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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch?

      Your Answer: Proximal portion of urethra

      Explanation:

      The deep perineal pouch contains the external urethral sphincter, proximal urethra in females and membranous urethra in males, deep transverse perineal muscles and the glands of cowper.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding lymph drainage of the ovary where does the majority of lymph drain...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the ovary where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: External iliac lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      The Ovaries lymph drains primarily to the lateral para-aortic lymph nodes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital malformations of the uterus

      Explanation:

      Anomalies of the cervico-uterus are widely diagnosed by HSG. The diagnostic value of HSG in the detection of anomalies varies, depending on the type of malformation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. The mother asks...

    Incorrect

    • A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. The mother asks you if this will be permanent. What percentage of babies will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of brachial plexus injury secondary to shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      of cases there is no permanent neurological disability. Shoulder dystocia is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy (Erb-Duchenne palsy) where there is injury to C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus (C5 to T1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Study Z gets funding to increase the population size from 1000 to 2000...

    Incorrect

    • Study Z gets funding to increase the population size from 1000 to 2000 patients. What effect is this likely to have on the results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease type 2 errors

      Explanation:

      Increasing sample size decreases type 2 errors and increases power of the results. Sensitivity and specificity of the test should remain constant regardless of sample size. Confidence intervals are applied by a statistician and are dependent on the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman, who had her last menstrual period at age 49, presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman, who had her last menstrual period at age 49, presented with an episode of per vaginal bleeding two weeks ago. It lasted four days in duration. A reduction in the severity of hot flushes as well as some breast enlargement preceded the bleeding episode.
      What is the most likely cause of the bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An episode of ovarian follicular activity.

      Explanation:

      It has been found that it is possible for premenopausal hormones to persist for a period of time after attaining menopause. If one or a few ovarian follicles remain, they could produce oestrogen in response to the very elevated levels of FSH typically seen in menopause. In doing so, the woman can then bleed as a result of this physiological response. The symptoms seen in this vignette are consistent with the rise in oestrogen levels, likely due to follicular activity.

      In the absence of any pathological findings such as endometrial carcinoma, this phenomenon would be the most likely cause of this post-menopausal bleed. Furthermore, it is unlikely for cervical cancer and endometrial cancer to present during the first few years following menopause. Atrophic vaginitis is unlikely to be associated with the other symptoms the patient presented with i.e. reduction in the intensity of hot flushes and breast enlargement. This patient was not stated to have any risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia such as obesity, late menopause and early menarche, which makes it a less likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding.
    A...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding.
      A pelvic ultrasound was done, which confirms the diagnosis of placenta praevia and you are planning a cesarean section as it is the most appropriate mode of delivery.
      Which among the following is considered a possible outcome of cesarean section delivery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase risk of adhesions

      Explanation:

      Obstetric complications during or following a cesarean section delivery include:
      -Increased risk of maternal mortality.
      -Increased need for cesarean sections in the subsequent pregnancies.
      -Increased risk for damage to adjacent visceral organs especially bowels and bladder.
      -Increased risk of infections.

      Increased risk for formation of adhesions is a complication after cesarean section and this is the correct response for the given question.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding twin pregnancies all of the following are correct EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding twin pregnancies all of the following are correct EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Identical or monozygotic twins arise from fertilization of two ovum

      Explanation:

      Monozygotic (MZ) twins originate when a single egg is fertilized to form one zygote, which then divides into two embryos. Although they share the same genotype they are not phenotypically identical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A midwife is concerned regarding CTG changes and suggests a fetal blood sample...

    Incorrect

    • A midwife is concerned regarding CTG changes and suggests a fetal blood sample (FBS). At what dilatation would you NOT perform FBS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less than 3cm

      Explanation:

      Fetal Blood Sampling (FBS) should only be performed when the cervix is >3cm dilated.

      Indications for FBS:
      1. Pathological CTG in labour
      2. Suspected acidosis in labour

      Contraindications to FBS
      – Maternal infection e.g. HIV, HSV and Hepatitis
      – Known fetal coagulopathy
      – Prematurity (< 34 weeks gestation)
      – Acute fetal compromise

      Interpretation of FBS results:
      pH >7.25 = Normal -Repeat in 1 hour if CTG remains abnormal
      7.21 to 7.24 = Borderline – Repeat in 30 minutes
      <7.20 = Abnormal - Consider delivery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - When does ovulation occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • When does ovulation occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 36 hours after LH surge

      Explanation:

      Ovulation occurs in the mid stage of the menstrual cycle, usually 36 hours after the LH surge. It is this LH surge which is necessary for the ovulation to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic for consultation regarding the chance of her baby having Down syndrome. She mentioned that she has read somewhere that one of the risk factors for Down syndrome is advanced maternal age. She is concerned and asks if there are ways in which she can know whether her baby will be affected.
      Which of the following is considered as both the safest and the most accurate diagnostic tool for the exclusion of Down syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Amniocentesis is a prenatal procedure performed on a pregnant woman to withdraw a small amount of amniotic fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.
      The goal of amniocentesis is to examine a small amount of this fluid to obtain information about the baby, including its sex, and to detect physical abnormalities such as Down syndrome or spina bifida.
      Amniocentesis is only performed on women thought to be at higher risk of delivering a child with a birth defect.

      Amniocentesis is performed between 16 and 20 weeks into the pregnancy. By around this time, the developing baby is suspended in about 130ml of amniotic fluid, which the baby constantly swallows and excretes. A thin needle is used to withdraw a small amount of this fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Examination of endometrial tissue obtained from a biopsy reveals simple columnar epithelium with...

    Incorrect

    • Examination of endometrial tissue obtained from a biopsy reveals simple columnar epithelium with no sub-nuclear vacuoles. The stroma is oedematous, & a tortuous gland contains secretions. These findings are consistent with which stage of the menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mid-secretory

      Explanation:

      During mid secretory phase, the endometrium cells undergo distension, become more tortuous and are lined by columnar cells.
      In the early proliferative phase, the glandular epithelium is cubo-columnar, while in the late proliferative phase, the glands increase in size, becoming tortuous and there is pseudostratification of the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 29 year old is diagnosed with stage 1A2 cervical cancer. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old is diagnosed with stage 1A2 cervical cancer. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LLETZ

      Explanation:

      The treatment of stage 1A cervical cancer is excision of the margins using the Loop electrical excision procedure (LLETZ). Hysterectomy is not necessary. This treatment enables fertility to be preserved.

      2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma
      0 – Carcinoma in situ
      1 – Confined to the cervix (diagnosed microscopy)
      1A1 – Less than 3mm depth & 7mm lateral spread
      1A2 – 3mm to 5mm depth & less than 7mm lateral spread
      1B1 – Clinically visible lesion or greater than A2 & less than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      1B2 – Clinically visible lesion, greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2 – Invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or lower 1/3 vagina
      2A1 – Involvement of the upper two-thirds of the vagina, without parametrical invasion & Less than 4cm
      2A2 – Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2B – Parametrial involvement
      3 – Extends to Pelvic side wall or lower 1/3 vagina or hydronephrosis
      3A – No pelvic side wall involvement
      3B – Pelvic side wall involved or hydronephrosis
      4 – Extends beyond true pelvis 4A Invades mucosa bladder and rectum
      4B – Distant Metastasis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The second meiotic division of the oocyte is normally completed: ...

    Incorrect

    • The second meiotic division of the oocyte is normally completed:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte

      Explanation:

      Upon penetration, if all is normally occurring, the process of egg-activation occurs, and the oocyte is said to have become activated. This is thought to be induced by a specific protein phospholipase c zeta. It undergoes its secondary meiotic division, and the two haploid nuclei (paternal and maternal) fuse to form a zygote.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT)...

    Incorrect

    • A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT) as a means of contraception. Over the past year, her cycles varied in length from 24 to 30 days with menses lasting 4 days. They do not have sexual intercourse when she is on her period.
      Which regimen would be the most suitable to minimise the chances of getting pregnant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle, commence intercourse two days after temperature elevation of 0.3°C and continue thereafter.

      Explanation:

      The best regimen would be to have no intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle and then commence it two days after a temperature rise of 0.3C and continue then onwards. When deciding the best contraceptive method, one has to consider two factors-the duration of survival of sperm in the uterus and body temperature in relation to ovulation. For this case, since her cycle length varies from 24 to 30 days, the earliest time in which ovulation would occur would be 14 days before her shortest cycle i.e. day 10. Intercourse has to be avoided from day 4 of her cycle just in case the current cycle is short because sperm can survive up to 6 days in the uterus. Day 4 would be the day her menses would end and as this couple avoids intercourse during her menstruation, there would be no intercourse during the follicular phase of her cycle.

      During ovulation, her serum progesterone levels would start to increase, causing a 0.3°C to 0.4°C increase in her body temperature within 2-3 days of ovulating. This elevation in temperature would remain until close to when her period starts. The ovum can only be fertilised for roughly 24 hours after ovulation has taken place. Resuming sexual intercourse once her temperature has risen for 2 days would suggest that ovulation had already taken place 3-4 days earlier and so it is unlikely for pregnancy to occur.

      Options that include intercourse during any part of her follicular phase is not correct. Hence, the only option that satisfies the above criteria would be intercourse avoidance during her follicular phase and to resume 2 days following a rise of 0.03°C in body temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 29 year old women wants to speak to you regarding infections in...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old women wants to speak to you regarding infections in pregnancy. Her two year old son has sensorineural deafness as a result of infection in her previous pregnancy. What was the most likely infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CMV

      Explanation:

      TORCH infections are responsible for perinatal complications. CMV is the most common amongst them. Primary infection often produces no symptoms or mild non-specific flu-like symptoms in the mother. The diagnosis is often made after abnormalities are seen in the foetus on ultrasound scan. The main features seen in an affected foetus are FGR, microcephaly, ventriculomegaly, ascites or hydrops. Some foetuses which are infected may not show any features on ultrasound, but may later be found to have neurological damage such as blindness, deafness or developmental delay. The neonate can also be anaemic and thrombocytopenic, with hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice and a purpureal rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The ovarian artery is a branch of the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The ovarian artery is a branch of the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aorta

      Explanation:

      The ovarian artery is an artery that supplies oxygenated blood to the ovary in females. It arises from the abdominal aorta below the renal artery. It can be found in the suspensory ligament of the ovary, anterior to the ovarian vein and ureter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You review a patient who is 34 weeks pregnant. She complains of gradually...

    Incorrect

    • You review a patient who is 34 weeks pregnant. She complains of gradually worsening itching over the past 6 weeks particularly to the hands and feet which is worse at night. You order some bloods. Which of the following would you normally expect to increase in the 3rd trimester?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ALP

      Explanation:

      ALP can rise to up to 3 times the normal non-pregnant value in the 3rd trimester. All of the other tests above typically decrease during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to the hands and soles of the feet. Examination reveals wart like lesions on the vagina and a diagnosis of condyloma latum is made. What stage of syphilis infection is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary

      Explanation:

      Condylomas are warty neoplasms of the vulvar area. The most common type are condyloma acuminatum which occur due to HPV 6 or 11. Condyloma latum are also known as secondary syphilis are less common. Both of these are sexually transmitted.

      Stages of Syphilis:
      – Primary 3-90 days
      Chancre and lymphadenopathy
      – Secondary 4-10 weeks
      Widespread rash typically affecting hands and soles of feet.
      Wart lesions (condyloma latum) of mucus membranes
      – Latent Early <1 yr. after secondary stage
      – Late >2 yr. after secondary stage
      Asymptomatic
      – Tertiary 3+ years after primary infection
      Gummas or
      Neurosyphilis or
      Cardiovascular syphilis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A sexually active young woman comes in with frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Dysuria...

    Incorrect

    • A sexually active young woman comes in with frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Dysuria and dyspareunia are also present. The genital region seems to be quite reddish.
      What is the potential danger associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      TV infection is associated with both LR and HR-HPV infection of the cervix, as well as with ASC-US and HSIL. The signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis are present in this patient. Trichomonas vaginalis is the reason.
      Increased vaginal discharge that is frothy, yellowish, and has an unpleasant odour are among the symptoms. It’s frequently linked to dyspareunia and dysuria. Normally, the genital area is red and painful.

      In both men and women, trichomoniasis can cause preterm labour and raise the risk of infertility. Both the patient and the partner must be treated at the same time.

      The active infection can be treated with a single oral dose of metronidazole 2 g taken with food.
      To avoid disulfiram-like symptoms, alcohol should be avoided during the first 24-48 hours after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is true about the origin of the ovarian artery?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the origin of the ovarian artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It arises from the Abdominal Aorta

      Explanation:

      The ovarian arteries are considered the main blood supply for the ovaries. The ovarian arteries usually arise from the lateral aspect of the abdominal artery, though in some instances they may arise from the renal or iliac arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buccal smear is chromatin positive

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients have high FSH levels and low oestrogen levels. They have a short stature and buccal smear is chromatin negative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with complaint of eruption or rash, followed by a 2-day history of malaise, low grade fever and rhinorrhea. You suspect measles and order serology tests for her.
      Serology report shows that lgM against measles is positive with a negative lgG.
      Among the following which is the most appropriate next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contact tracing

      Explanation:

      The given case scenario describes a typical case of measles in a pregnant woman, which is confirmed by serologic studies. Positive lgM in serology is suggestive of acute infection, while a negative lgG confirms that the infection is in early phase without any seroconversion.
      Conservative management of the symptoms and its potential complications is the only management plan therapeutically available after contracting measles. ‘Notification’ and contact tracing are the other very important issues to be considered.
      Measles is a notifiable disease and healthcare professionals are mandated on reporting all the identified cases of measles to the authorized public health units. The main objective of this notification is to conduct a contact tracing.

      MMR vaccine is not useful once measles is contracted, as the vaccine is used for prevention of measles and as prophylaxis in post-exposure cases. For those with contact to a case of measles, MMR vaccine within 72 hours of contact may have a protective effect, but all measles-containing vaccines like MMR and MM RV are contraindicated throughout pregnancy even as prophylaxis.

      As the circulating maternal antibodies will cross placenta and enters into the fetal circulation, a positive test does not confirm infection in the fetus. So serologic testing of the fetus is not useful.

      NHIG is not useful in treating an established case of measles, as it is used as a post-measles exposure prophylactic for patients such as pregnant women, premature babies, etc who are contraindicated to MMR vaccine.

      As both symptoms and lgM levels indicate measles infection, repeating measles-specific serologic test is not useful in this case. In general no test is indicated, unless its result has an impact on the further management of the case or any prognostic value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains of numbness of the anterior aspect of the labia. Which nerve has likely been damaged during surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      The anterior aspect of the vulva (mons pubis, anterior labia) is supplied by derivatives of the lumbar plexus: the anterior labial nerves, derived from the
      ilio-inguinal nerve, and the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve.
      The posterior aspect of the vulva is supplied by derivatives of the sacral plexus: the perineal branch of the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh laterally, and the pudendal nerve centrally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You are asked to infiltrate a patients perineum with local anaesthetic prior to...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to infiltrate a patients perineum with local anaesthetic prior to episiotomy. What is the maximum dose of lidocaine (without adrenaline)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The half-life of lidocaine is approximately 1.5 hours. It is a local anaesthetic and the maximum dose that can be given is 3mg/kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeks’ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeks’ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with irregular uterine contractions for the past 24 hours and has concerns about premature delivery. She delivered her first child at 38 weeks of gestation and her second at 39 weeks gestation. On examination, BP and urinalysis have come back normal. Her symphysis-fundal height measures 27cm, the uterus is lax and non-tender. Fetal heart rate is 148/min. She also undergoes a pelvic examination along with other investigations.
      Which findings would suggest that delivery is most likely going to happen before 30 weeks’ of gestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The cervix is closed, but the fetal fibronectin test on cervical secretions is positive.

      Explanation:

      Predisposing factors of preterm delivery include a short cervix (or if it shortens earlier than in the third trimester), urinary tract or sexually transmitted infections, open cervical os, and history of a previous premature delivery. Increased uterine size can also contribute to preterm delivery and is seen with cases of polyhydramnios, macrosomia and multiple pregnancies. The shorter the cervical length, the greater the risk of a premature birth.
      In this case, the risk of bacterial vaginosis and candidiasis contributing to preterm delivery would be lower than if in the context of an open cervical os. However, the risk of premature delivery is significantly increased if it is found that the fetal fibronectin test is positive, even if the os is closed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - From what does the blastocyst hatch? ...

    Incorrect

    • From what does the blastocyst hatch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zona Pellucida

      Explanation:

      The blastocyst hatchs from the Zona Pellucida

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney? ...

    Incorrect

    • The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal Cortex

      Explanation:

      The substructures of the nephrons are mainly located within the cortex. The JGA sits next to the glomerulus in the cortex (click on the magnifying glass of the image to see the arrangement). They play an important role in blood pressure homeostasis as the juxtaglomerular cells produce renin. The descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle and collecting ducts have sections within both the cortex and medulla

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary genital herpetic lesions at multiple sites in the genital area.
      What is the most appropriate management in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prophylactic antiviral before 4 days before delivery

      Explanation:

      This woman at her 37 weeks of gestation, has developed multiple herpetic lesions over her genitals. In every case were the mother develops herpes simplex infection after 28 weeks of pregnancy, chances for intrapartum and vertical transmission of the infection to the neonate is considered to be very high.

      Risk factors of intrapartum herpes simplex infection of the child includes premature labour, premature rupture of membrane, primary herpes simplex infection and multiple lesion in the genital area.

      The most appropriate methods for managing this case includes:
      – checking for herpes simplex infection using PCR testing of a cervical swab.
      – starting prophylactic antiviral therapy for the mother from 38 weeks of gestation until delivery.
      – preferring a cesarean section delivery if there are active lesions present in the cervix and/or vulva.

      Cesarean delivery is advised in this case along with maternal antiviral therapy before delivery to minimise the risk of vertical transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Besides infertility, the most common symptoms of a luteal phase defect is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Besides infertility, the most common symptoms of a luteal phase defect is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early abortion

      Explanation:

      Luteal phase defect is an ovulatory disorder of considerable clinical importance that is implicated in infertility and recurrent spontaneous abortion. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 31 - A 29 year old patient who is 22 weeks pregnant seeks your advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old patient who is 22 weeks pregnant seeks your advice as she was recently exposed to chickenpox. Regarding fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) which of the following statements is correct regarding maternal varicella infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FVS may result if there is maternal varicella infection within the 1st 20 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      (13-20 weeks). If a mother has chickenpox in late pregnancy (5 days prior to delivery) then there is risk of neonatal varicella infection which may be severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin 1gram as single dose

      Explanation:

      The best treatment option for chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy is Azithromycin 1g as a single dose orally. This is the preferred option as the drug is coming under category B1 in pregnancy.

      Tetracycline antibiotics, including doxycycline, should never be used in pregnant or breastfeeding women.

      Erythromycin Estolate is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its increased risk for hepatotoxicity. Ciprofloxacin is not commonly used for treating chlamydial urethritis and its use is not safe during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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      Seconds
  • Question 33 - The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosomal analysis (Karyotyping)

      Explanation:

      Standard karyotyping is the best confirmatory test for the diagnosis of Turner syndrome among patients who have some doubtful clinical presentations. It is done on peripheral blood mononuclear cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 32 year old primigravida in her 12th week of gestation, presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old primigravida in her 12th week of gestation, presents to her GP with concerns regarding the evolution of her pregnancy. She's afraid she might experience an obstetric cholestasis just like her older sister did in the past. What is the fundamental symptom of obstetric cholestasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Cholestasis of pregnancy is associated with increased fetal morbidity and mortality and should be treated actively. The significance attached to pruritus in pregnancy is often minimal, but it is a cardinal symptom of cholestasis of pregnancy, which may have no other clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Regarding the study of the prognosis of a disease, which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the study of the prognosis of a disease, which of the following studies is most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cohort Study

      Explanation:

      Cohort studies are the most appropriate study design to study the prognosis of a disease. A group of patients with the same condition are chosen and their baseline information is taken. The group is then followed up over time to see which patients live or die.
      Case-control studies can also be useful where a group of individuals that have survived a condition are compared with cases of those who have died. Prognostic factors that distinguish the two groups are identified. This method, however, is limited by bias and the accuracy of medical information present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
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  • Question 36 - In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head...

    Incorrect

    • In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Face presentation

      Explanation:

      Face presentation is the abnormal position of the fetal head in labour. In this position the neck is hyperextended.
      Vertex position is the normal presentation of the foetus for delivery, in which the head is flexed and the position of the chin is towards the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 37 - A 24-year-old nulliparous lady has lately started having sexual encounters. She seeks your...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old nulliparous lady has lately started having sexual encounters. She seeks your advice since she is experiencing painful coitus at the vaginal introitus. It's accompanied by painful involuntary pelvic muscular contractions. The pelvic examination is normal except for confirmation of these findings.
      The most prevalent cause of this ailment is one of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychogenic causes

      Explanation:

      Vaginismus is an uncontrollable painful spasm of the pelvic muscles and vaginal exit that this patient has. It’s mainly caused by psychological factors. It’s important to distinguish it from frigidity, which indicates a lack of sexual desire, and dyspareunia, which is characterized as pelvic and/or back pain or other discomfort linked with sexual activity. Endometriosis, pelvic adhesions, and ovarian neoplasms are all common causes of dyspareunia. Vaginismus pain can be psychogenic, or it might be caused by pelvic diseases like adhesions, endometriosis, or leiomyomas. Organic vulvar or pelvic reasons (such as atrophy, Bartholin gland cyst, or abscess) are extremely rare, hence vaginismus is mostly treated with psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 38 - Fetal urine production starts at what gestation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal urine production starts at what gestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8-11 weeks

      Explanation:

      Fetal urine contributes significantly to amniotic fluid production in the second trimester of pregnancy. As early as 8-11 weeks, urine production begins and can be observed in the fetal bladder on ultrasound scans. The urine creates a hypotonic fluid which contains increasing concentrations of urea and creatinine. By term, a foetus produces about 800 ml of urine a day, of which 250ml is eliminated through fetal swallowing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 39 - Immediate therapy for infants with suspected meconium should routinely include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Immediate therapy for infants with suspected meconium should routinely include:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clearing of the airway

      Explanation:

      Immediate treatment for infants with suspected meconium aspiration syndrome is to clear/suction the airway. Intubation and tracheal toileting have remained a matter of debate till the most recent times. All neonates at risk of MAS who show respiratory distress should be admitted to a neonatal intensive care unit and monitored closely. The treatment is mainly supportive and aims to correct hypoxemia and acidosis with the maintenance of optimal temperature and blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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  • Question 40 - Fibrinogen is activated by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Fibrinogen is activated by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombin

      Explanation:

      Fibrinogen is activated by thrombin which converts it into fibrin which forms a mesh to trap red blood cells and form a clot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
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  • Question 41 - A 25-year-old Aboriginal woman at ten weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Aboriginal woman at ten weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea, vomiting and dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this illness.
      On examination, she is found to be dehydrated, her heart rate is 135 per minute (sinus tachycardia), blood pressure 96/60 mm of Hg with a postural drop of more than 20 mm of Hg systolic pressure and is unable to tolerate both liquids and solids.Urine contains ketones and blood tests are pending.
      How will you manage this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline

      Explanation:

      Analysis of presentation shows the patient has developed hyperemesis gravidarum.
      She is in early shock, presented as sinus tachycardia and hypotension, with ketonuria and requires immediate fluid resuscitation and anti-emetics. The first line fluid of choice is administration of normal saline 0.9%, and should avoid giving dextrose containing fluids as they can precipitate encephalopathy and worsens hyponatremia.

      The most appropriate management of a pregnant patient in this situation is administration of metoclopramide as the first line and Ondansetron as second line antiemetic, which are Australian category A and B1 drugs respectively. The following also should be considered and monitored for:
      1. More refractory vomiting.
      2. Failure to improve.
      3. Recurrent hospital admissions.

      Steroids like prednisolone are third line medications which are used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum after proper consultation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 42 - Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Listeria Monocytogenes is a cause of congenital infection. The most common source of the bacteria is food, especially unpasteurised milk. Congenital listeriosis can lead to spontaneous abortions, premature birth and chorioamnionitis. At birth, neonates may present with septicaemia, respiratory distress and inflammatory granulomatosis. The case mortality rate for listeriosis is thought to be between 20-30%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
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  • Question 43 - A 32-year-old white female comes to your office complaining of dysuria. She denies...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old white female comes to your office complaining of dysuria. She denies fever, back pain, and urinary frequency. She appears to be well otherwise and has a normal abdominal examination. A clean-catch urinalysis shows 15-20 WBC/hpf and a dipstick test for leukocyte esterase is positive. You send a urine sample for culture and start the patient on nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin), as she is allergic to sulpha.
      Three days later, the patient returns with persistent dysuria despite taking the medication as prescribed. Her urine culture has returned with no growth. A pelvic examination is normal and the rest of the physical examination is unchanged. A wet prep is normal and tests for sexually transmitted diseases are pending. Which one of the following antibiotics is most appropriate for this patient now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Urethral syndrome is characterized by dysuria and pyuria in the presence of a negative culture for uropathogens. Frequency and urgency are often absent. The infecting organism is typically Chlamydia trachomatis although other organisms such as Urea plasma urealyticum and Mycoplasma species may be involve- Effective medication choices include doxycycline, ofloxacin, levofloxacin, and macrolides such as erythromycin and azithromycin.

      -Amoxicillin
      lavulanate  and cephalexin  are incorrect. These would cover gram-positive bacteria but it would not cover gram-negative bacteria nor bacteria without a cell wall, which are the most common causes of this condition.
      – Metronidazole is best for treating anaerobic infections and protozoa such as trichomonas vaginalis, it would not be the best for treating this condition, given the most likely causes.
      -Pyridium is a phenazopyridine often used to alleviate the pain, irritation, discomfort, or urgency caused by urinary tract infections. While it would be beneficial for symptomatic relief, it is unlikely to completely resolve this patient’s condition, given her recent history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 44 - Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amounts during pregnancy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amounts during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      The nutritional status of a woman before and during pregnancy is important for a healthy pregnancy outcome. Pregnancy is a state of increased requirement of macro and micronutrients, and malnourishment or inadequate dietary intake before and during pregnancy, can lead to adverse perinatal outcomes. Many nutritional interventions have been proposed for pregnant mothers. These include multiple micronutrients (MMN), iron/folate, balanced protein energy, calcium, zinc and folic acid supplementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 45 - You are called to review a baby with cyanosis when feeding immediately after...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to review a baby with cyanosis when feeding immediately after birth. Subsequent investigation and imaging reveals choanal atresia. Upon questioning the mother reveals she had been getting repeat prescriptions from her GP in Poland without her UK GPs' or your knowledge. Which of the following medication was most likely to cause this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbimazole

      Explanation:

      This is one of the defects attributable to Carbimazole use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Macrophages are derived from what type of white blood cell? ...

    Incorrect

    • Macrophages are derived from what type of white blood cell?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monocytes

      Explanation:

      Macrophages are derived from monocytes. When monocytes come across a pathogen they differentiate into macrophages for phagocytosis to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
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      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine incontinence. With a BMI of 34, she is fat. Her last child, weighing 4.2 kg, was born six years ago.
      She has been using various over-the-counter medicines to treat constipation and gastric reflux for the past three years. She is a non-smoker with normal blood pressure.
      Which of the following is not a risk factor for female urinary incontinence development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

      Explanation:

      Stress UI (SUI) is more common among puerperal women, followed by mixed UI (MUI) and urge UI (UUI). Generally, episodes of urine leakage are infrequent and the amount of urine leakage is small.

      Maternal age greater than 35 years, UI during pregnancy, elevated body mass index (BMI), multiparity, and normal birth are considered risk factors for postpartum UI. A 10-year cohort study developed with the goal of assessing the effect of the first normal birth on urinary symptoms showed that it was associated with an increase in SUI, in addition to UUI, regardless of maternal age or number of births.

      Other factors such as: colour or race, episiotomy, perineal tears, newborn’s head circumference, newborn’s weight, gestational age at birth, smoking, and constipation require further studies in order to prove their association with postpartum UI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for the past four months since starting to take combined oral contraceptive tablets (Microgynon 30). She engages in sexual activity and uses condoms to prevent sexually transmitted illnesses.
      Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should switch to a new combined pill with ethinylestradiole 50mcg

      Explanation:

      Evidence is not yet of sufficient quality for there to be evidence-based guidelines or recommendations. Having excluded other causes:

      Reassure patients that breakthrough bleeding is a common side-effect of CHC and usually resolves after three cycles of use.
      Advise women who smoke that stopping smoking may improve cycle control.
      If bleeding persists after three cycles, consider changing formulation:
      Increase dose of oestrogen, particularly if on a 20-microgram ethinylestradiol (EE) preparation

      All other options are not acceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Polyhydramnios is associated with which one of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Polyhydramnios is associated with which one of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia/TE fistula may be suspected prenatally with ultrasound findings of polyhydramnios, absence of fluid in the stomach, small sized abdomen, or the presence of a dilated proximal oesophageal pouch. An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 50 - A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to hospital with very severe hypertension. This is her second pregnancy. In the United Kingdom, what is the first line of treatment for hypertension whilst pregnant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Atenolol is considered teratogenic and has two main risks: fetal bradycardia and neonatal apnoea. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are also known to be teratogenic (even though large-scale studies are difficult to conduct during pregnancies).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 51 - Yasmin®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol,...

    Incorrect

    • Yasmin®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol, has been approved for usage in South Africa.
      Which of the following factors has contributed to it becoming the most popular oral contraceptive pill among South African women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has not weight gain as an adverse effect and may be associated with weight loss

      Explanation:

      Yasmin has been linked to decreased fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCs, which is why most women who experience this side effect prefer Yasmin®.
      Due to its anti-mineralocorticoid properties, drospirenone, unlike earlier progestogens, is associated with no weight gain or even moderate weight loss.
      Yasmin has a similar failure rate to other COCs. No evidence using Yasmin is linked to a lower risk of cervical cancer as a long-term side effect of COCs. Yasmin, like all COCs, can cause spotting and irregular bleeding in the first few months of use.
      Drospirenone, a progesterone component, has antiandrogenic properties and is slightly more successful in treating acne, but the difference is not big enough to make it preferable in terms of acne therapy or prevention when compared to other COCs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 52 - What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pubic arch

      Explanation:

      The pelvic outlet is bounded anteriorly by the inferior border of the pubic arch, posteriorly by the sacrotuberous ligament and the tip of the coccyx and laterally by the ischial tuberosities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 53 - A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
    Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
      Her body mass index is 40, and she is normotensive and has a normal serum glucose level. On examination she was tested positive for glucose in urine.
      What would be your advice to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She will be checked for pre-existing diabetes in early pregnancy and, for gestational diabetes at 26 weeks

      Explanation:

      Counselling her about the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy will be the best possible advice to give this patient. A combined follow up by an obstetrician and a diabetes specialist at a high-risk pregnancy clinic is required to formulate the best ways in management of gestation with obesity.
      An oral glucose tolerance test should be done at 26 weeks of her pregnancy, along with advising her on controlling her weight by diet and lifestyle modifications. During the early weeks of their pregnancy all obese patients must be routinely tested for pre-existing diabetes.

      It is highly inappropriate to advice her not to get pregnant.

      Without making a proper diagnosis of diabetes, it is wrong to ask her to start oral hypoglycemic agent and/or insulin.

      Checking urinary proteins is not indicated at this stage, but can be considered as a part of antenatal check up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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      Seconds
  • Question 54 - The arterial blood supply to the bladder is via branches of which artery?...

    Incorrect

    • The arterial blood supply to the bladder is via branches of which artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal Iliac

      Explanation:

      The bladder is supplied by branches of the internal iliac artery, including the superior vesical artery, branches of the gluteal and obturator arteries and the inferior vesical artery in males and the vaginal and the uterine arteries in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 55 - A patient is about to undergo a pudendal nerve block after vaginal delivery...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is about to undergo a pudendal nerve block after vaginal delivery to repair an episiotomy. Which spinal segments form the pudendal nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S2, S3 and S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve provides sensory innervation to regions of the anus, the perineum, the labia and the clitoris in women. The nerve is formed from the ventral rami of the S2-S4 sacral spinal nerves. The nerve is paired, each innervating the left and the right side of the body. Pudendal nerve blocks are indicated for analgesia of the second stage of labour, repair of an episiotomy or perineal laceration, and for minor surgeries of the lower vagina and perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 56 - Which of the following conditions are the most common cause in post-partum haemorrhage?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions are the most common cause in post-partum haemorrhage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine atony

      Explanation:

      Uterine atony is the most common cause for postpartum haemorrhage and the conditions like multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnions, macrosomia, prolonged labour and multiparity are the most common risk factor for uterine atony.

      Whereas less common causes for postpartum haemorrhage are laceration of genital tract, uterine rupture, uterine inversion and coagulopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 57 - Regarding the rectus sheath which of the following statements are true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the rectus sheath which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Above the arcuate line the internal oblique divides into two lamellae

      Explanation:

      The rectus sheath is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal and external oblique muscles and the transversus abdominus muscle. The internal oblique divides into two lamellae and encloses the rectus muscle. Anteriorly it fuses with the aponeurosis of the external oblique and posteriorly with that of the transverus abdominus. Below the arcuate line the aponeurosis of all the flat muscles lies anteriorly and posteriorly it is only enclosed by the transveralis fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 33 year old lady presented with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old lady presented with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding. She is otherwise well and her US abdomen is normal. What is the best treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirena coil

      Explanation:

      Mirena coil is used for contraception and for long term birth control. It causes stoppage of menstrual bleeding however, in a few cases there may be inter-menstrual spotting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 59 - Fetal immunoglobulin production begins at what gestation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal immunoglobulin production begins at what gestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Week 10

      Explanation:

      Fetal production of immunoglobulin begins early on, at about 10 weeks gestation with the production of IgM antibodies. Maternal IgG, which is a key component of fetal immunity, is passed on to the foetus through the placenta from 12 weeks of gestation. Secretory IgA is not produced until after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
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  • Question 60 - During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid...

    Incorrect

    • During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid cycle. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue pills as usual.

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough bleeding, or spotting, refers to when vaginal bleeding occurs between menstrual cycles. It may look like light bleeding or brown discharge.

      Spotting is the most common side effect of birth control pills. It happens because the body is adjusting to changing levels of hormones, and the uterus is adjusting to having a thinner lining.

      Taking the pill as prescribed, usually every day and at the same time each day, can help prevent bleeding between periods.

      All other options are incorrect as this is a common side effect and will resolve on its own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 61 - All of the following are characteristic features of normal labour, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are characteristic features of normal labour, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Moderate bleeding

      Explanation:

      Normal labour is characterized by spontaneous onset, rhythmical uterine contractions along with vertex presentation. Cervical dilatation starts from the 1st stage of labour and intensity of the uterine contractions increases with passing time. Bleeding occurs after the child is expelled and the average loss is about 250-500 ml in a normal vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 62 - A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and is offered Hysterosalpingography (HSG). She has 28 day cycles. Which of the following statements regarding HSG is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Typically performed using iodine based water soluble contrast

      Explanation:

      Hysterosalpingography is used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes. It is performed by injection of a radio-opaque iodine based contrast. This test is contraindicated in pelvic inflammatory disease and during pregnancy. Should be performed in Follicular phase of menstrual cycle after cessation of menstrual bleeding and prior to ovulation (days 6-12).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
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  • Question 63 - What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcemia. It is usually caused by a tumour of the parathyroid gland. Symptoms are related to increased calcium levels which can cause kidney stones, abdominal groans, psychiatric overtones and bones disease such as osteoporosis,osteomalacia and arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 64 - Regarding the biophysical profile: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the biophysical profile:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Includes fetal movement, fetal tone, fetal breathing, fetal heart rate & amniotic fluid

      Explanation:

      The biophysical profile is a composite test that collects 5 indicators of fetal well-being, including fetal heart rate reactivity, breathing movements, gross body movements, muscular tone, and quantitative estimation of amniotic fluid volume. The assessment of fetal heart rate is accomplished by performing a non-stress test, whereas the latter 4 variables are observed using real-time ultra-sonography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
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      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Which of the following is the primary host for Toxoplasma Gondii? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the primary host for Toxoplasma Gondii?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cats

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasma gondii, an intracellular protozoan, is the main causative agent for Toxoplasmosis. The primary host for the organism is the domestic cat. Humans can become infected by eating undercooked meat of animals harbouring cysts, consuming water or food contaminated with cat faeces, or through maternal-fetal transmission. Toxoplasmosis can cause complications in pregnancy such as miscarriages and congenital infection can lead to hydrocephalus, microcephaly, mental disability and vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 66 - You are called to assist in an initially midwife led delivery. Upon delivering...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to assist in an initially midwife led delivery. Upon delivering a female baby you notice the baby has partial fusion of the labioscrotal folds. You suspect congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which of the following genes is most likely to be mutated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CYP21A

      Explanation:

      CAH leads to virilization of the female foetus. It occurs to an enzyme deficiency (21-hydroxylase). This results in a reduced levels of corticosteroids from being circulated resulting in hyperplasia of the adrenal glands and increased progesterone production. The CYP21A gene has been implicated in causes this deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 67 - Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Normal closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) is brought about by a number of mechanisms. Upon delivery the new born babies first breath inflates the lungs and this causes a rise in pO2. Oxygen is known to cause constriction of the DA in vivo and in vitro. In addition the decreased vascular resistance means the pressure within the lumen of the DA drops aiding closure. In addition on inflation of the lungs, the lungs produce bradykinin which stimulates smooth muscle constriction of the ductus. The most important factor is thought to be the drop in Prostaglandin E2. Prostaglandin E2 maintains patency of the Ductus in the unborn child but after birth is metabolised in the lungs and its levels fall rapidly within 3 hours of birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 68 - Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type...

    Incorrect

    • Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type of mechanism

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endocrine

      Explanation:

      Hormones that are secreted into the circulation at one site but have effects on distal target organs are endocrine as is the case with the hormones above. Autocrine and Intracrine messengers act within the same cell. Exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts. Apocrine is a histological term used to describe some types of exocrine gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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      Seconds
  • Question 69 - What is the average volume of blood loss during the menstrual cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average volume of blood loss during the menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 35-40ml

      Explanation:

      Normal menstrual blood loss is about 40-45 ml. More than 80 ml per period is defined as heavy menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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      Seconds
  • Question 70 - During pregnancy which hormone(s) inhibit lactogenesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • During pregnancy which hormone(s) inhibit lactogenesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen and Progesterone

      Explanation:

      Prolactin levels rise steadily during pregnancy during which time it promotes mammary growth (along with the other hormones mentioned below). Oestrogen and progesterone inhibit lactogenesis and it is only with the loss of these placental steroid hormones at term that Prolactin exhibits its lactogenic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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      Seconds
  • Question 71 - In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased, EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The heart adapts to the increased cardiac demand that occurs during pregnancy in many ways:
      Cardiac output increases throughout early pregnancy, and peaks in the third trimester, usually to 30-50% above baseline.
      Oestrogen mediates this rise in cardiac output by increasing the pre-load and stroke volume, mainly via a higher overall blood volume (which increases by 40–50%).
      The heart rate increases, but generally not above 100 beats/ minute.
      Total systematic vascular resistance decreases by 20% secondary to the vasodilatory effect of progesterone. Overall, the systolic and diastolic blood pressure drops 10–15 mm Hg in the first trimester and then returns to the baseline in the second half of pregnancy.
      All of these cardiovascular adaptations can lead to common complaints, such as palpitations, decreased exercise tolerance, and dizziness

      A pregnant woman may experience an increase in the size of the kidneys and ureter due to the increased blood volume and vasculature.
      Later in pregnancy, the woman might develop physiological hydronephrosis and hydroureteronephrosis, which are normal.
      There is an increase in glomerular filtration rate associated with an increase in creatinine clearance, protein, albumin excretion, and urinary glucose excretion.
      There is also an increase in sodium retention from the renal tube so oedema and water retention is a common sign in pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 72 - Which one of the following aetiological factors causes a reduction in the risk...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following aetiological factors causes a reduction in the risk of fibroids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Risk of fibroids is more common among African ethnicity and is also related to obesity and early puberty. The role of combined oral contraceptive pills is still debatable and its results are conflicting, whereas the risk of fibroids decreases with the increase in number of pregnancies. i.e. multiparous women have a lower risk of fibroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 73 - The round ligament develops from which structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The round ligament develops from which structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gubernaculum

      Explanation:

      The round ligament is a remnant of the gubernaculum in females. In males it persists as the scrotal ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 74 - A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband, presents to your hospital with amenorrhea lasting two months. She is currently taking clozapine with appropriate control of her symptoms.
      Which of the following is the most crucial step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea worldwide. As a result, the first thing to check in every woman of reproductive age who has amenorrhea is a urine pregnancy test.
      Once pregnancy has been ruled out, an ultrasound or measuring FSH and LH may be done to assess the condition (if required).
      FBC is used to track clozapine side effects such as neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is not recommended for the assessment of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 75 - A Bicornuate uterus is due to which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • A Bicornuate uterus is due to which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts

      Explanation:

      A Bicornuate uterus (heart shaped) is the result of abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts during embryogenesis. Mullerian agenesis typically results in failure to form a uterus. Mullerian duct fusion abnormalities can cause a bicornuate malformation. PKD-1 gene abnormalities are associated with PCOS. Crossed fused ectopia result in Horseshoe kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 76 - Which vitamin deficiency leads to Wernicke's encephalopathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which vitamin deficiency leads to Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B1

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B1 deficiency can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Alcoholics are at particular risk. In obstetrics all women with hyperemesis gravidarum should receive thiamine supplementation to prevent Wernicke’s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 77 - If both parents have beta-thalassaemia minor, what is the chance of their male...

    Incorrect

    • If both parents have beta-thalassaemia minor, what is the chance of their male offspring having beta thalassemia major?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      This is not an X-linked condition so the sex of the child makes no difference to the inheritance. Any child will have a 1 in 4 chance of having beta thalassaemia major.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 78 - 48 hours after having unprotected intercourse, a 16-year-old female requested a pregnancy test...

    Incorrect

    • 48 hours after having unprotected intercourse, a 16-year-old female requested a pregnancy test from her GP. What advice can you give her regarding the reliability of pregnancy testing at this time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Even if conception has already occurred, beta hCG is likely to be normal. Beta hCG is made by syncytiotrophoblast cells following conception. It then activates the corpus luteum to continuously produce progesterone for implantation to happen. In week 10/40, levels of HCG peak and the placenta can produce adequate progesterone by itself. As a general rule, a beta HCG concentration >25 U/I or a doubling of levels of HCG within two days is required to diagnose pregnancy. A urine pregnancy test would only likely prove positive around 8 days to 2 weeks following conception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 79 - Regarding molding of the fetal head, which one is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding molding of the fetal head, which one is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Does NOT have time to occur in breech delivery

      Explanation:

      Molding allows the skull bones of the fetal head some mobility during the normal delivery of foetus as the skull changes its shape to accommodate passage through the mothers pelvis. However this does not occur in breach delivery where the skull is in circular shape. Babies born breech typically have craniofacial and limb deformations resulting from their in utero position. These babies characteristically have a long, narrow head, (“dolichocephaly” or “type 1”), with a prominent occipital shelf, redundant skin over the neck, overlapping lambdoidal sutures, and an indentation below their ears (from shoulder compression).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 80 - A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed that her placenta was retained and needed to be removed manually during the procedure. She is now experiencing intermittent vaginal bleeding with an oxygen saturation of 98%, a pulse of 84 bpm and a BP of 124/82mmHg. Her temperature is 37.8C. Which complication of C-section is the woman suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometritis

      Explanation:

      Endometritis is inflammation of the inner lining of the uterus (endometrium). Symptoms may include fever, lower abdominal pain, and abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge. It is the most common cause of infection after childbirth. The intermittent vaginal bleeding and the requirement for manual removal of the placenta suggest endometritis as the most possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 81 - What is the target INR in a patient who has just been started...

    Incorrect

    • What is the target INR in a patient who has just been started on warfarin therapy due to a pulmonary embolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.0-3.0

      Explanation:

      Warfarin can be useful for management of thromboembolism. The target INR range for this medication is between 2.0-3.0 in patients with venous thromboembolism, pulmonary embolism etc. The INR range may increase to 3.0-4.0 in patients with mechanical valves. However, warfarin is not recommended in pregnancy, and Low Molecular Weight Heparin should be used for thromboprophylaxis instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 23-year-old G1P0 female presents to your department with a complaint of not...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old G1P0 female presents to your department with a complaint of not having menstrual periods over the last 6 months. She had her first menstrual periods at the age of 13 and they have been consistent since then with a cycle of 28 days. She reports that she had an unplanned pregnancy 8 months ago and did an elective abortion at the 8th week of gestation. Since that time she has not had menstrual periods. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and they use condoms consistently. The pregnancy test is negative.
      Which of the following diagnostic tests is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hysteroscopy

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with secondary amenorrhea, most likely caused by Asherman’s syndrome- Secondary amenorrhea is defined as absence of menstruation for – 3 months in a patient who had regular menstruation previously or absence of menstruation for 9 months in a patient who had oligomenorrhea- Asherman’s syndrome as the cause of her amenorrhea is suggested by its beginning shortly after undergoing elective abortion. It is an outflow tract obstruction caused by intrauterine synechiae resulting from the procedure.

      The best diagnostic test to confirm this diagnosis is hysteroscopy. It can allow visualization of the uterine cavity, the nature and extent of intrauterine synechiae.

      → Progesterone withdrawal test is one of the diagnostic studies done in the early work-up of secondary amenorrhoea- It is usually followed by the estrogen-progesterone challenge test and other tests. Progesterone withdrawal test alone would not confirm Asherman’s syndrome.
      → Pelvic ultrasound is more useful in primary amenorrhea work-up when the presence or absence of the uterus is to be confirmed- It is not very useful in the evaluation of intrauterine adhesions.
      → Brain MRI is useful in confirming the presence of pituitary tumours in patients, who are found to have high levels of prolactin. This patient’s most likely cause of secondary amenorrhea is Asherman’s syndrome.
      → TSH and prolactin levels should be the next step in the work-up of secondary amenorrhea after pregnancy has been ruled out; however, these studies cannot confirm Asherman’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 83 - What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pubic arch

      Explanation:

      Pelvic Outlet Boundaries Anteriorly: Pubic arch Laterally: Ischial tuberosities Posterolaterally: Inferior margin of the sacrotuberous ligament Posteriorly: Tip of the coccyx Note: The pelvis outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 84 - A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks gestation.
      One week ago, she had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done which showed grade 3 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN3).
      What is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy.

      Explanation:

      The best next step in her management is a colposcopy.

      Patients diagnosed with high-grade lesions (CIN 2 or 3) or adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS) during pregnancy should undergo surveillance via colposcopy and age-based testing (cytology/HPV) every 12-24 weeks.

      Cone biopsy and long loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ biopsy) are not recommended if the lesion extends up the canal and out of the vision of the colposcope.
      It is not necessary to terminate the pregnancy.

      Because repeat colposcopic examination during pregnancy offers all of the information needed, the repeat Pap smear is best done after the pregnancy has ended.

      Unless colposcopy indicates aggressive cancer at an earlier time, the ultimate therapy required is usually not decided until the postpartum visit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 85 - Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contraction via which of the following messenger pathways? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contraction via which of the following messenger pathways?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activates phospholipase-C which produces IP3 which triggers intracellular Calcium ion release

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin acts via the G protein receptors and the calcium-calmodulin complex. It activates phospholipase C which produces IP3 to further trigger the calcium-calmodulin complex increasing intracellular Ca ion release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 86 - Which of the following are required for Oxytocin to bind to its receptor?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are required for Oxytocin to bind to its receptor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium and Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin binds to G-protein-coupled receptors and requires Magnesium and cholesterol for this process to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 87 - Which of the following statements regarding progesterone production in the ovary is true?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding progesterone production in the ovary is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synthesised from cholesterol by Luteal cells

      Explanation:

      After the release of the oocyte, the theca and the granulosa cells form the corpus luteum which undergoes extensive vascularization for continued steroidogenesis. Progesterone is secreted by the luteal cells and is synthesized from cholesterol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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      Seconds
  • Question 88 - Pelvic ligaments can change at term resulting in? ...

    Incorrect

    • Pelvic ligaments can change at term resulting in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enlargement of the pelvic cavity

      Explanation:

      The pelvis is supported by a variety of ligaments. At term, these ligaments allow for variation in its structure such that the overall size of the pelvic cavity is increased in order to accommodate the upcoming foetus into the cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 89 - You see a patient in antenatal clinic who is concerned that she has...

    Incorrect

    • You see a patient in antenatal clinic who is concerned that she has never had chicken pox and may catch it during pregnancy. You check her Varicella status and she is non-immune. She asks you about vaccination. What type of vaccine is the varicella vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attenuated

      Explanation:

      Varicella is a live vaccine. The recent RCOG green top guidelines suggest vaccine can be considered postpartum or pre pregnancy but NOT whilst pregnant. In the non-immune pregnant woman they should be advised to avoid contact with people with chickenpox or shingles and to contact a healthcare professional promptly if exposed. If they have a significant exposure VZIG should be offered as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
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  • Question 90 - Regarding pelvic inflammatory disease, which of the following is the tubal factor infertility...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding pelvic inflammatory disease, which of the following is the tubal factor infertility rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12.50%

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a known risk factor in causing tubal infertility due to its role in tubal damage. The tubal infertility rate after one episode of PID is thought to be about 12.5%. After two episodes the risk increases to 25%, and 50% after three episodes. The usual causative agents are chlamydia and gonorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 91 - Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining...

    Incorrect

    • Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining in women who have severe monthly flow.
      Endometrial ablation is not contraindicated by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Completed family

      Explanation:

      Endometrial ablation is primarily intended to treat premenopausal women with heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) who do not desire future fertility. Women who choose endometrial ablation often have failed or declined medical management.

      Absolute contraindications to endometrial ablation include pregnancy, known or suspected endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, desire for future fertility, active pelvic infection, IUD currently in situ, and being post-menopausal. In general, endometrial ablation should be avoided in patients with congenital uterine anomalies, severe myometrial thinning, and uterine cavity lengths that exceed the capacity of the ablative technique (usually greater than 10-12 cm).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 92 - Which two nerves provide the primary cutaneous sensory innervation to the labia majora?...

    Incorrect

    • Which two nerves provide the primary cutaneous sensory innervation to the labia majora?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal and pudendal

      Explanation:

      The Pudendal provides cutaneous innervation to the posterior external genitalia via one of its terminal branches called the perineal nerve (this further branches into the posterior labial nerves or posterior scrotal nerve in men). The ilioinguinal nerve provides anterior sensation via the anterior labial nerves (anterior scrotal nerve in men). The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve contributes some fibres to the skin of the mons pubis and labia majora in females. The posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh sometimes overlaps sensory areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 93 - Which increases the risk for developing endometrial cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which increases the risk for developing endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early menarche

      Explanation:

      Endometrioid endometrial carcinoma is oestrogen-responsive, and the main risk factor for this disease is long-term exposure to excess endogenous or exogenous oestrogen without adequate opposition by a progestin.

      Early age at menarche is a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma in some studies; late menopause is less consistently associated with an increased risk of the disease. Both of these factors result in prolonged oestrogen stimulation and at times of the reproductive years during which anovulatory cycles are common

      Other risk factors include
      obesity,
      nulliparity,
      diabetes mellitus, and
      hypertension.

      The risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma with oestrogen therapy can be significantly reduced by the concomitant administration of a progestin. In general, combined oestrogen-progestin preparations do not increase the risk of endometrial hyperplasia.

      Endometrial carcinoma usually occurs in postmenopausal women (mean age at diagnosis is 62 years). Women under age 50 who develop endometrial cancer often have risk factors such as obesity or chronic anovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 94 - What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 10,000

      Explanation:

      The incidence of listeria infection in pregnant women is estimated at 12 per 100 000 compared to 0.7 per 100 000 in the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 95 - A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.

      Explanation:

      Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
      It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
      All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
      Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
      Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
      Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
      Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
      Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
      Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
      This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 96 - A 22-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to premature uterine contractions. Upon interview, it was noted the she has history of untreated mitral valve stenosis. Tocolysis was then planned after a necessary evaluation was performed and revealed that there is absence of contraindications.
      Which of the following would be considered the drug of choice for tocolysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin antagonists

      Explanation:

      Tocolysis is an obstetrical procedure to prolong gestation in patients, some of which are experiencing preterm labour. This is achieved through various medications that work to inhibit contractions of uterine smooth muscle.

      There is no definitive first-line tocolytic agent by the American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology (ACOG) but nifedipine is most commonly used. However, in severe aortic stenosis, nifedipine can cause ventricular collapse and dysfunction.

      The therapeutic target in the treatment of preterm labour is currently the pharmacological inhibition of uterine contractions with the use of various tocolytic agents. Tocolytic agents are used to maintain pregnancy for 24–48 hours to allow corticosteroids administration to act and to permit the transfer of the mother to a centre with a neonatal intensive care unit.

      Oxytocin inhibitors work by competitively acting at the oxytocin receptor site. Oxytocin acts to increase the intracellular levels of inositol triphosphate. The medications currently in this class are atosiban and retosiban. Maternal nor fetal side effects have not been described for this tocolytic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 97 - Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus...

    Incorrect

    • Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus Arteriosus (DA) at Parturition. Which of the following is the most important in maintaining the patency of the DA during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PGE2

      Explanation:

      Functional closure of the ductus arteriosus is neonates is completed within the first few days after birth. It normally occurs by the 12th postnatal week. It has been suggested that persistent patency of DA results from a failure of the TGF-B induction after birth. Due to increased arterial pO2, constriction of the DA occurs. In addition to this on inflation the bradykinin system is activated with cause the smooth muscles in the DA to constrict. A decrease in the E2 prostaglandin is also an important factor as raised levels have been indicated in keeping the patency of the DA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 98 - A 30-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy has been diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis of iliofemoral veins.
      Which of the following is considered the best management for the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Therapeutic dose of low molecular weight heparin for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) during pregnancy is associated with high mortality, morbidity, and costs. Pulmonary embolism (PE), its most feared complication, is the leading cause of maternal death in the developed world. DVT can also result in long-term complications that include post thrombotic syndrome (PTS) adding to its morbidity. Women are up to 5 times more likely to develop DVT when pregnant. The current standard of care for this condition is anticoagulation.

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred agent for prophylaxis and treatment of DVT during pregnancy. A disadvantage of LMWH over unfractionated heparin (UFH) is its longer half-life, which may be a problem at the time of delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 99 - A patient at 15 weeks gestation undergoes an abortion. She has no known...

    Incorrect

    • A patient at 15 weeks gestation undergoes an abortion. She has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate regarding antibiotic prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stat Azithromycin 1g and metronidazole 800 mg orally at time of abortion

      Explanation:

      First trimester abortions are performed using mifepristone 600 mg followed by insertion of 1 mg gemeprost vaginal pessary. The patients stays in the hospital for about 4-6 hours. At the time of abortion azithromycin 1 g and metronidazole 800 mg should be given to cover the gram positive and negative bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 100 - Which of the following muscles is NOT a constituent of the pelvic floor...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is NOT a constituent of the pelvic floor (diaphragm)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Piriformis

      Explanation:

      The pelvic floor or diaphragm is composed of Coccygeus and Levator Ani. Levitator Ani is composed of 3 muscles: puborectalis, pubococcygeus and iliococcygeal. Although Piriformis assists in closing the posterior pelvic outlet it is not considered a component of the pelvic floor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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