth by caesarean section, preterm birth, bottle feeding, and being first born. The diagnosis may be made by feeling an olive-shaped mass in the baby’s abdomen. This is often confirmed with ultrasound. It is four times more likely to occur in males, and is also more common in the first born. Rarely, infantile pyloric stenosis can occur as an autosomal dominant condition.

      It is uncertain whether it is a congenital anatomic narrowing or a functional hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter muscle.
      Babies with this condition usually present any time in the first weeks to months of life with progressively worsening vomiting. The vomiting is often described as non-bile stained (non bilious) and projectile vomiting, because it is more forceful than the usual spitting up (gastroesophageal reflux) seen at this age. Some infants present with poor feeding and weight loss but others demonstrate normal weight gain. Dehydration may occur which causes a baby to cry without having tears and to produce less wet or dirty diapers due to not urinating for hours or for a few days. Symptoms usually begin between 3 to 12 weeks of age. Findings include epigastric fullness with visible peristalsis in the upper abdomen from the person’s left to right. Constant hunger, belching, and colic are other possible signs that the baby is unable to eat properly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 48 - A 64 year old man who sustained an iatrogenic injury to both the...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old man who sustained an iatrogenic injury to both the ureters after undergoing a subtotal colectomy, develops renal failure. Labs show an elevated serum potassium level of 6.9 mmol/L. The ECG is most likely to show which of the following abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Early ECG changes of hyperkalaemia, typically seen at a serum potassium levels of 5.5-6.5 mEq/L, include the following:
      – Tall, peaked T waves with a narrow base (best seen in precordial leads)
      – Shortened QT interval
      – ST-segment depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 49 - A 27-year-old man presents to the A&E department with a headache and odd...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents to the A&E department with a headache and odd behaviour after being hit on the side of his head by a bat. Whilst waiting for a CT scan, he becomes drowsy and unresponsive.

      What is the most likely underlying injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extradural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Extradural haematoma is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptomology. The middle meningeal artery is prone to damage when the temporal side of the head is hit.

      Patients who suffer head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. Inadequate cardiac output compromises the CNS perfusion, irrespective of the nature of cranial injury.

      An extradural haematoma is a collection of blood in the space between the skull and the dura mater. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of extradural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. There is often loss of consciousness following a head injury, a brief regaining of consciousness, and then loss of consciousness again—lucid interval. Other symptoms may include headache, confusion, vomiting, and an inability to move parts of the body. Diagnosis is typically by a CT scan or MRI, and treatment is generally by urgent surgery in the form of a craniotomy or burr hole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 50 - Which of the following is a likely cause of jaundice? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a likely cause of jaundice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic disease if plasma albumin is low and serum aminotransferase elevations > 500 units

      Explanation:

      Jaundice can occur due to any of the possible causes and treatment depends upon diagnosing the correct condition. Mild hyperbilirubinemia with normal levels of aminotransferase and alkaline phosphatase is often unconjugated (e.g., due to haemolysis or Gilbert’s syndrome rather than hepatobiliary disease). Moderate or severe hyperbilirubinemia along with increased urinary bilirubin (bilirubinuria), high alkaline phosphatase or aminotransferase levels suggest hepatobiliary disease. Hyperbilirubinemia produced by any hepatobiliary disease is largely conjugated. In this case, other blood tests include hepatitis serology for suspected hepatitis, prothrombin time (PT) or international normalised ratio (INR), albumin and globulin levels, and antimitochondrial antibody levels (suspected primary biliary cirrhosis). Low albumin and high globulin levels suggest chronic rather than acute liver disease. In cases where there is only a an elevation of alkaline phosphatase, γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) levels should be checked – the levels of which will be found high in hepatobiliary disease, but not in bone disorder which can also lead to elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. In diseases of hepatobiliary origin, aminotransferase elevations > 500 units suggest a hepatocellular cause, whereas disproportionate increases of alkaline phosphatase (e.g., alkaline phosphatase > 3 times normal and aminotransferase < 200 units) suggest cholestasis. Because hepatobiliary disease alone rarely causes bilirubin levels > 30 mg/dl, higher levels are suggestive of a combination of severe hepatobiliary disease and haemolysis or renal dysfunction. Imaging is best for diagnosing infiltrative and cholestatic causes of jaundice. Liver biopsy is rarely needed, but can be of use in intrahepatic cholestasis and in some types of hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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