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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following cell types act as professional antigen presenter cells (APCs)
Your Answer: Neutrophils
Correct Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:Macrophages are the antigen presenting cells, they phagocytose the pathogen and after breaking them down present their protein structure to the B and T cells for a specific immune reaction to take place.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 36 year old woman has a pelvic ultrasound scan showing multiple fibroids. What is the most common form of fibroid degeneration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyaline degeneration
Explanation:Hyaline degeneration is the most common form of fibroid degeneration. Fibroids:
Risk Factors
– Black Ethnicity
– Obesity
– Early Puberty
– Increasing age (from puberty until menopause)
Protective Factors
– Pregnancy
– Multiparity -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Hypemesis gravidarum occurs in what percentage of pregnancies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.50%
Explanation:Nausea and vomiting experienced in 80% of pregnancies Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting which affects around 1.5% of women. Caused by high levels HCG. Definitions vary but most consider it to be defined by severe nausea and vomiting associated with weight loss greater than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight with metabolic disturbance (typically dehydration and/or ketosis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 4
Incorrect
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In normal pregnancy, levels of all of the following hormones increases, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the 2nd & 3rd trimesters
Explanation:In order to maintain fetal bone growth, the maternal compartment undergoes adjustments that provide a net transfer of sufficient calcium to the foetus. Maternal compartment changes that permit calcium accumulation include increases in maternal dietary intake, increases in maternal 1, 25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 levels, and increases in parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels. The levels of total calcium and phosphorus decline in maternal serum, but ionized calcium levels remain unchanged. During pregnancy, the placenta forms a calcium pump in which a gradient of calcium and phosphorus is established which favours the foetus. Thus, circulating fetal calcium and phosphorus levels increase steadily throughout gestation. Furthermore, fetal levels of total and ionized calcium, as well as phosphorus, exceed maternal levels at term. By 10-12 weeks’ gestation, the fetal parathyroid glands secrete PTH. Fetal plasma levels of PTH are low during gestation, but increase after delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mid-cycle elevation in prolactin
Explanation:An elevation in serum PRL is associated with a variety of reproductive disorders, including amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, anovulation and/or luteal phase defects with subsequent infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends through the vaginal mucosa into the perineal muscle and fascia. The external anal sphincter appears to be in tact. How would you classify this tear?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2nd
Explanation:If the external anal sphincter is in tact then this is a 1st or 2nd degree tear. As the perineal muscles are involved this is 2nd degree tear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration of severe dysmenorrhea. Analgesia with paracetamol, panadeine as well as indomethacin did not provide much relief. The girl is very concerned that the underlying cause could be something sinister.
What is the most likely cause of her dysmenorrhea?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endometrial prostaglandin release.
Explanation:It is less common for a girl of this age to develop fibroids, endometriosis and endometrial polyps, although these are all causes of severe dysmenorrhea. Chronic pelvic infection can be due to sexually transmitted disease but the history does not mention any previous episodes of pelvic pain or symptoms of infection such as fever. In this case, it is most likely that she has primary dysmenorrhea. Primary dysmenorrhea, in which no pathological cause can be identified, is believed to be due to the prostaglandins released by the secretory endometrium. If secondary dysmenorrhea is suspected, then endometriosis would be the most prominent cause.
While hysteroscopic and laparoscopic examinations are commonly done in adult women to rule out organic causes such as those mentioned earlier, in younger girls, they are usually only carried out if pain management with, for example, NSAIDs and the use of COCPs, have failed to either provide symptom relief or reduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst hatch from the zone pellucida?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5-Jul
Explanation:Shortly after the morula enters the uterus, around the 4th day after fertilization, a clear cystic cavity starts forming inside the morula. The fluid passes through the zona pellucida from the uterine cavity and hence forms the blastocyst.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence for the past 12 months after having four pregnancies before the age of 30. She has to wear a 'pad' inside her pants all of the time because of this condition. She isn't on any hormone replacement therapy at the moment. Which of the following signs indicates that the incontinence is most likely true stress incontinence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Only small quantities of urine ore lost each time she is incontinent.
Explanation:Only little volumes of urine are lost when her intra-abdominal pressure is elevated during coughing, laughing, jumping, and straining, which is the only symptom associated with real stress incontinence.
The other reactions are significantly more compatible with a detrusor instability diagnosis (also called urge incontinence).
If she had incontinence throughout pregnancy, it would have been stress in nature, which is what her current incontinence is. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coagulopathy
Explanation:A serious complication with a miscarriage is DIC, a severe blood clotting condition and is more likely if there is a long time until the foetus and other tissues are passed, which is often the case in missed abortion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presented to the medical clinic for emergency contraception. Upon interview, it was revealed that she had unprotected sexual intercourse last night and is worried that she may become pregnant. She mentioned that her last menstrual period was 1 week ago, and she has regular menses since menarche.
Further physical examination was performed and results are normal and her urine pregnancy test is negative. After discussing various emergency contraceptive options, the patient asked for a pill option and requested to not inform her parents about this visit.
In most states, which of the following is considered the most appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Provide levonorgestrel pill
Explanation:Levonorgestrel, also known as the morning-after pill, is a first-line oral emergency contraceptive pill with approval from the World Health Organization to prevent pregnancy. It is FDA-approved to be used within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse or when a presumed contraceptive failure has occurred.
A prescription is not needed, and it is available over the counter at local pharmacies. The FDA has also approved levonorgestrel availability for all age groups due to its lack of life-threatening contraindications and side-effect profile.
There are several contraindications for the emergency contraceptive form, including allergy, hypersensitivity, severe liver disease, pregnancy, and drug-drug interactions with liver enzyme-inducing drugs. The medication is not for use in women confirmed to be pregnant; however, there is no proof nor reports of adverse effects on the mother or foetus following inadvertent exposure during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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When is the highest risk of maternal-fetal transmission of Toxoplasma Gondii during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 26-40 weeks
Explanation:The risk of transplacental transmission from mother to foetus is greater in later pregnancy i.e. 26-40 weeks. Although the risk of transmission is lower in early pregnancy, if infection does occur earlier, particularly before 10 weeks, then complications are typically more severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal check-up. Upon interview, the patient revealed that she has been smoking one pack of cigarettes per day for the past five years.
All of the following are considered correct regarding the disadvantages of smoking during pregnancy, except:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased risk of developing small teeth with faulty enamel
Explanation:Small teeth with faulty enamel is more associated with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
In FAS, the most common orofacial changes are small eyelid fissures , flat facies, maxillary hypoplasia, short nose, long and hypoplastic nasal filter, and thin upper lip. The unique facial appearance of FAS patients is the result of changes in 4 areas: short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge with an upturned nasal tip, hypoplastic philtrum with a thin upper vermillion border, and a flat midface. Other facial anomalies include micrognathia, occasional cleft lip and/or palate and small teeth with defective enamel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Oxytocin binds to what receptor type?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: G-protein-coupled receptors
Explanation:Oxytocin binds to the G protein coupled receptors that triggers the IP3 mechanism leading to an elevated intracellular calcium ion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old lady taking oral contraceptives came to your clinic with her boyfriend. She got severe diarrhoea and vomiting after eating a hamburger at a local eatery while on the road. She has taken her pills as prescribed.
What is your contraception advice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Use condoms for 7 days and continue usual pills
Explanation:The CDC recommends that:
If diarrhoea occurs within 24 hours of taking oral birth control or continues for 24 to 48 hours after taking a pill, an additional dose is not needed.
If diarrhoea lasts more than 48 hours Use backup birth control, such as condoms, or avoid sexual intercourse until pills have been taken for seven diarrhoea-free days.All other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she plans to get pregnant soon. However, she is worried about how she should change her diet once she becomes pregnant already.
Which of the following is considered the best to give to the patient in addition to giving folic acid?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iodine
Explanation:There is evidence that folic acid, iodine and vitamin D are important for reproductive outcomes. Folic acid and iodine supplementation is recommended for women planning to conceive and in pregnancy.
The recommended dose of folic acid for women without special considerations planning to conceive is 400-500 mcg. The recommended dose of folic acid for women with special considerations is 2-5 mg per day.
Women planning a pregnancy, including those with thyroid disease, should take iodine supplements in the dose of 150 mcg per day prior to and during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Question 18
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dating ultrasound along with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97 percent
Explanation:Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.
The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female G2P1 is in labour at the 38th week of gestation. Her membranes ruptured about 8 hours ago. At the moment, she is having contractions lasting 60 seconds every 4 minutes and is 8 cm dilated. The fetal heart tone baseline is currently 80/min with absent variability. The pregnancy was uneventful and she had regular prenatal check-ups.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maternal position change and oxygen
Explanation:This patient is towards the end of the first stage of labour and is having complications. Labour is divided into 3 stages. The first stage begins at regular uterine contractions and ends with complete cervical dilatation at 10 cm. It has a latent phase and an active phase- The active phase is usually considered to have begun when cervical dilatation reaches 4 cm. So this patient is in the active phase of the first stag- The second stage begins with complete cervical dilatation and ends with the delivery of the foetus. The third stage of labour is the period between the delivery of the foetus and the delivery of the placenta and fetal membranes.
This patient’s contractions seem adequate and yet the fetal heart tone with baseline 80/min and absent variability suggests fetal distress. This is category III of the fetal heart rate pattern because the baseline rate is < 110/min with absent variability. It is usually predictive of abnormal acid-base status. The recommended actions are maternal position change and oxygen administration, discontinuation of labour stimulus such as oxytocin, treatment of possible underlying conditions, and expedited delivery.
→ Magnesium sulphate infusion is mainly used to prevent eclamptic seizures and despite no evidence of its effectiveness as a tocolytic agent, it is used sometimes to reduce risks of preterm birth.
→ Fetal scalp pH monitoring would help determine if there is indeed an acidosis and should be done before deciding whether a Caesarean section is necessary, but maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
→ Ultrasonography may be used for preinduction cervical length measurement or if the active stage has already started- It is considered more accurate than digital pelvic exam in the assessment of fetal descent; however, at this point maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
→ Immediate Caesarean section would be done if fetal scalp pH monitoring revealed a pH < 7.20. At this point, the best next step is maternal position change and oxygen administration. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presented to the emergency department after developing a fever, lower abdominal pain, and uterine tenderness following a vaginal delivery. Upon observation, it was noted that she remains alert, and her blood pressure and urine output are good.
A cervical smear was ordered and results revealed the presence of large, Gram-positive rods suggestive of Clostridia.
Which of the following is to be considered before proceeding with hysterectomy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gas gangrene
Explanation:Gas gangrene is synonymous with myonecrosis and is a highly lethal infection of deep soft tissue, caused by Clostridium species, with Clostridium perfringens being the most common. This organism has also had increased incidence as the cause of deep tissue infections associated with childbirth and infections after gynaecologic procedures including septic abortions, which can cause gas gangrene of the uterus.
Health care workers should suspect gas gangrene if anaerobic gram-positive bacilli are present in a wound with necrosis of soft tissue and muscle. The organisms produce a gas identifiable on x-ray or CT scans.
Patients with gas gangrene (myonecrosis) present with signs of infection such as fever, chills, pain, and less superficial inflammation at the site of infection than one would expect given the deep penetrating nature of these infections. The condition of the patient can rapidly progress to sepsis and death if not treated aggressively. The wound discharge is often dishwater looking with a musty order. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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According to the WHO, maternal death is defined as which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The death of a women whilst pregnant or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy
Explanation:The WHO defines maternal death as female death from any cause related to pregnancy or its management, including childbirth or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy. This is irrespective of the duration or site of the pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You are asked to infiltrate a patients perineum with local anaesthetic prior to episiotomy. What is the maximum dose of lidocaine (without adrenaline)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 mg/kg
Explanation:The half-life of lidocaine is approximately 1.5 hours. It is a local anaesthetic and the maximum dose that can be given is 3mg/kg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 46 year old women with a BMI of 34 is seen in clinic following hysteroscopy and biopsy for irregular menstrual bleeding. Histology shows atypical hyperplasia. Which of the following is the most appropriate 1st line management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic hysterectomy
Explanation:There is an increase risk of developing carcinoma of the uterus, if the endometrium shows hyperplasia with atypia. The standard surgery is total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingectomy which can be performed abdominally or laparoscopically If the disease is grade 1-2 and less than 1B i.e. less than 50% invasion of the uterine body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman is planning to conceive and comes for your advice. She has a history of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy and has been stable on sodium valproate. Despite your full explanations about the risks of the teratogenicity of antiepileptic drugs, she insists she wants to be a mother and asks you to guide her.
Among the following which would be the most appropriate advice to give this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue sodium valproate
Explanation:As they respond differently to different drugs, a thorough distinguishing must be done between the two major groups of epilepsies while approaching a woman, who wishes to become pregnant while on antiepileptic drugs.
Partial epilepsies will respond to most of the antiepileptic drugs, but in case of idiopathic generalized epilepsies, especially in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, seizure can be controlled only with a reasonably low dose of sodium valproate. Although lamotrigine may be helpful but substitution of sodium valproate with lamotrigine is not the right choice. This is because lamotrigine is not as effective as sodium valproate and will sometimes worsens myoclonic seizures in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.
Topiramate and levetiracetam are found to be effective in idiopathic generalized epilepsy, while carbamazepine, phenytoin and gabapentin may worsen some seizure types, especially in myoclonic and absence seizures. For some women with idiopathic generalized epilepsies, there will be no effective alternative to sodium valproate as cessation of sodium valproate will lead to recurrence of the generalized seizures, especially juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Hence, it is not advisable to discontinue the drug in auch patients.
On the other hand, sodium valproate have the highest reported teratogenicity potential among antiepileptic drugs and the Australian Pregnancy Register has reported the risk to be as high as 16% if used in first trimester. Sodium valproate should be avoided in women of reproductive age and if a patient on the medication is willing to become pregnant, she should be well informed about the risk of teratogenicity and the decision must be left to her. If she decides to accept the risks and continue with pregnancy, the lowest possible effective dose should be prescribed to her.
If the dose of sodium valproate has been reduced to minimum during pregnancy to reduce the possible teratogenesis, it is recommended to re-establish the prepartum effective dose before the onset of labor. This is because, it is the time with increased risk for seizures, especially in patients with idiopathic generalised epilepsy who are very sensitive to sleep deprivation. Valproate therapy is found to be safe during breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The amniotic fluid volume peaks at around 900ml. At what gestation does the amniotic fluid reach its maximum volume?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 35 weeks
Explanation:The amniotic fluid volume increases up to week 35 of gestation and then decreases from then to term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A previous infant with Group B streptococcus disease regardless of present culture
Explanation:Group B Streptococcus (GBS) or Streptococcus agalactiae is a Gram-positive bacteria which colonizes the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract. In the United States of America, GBS is known to be the most common infectious cause of morbidity and mortality in neonates. GBS is known to cause both early onset and late onset infections in neonates, but current interventions are only effective in the prevention of early-onset disease.
The main risk factor for early-onset GBS infection is colonization of the maternal genital tract with Group B Streptococcus during labour. GBS is a normal flora of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, which is thought to be the main source for maternal colonization.
The principal route of neonatal early onset GBS infection is vertical transmission from colonized mothers during passage through the vagina during labour and delivery.
Intravenous penicillin G is the treatment of choice for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis against Group B Streptococcus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid cycle. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue pills as usual.
Explanation:Breakthrough bleeding, or spotting, refers to when vaginal bleeding occurs between menstrual cycles. It may look like light bleeding or brown discharge.
Spotting is the most common side effect of birth control pills. It happens because the body is adjusting to changing levels of hormones, and the uterus is adjusting to having a thinner lining.
Taking the pill as prescribed, usually every day and at the same time each day, can help prevent bleeding between periods.
All other options are incorrect as this is a common side effect and will resolve on its own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Where is fetal DHEA produced?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenals
Explanation:Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a steroid hormone synthesised from cholesterol (via Pregnenolone) by the adrenal glands. The foetus manufactures DHEA, which stimulates the placenta to form oestrogen, thus keeping a pregnancy going. Production of DHEA stops at birth, then begins again around age seven and peaks when a person is in their mid-20s
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which one of the following dimensions relates to the greatest diameter of the fetal head?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Occipitomental
Explanation:Occipitomental diameter is the greatest diameter of the fetal scalp and runs from chin to the prominent portion on the occiput. It measure about 12.5cm in diameter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 41 year old woman is referred to EPAU with spotting in early pregnancy. What is the risk of miscarriage in women in this age group?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Miscarriage rates:
20-24 – 9%
25-29 – 11%
30-34 – 15%
35-39 – 25%
40-44 – 51%
>45 – 75% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old G1P0 woman who is at 14 weeks of gestation presented to the medical clinic complaining of persistent nausea and vomiting. Upon history taking and interview, she reported that she frequently had poor appetite and felt lethargic. From her pre-pregnancy weight, it was also noted that she had 3% weight loss in difference. Upon further clinical observation, she looked dry, accompanied with coated tongue.
If the diagnosis of “hyperemesis gravidarum” is to be considered, which of the following will most likely confirm that diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: she looks dry with coated tongue
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to intractable vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss and volume depletion, resulting in ketonuria and/or ketonemia. There is no consensus on specific diagnostic criteria, but it generally refers to the severe end of the spectrum regarding nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
Hormone changes wherein hCG levels peak during the first trimester corresponds to the typical onset of hyperemesis symptoms. It is well-known that the lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes during pregnancy due to the elevations in estrogen and progesterone. This leads to an increased incidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms in pregnancy, and one symptom of GERD is nausea.
Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to extreme cases of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. The criteria for diagnosis include vomiting that causes significant dehydration (as evidenced by ketonuria or electrolyte abnormalities, and the dry with coated tongue) and weight loss (the most commonly cited marker for this is the loss of at least five percent of the patient’s pre-pregnancy weight) in the setting of pregnancy without any other underlying pathological cause for vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 32
Incorrect
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What is the lower reference limit for sperm concentration according to the WHO criteria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15 million spermatozoa per ml
Explanation:WHO guidelines
Semen volume: Greater than or equal to 1.5 ml
pH: Greater than or equal to 7.2
Sperm concentration: Greater than or equal to 15 million spermatozoa per ml
Total sperm number: 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate or more
Total motility (% of progressive motility and nonprogressive motility): 40% or more motile or 32% or more with progressive motility
Vitality: 58% or more live spermatozoa
Sperm morphology (percentage of normal forms): 4% or more -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 33
Incorrect
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After birth, all of the following vessels constrict, EXCEPT the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatic portal vein
Explanation:Immediately after birth the liver is deprived of the large flow of blood supplied during foetal development via the umbilical vein and portal sinus. Simultaneously the blood pressure in the portal sinus, previously as high as in the umbilical vein, falls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Question 35
Incorrect
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The following measures are usually performed during a routine antenatal visit for a healthy uncomplicated pregnancy at 36 weeks gestation, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mid-steam urine specimen (MSU) for culture & sensitivity
Explanation:At the 36‑week appointment, all pregnant women should be seen again. At this appointment: measure blood pressure and test urine for proteinuria; measure and plot symphysis–fundal height; check position of baby; for women whose babies are in the breech presentation, offer external cephalic version (ECV)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual periods. Her general physical examination, pelvic examination, and HPV test are normal and she has a negative pregnancy test. A CBC and chemistry profile are also normal. The next step in her workup should be:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclic administration of progesterone for 3 months
Explanation:Abnormal uterine bleeding is a relatively common disorder which may be due to functional disorders of the hypothalamus, pituitary, or ovary, as well as uterine lesions. However, the patient who is younger than 30 years of age will rarely be found to have a structural uterine defect. Once pregnancy, hematologic disease, and renal impairment are excluded, administration of intramuscular or oral progesterone will usually produce definitive flow and control the bleeding. No further evaluation should be necessary unless the bleeding recurs.
Endometrial aspiration, dilatation and curettage, and other diagnostic procedures are appropriate for recurrent problem or for older women. Oestrogen would only increase the problem, which is usually due to anovulation with prolonged oestrogen secretion, producing a hypertrophic endometrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A patient at 15 weeks gestation undergoes an abortion. She has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate regarding antibiotic prophylaxis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stat Azithromycin 1g and metronidazole 800 mg orally at time of abortion
Explanation:First trimester abortions are performed using mifepristone 600 mg followed by insertion of 1 mg gemeprost vaginal pessary. The patients stays in the hospital for about 4-6 hours. At the time of abortion azithromycin 1 g and metronidazole 800 mg should be given to cover the gram positive and negative bacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Multiple Gestation is frequently associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post-maturity
Explanation:Multiple pregnancy is considered a high risk for obstetric complications such as spontaneous abortion, hypertensive disorders, placenta previa, and fetal malformations. Specifically, the incidence of hypertensive disorders, a common source of maternal morbidity, is 15% to 35% in twin pregnancies, which is two to five times higher than in singleton pregnancies. Additionally, the aetiology of preterm birth is not completely understood, but the association between multiple pregnancy and preterm birth is well known. A secondary analysis of the WHO Global Survey dataset indicated that 35.2% of multiple births were preterm (< 37 weeks gestation); of all multiple births, 6.1% of births were before 32 weeks gestation, 5.8% were during weeks 32 and 33, and 23.2% were during weeks 34 through 37
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old primigravid woman comes to the office to establish prenatal care at 14 weeks gestation. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping, no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a daily dose of prenatal vitamin. Patient follows a vegan diet and drinks 2 cups of coffee in the morning, also she is an avid runner who runs 5 miles most days. Patient does not use tobacco, alcohol or any other illicit drugs.
On physical examination her vital signs are normal, with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22 kg/m2.
Transvaginal ultrasound shows a single intrauterine gestation with a heart rate of 155/min.
Among the following possible lifestyle modifications needed during pregnancy, which is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase caloric intake by about 350 kcal/day
Explanation:Nutrition in pregnancy
Weight gain must be:
– In patients <18.5 kg/m2, there should be an increase of 12.7 - 18 kg (28-40 lb)
– In patients 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb)
– In patients 25 – 29.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 6.8 – 11.4 kg (15-25 lb)
– In patients ≥30 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 5 – 9 kg (11-20 lb)Supplementation required:
– Intake of daily prenatal vitamin
– Additional specific supplements as indicated
– Avoidance of harmful substances like drugs, alcohol, etc
– Substance abuse counseling
– Avoidance of fish with high mercury levels
– Moderating caffeine intakeFood safety:
– Avoid undercooked meat, fish & eggs
– Clean raw fruits & vegetables before consuming
– Avoid unpasteurized dairy productsNutrition in pregnancy is addressed at the initial prenatal visit based on pre-pregnancy BMI. Appropriate weight gain for a women with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 should be 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy. This weight gain is equivalent to the increasing caloric intake of 350 kcal/day during the second and 450 kcal/day during the third trimesters. Patients following any specific diets like veganism can continue their usual diet throughout pregnancy as long as it contains a well-balanced quantity of protein, carbohydrates and fats.
Vitamin and mineral supplementation during pregnancy is a single, daily prenatal vitamin recommended for majority of pregnant women as it helps to fulfill most of the daily vitamin and mineral supplementation requirements. In case of patients with vitamin or mineral deficiencies like iron, calcium, etc, a specific supplementation of the deficit vitamin/mineral only is required rather than multiple prenatal vitamins to avoid consuming harmful amounts of other vitamins like vitamin A. Vegans, who are at risk for some vitamin and mineral deficiencies like vitamin B12, calcium, iron, etc, secondary to lack of meat consumption, may require supplementation.
Pregnant women are counselled on avoidance of harmful substances like alcohol, drugs, etc and substances like fish with high mercury levels. Although high caffeine intake during pregnancy can be harmful, a moderate intake ie, 1 or 2 cups of coffee a day is thought to be safe.
Safe handling of food is important because some food products are found to result in congenital infection and intrauterine fetal demise. Patients are also counselled to avoid undercooked meat, fish, and eggs; to thoroughly clean raw fruits and vegetables and to avoid consumption of unpasteurized dairy products.
By maintaining a proper maternal nutrition during pregnancy, patients are provide appropriate nutrition to the fetal and thereby reducing the risk of pregnancy related complications like low birth weight, preterm delivery, etc.
Pregnant patients are counseled to avoid exercises like contact sports, downhill skiing, etc which increases the risk of abdominal trauma resulting in increased risk of placental abruption. But those patients with an uncomplicated pregnancy, who are already accustomed with long-duration, high-intensity exercise like running 5 miles/day, as in the given case, can continue with their regimen if tolerated.
Proper nutrition in pregnancy includes appropriate weight gain, supplementation of vitamins and minerals, avoidance of any harmful substances, and safe handling of food. Patients with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI should gain around 11.4-15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy by increasing their caloric intake by 350 kcal/day in the second and 450 kcal/day in the third trimesters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 26 year old women presents for her 12 week scan. She has been pregnant once before but had a 1st trimester miscarriage. She reports no problems with this pregnancy and has had no vaginal bleeding or spotting. The scan shows no fetal cardiac activity and a small gestational sac. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Missed Miscarriage
Explanation:As there has been no bleeding or expulsion of the products of conception this is a missed miscarriage
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following features indicates complete placental separation after delivery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the options given
Explanation:At the time of delivery, the most important signs of complete placental separation are lengthening of the umbilical cord, per vaginal bleeding and change in shape of uterus from discoid to globular shape. The uterus contracts in size and rises upward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 42
Incorrect
-
DHEA is synthesized from which molecule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholesterol
Explanation:Dehydroepiandrosterone is an androgen precursor produced primarily by the adrenal glands in women. The steroid hormone is produced from cholesterol at birth by the fetal adrenal glands, after which its output reduces. DHEA production picks up again from the age of 5-7 years and peaks between the ages of 20-30.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for advice since her other two children were diagnosed with whooping cough just 8 weeks ago, she is worried for her newborn about the risk of developing whooping cough.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give to the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa now
Explanation:To help protect babies during this time when they are most vulnerable, women should get the tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap) during each pregnancy.
Pregnant women should receive Tdap anytime during pregnancy if it is indicated for wound care or during a community pertussis outbreak.
If Tdap is administered earlier in pregnancy, it should not be repeated between 27 and 36 weeks gestation; only one dose is recommended during each pregnancy.Optimal timing is between 27 and 36 weeks gestation (preferably during the earlier part of this period) to maximize the maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the infant.
Fewer babies will be hospitalized for and die from pertussis when Tdap is given during pregnancy rather than during the postpartum period. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 44
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old pregnant elementary school teacher presented to the medical clinic because she found out that one of her students has been recently diagnosed with rubella, but the diagnosis was not confirmed by serologic tests. Upon interview, it was noted that her last rubella vaccination was when she was 12 years old.
Which of the following is considered the best management as the next step to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check rubella serology
Explanation:Rubella infection during pregnancy may lead to miscarriage, intrauterine fetal demise, premature labour, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital rubella syndrome. The risk of developing complications is highest if the infection is contracted within the first 12 weeks of gestation.
In those cases in which a pregnant woman has been exposed to a suspected rubella case, a specimen of blood should be tested as soon as possible for the measurement of rubella-specific IgG antibodies. If it is positive, then the woman was likely to be immune and could be reassured. If it is negative, a determination rubella-specific IgG and rubella-specific IgM antibodies should be obtained in 3 weeks to exclude an asymptomatic primary rubella infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 45
Incorrect
-
Haemolytic Disease of the New-born falls into what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type II
Explanation:It is classified under type II hypersensitivity reaction. Antibodies are formed against the rhesus antigen i.e. D antigen. Hence when the Antibody reacts with the antigen on the RBC it results in activation of the complement cascade leading to lysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 46
Incorrect
-
A patient attends clinic with a vaginal prolapse. On examination the vaginal prolapse is visible 1.5cm above the plane of the hymen. According to the POPQ classification what grade is this prolapse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grade 1
Explanation:This is a grade 1 prolapse
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 47
Incorrect
-
Regarding CTG (cardiotocography) analysis what is the normal range for variability?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5-25 bpm
Explanation:Fetal hypoxia may cause absent, increased or decreased variability. Other causes of decreased variability include: normal fetal sleep-wake pattern, prematurity and following maternal administration of certain drugs including opioids.
Variability Range:
Normal – 5 bpm – 25bpm
Increased – >25 bpm
Decreased – <5 bpm
Absent – <2 bpm -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
A 46-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of irregular heavy menstruation. She had normal menstrual pattern 6 months back. Physical examination revealed no abnormality with a negative cervical smear. Laboratory investigation reveals a haemoglobin of 105g/L (Normal 115-165g/L). The most common cause of such menorrhagia is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anovulatory cycles.
Explanation:Menorrhagia in a 45-year-old woman is most likely caused by an ovulation issue, most likely anovulatory cycles, particularly if the periods have grown irregular.
Endometrial carcinoma is a rare cause of menorrhagia that usually occurs after menopause.
Menorrhagia can be caused by fibroids, endometrial polyps, and adenomyosis, although the cycles are normally regular, and a dramatic change from normal cycles six months prior would be exceptional.
If fibroids or adenomyosis are the source of the menorrhagia, the uterus is usually enlarged. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 49
Incorrect
-
Under which one of the following conditions is the pelvic inlet felt to be contracted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Contracted pelvis occurs when one or more of its diameters is reduced so that it interferes with the normal mechanism of labour. A transverse diameter below 11 cm will result in difficult delivery of the foetus and C-section will be the better option in that case
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 50
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her gestation.
This is considered as the best time for which one of the following?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:Between 18-20 weeks of gestation is the best time to perform an ultrasound for the identification of any physical or anatomical abnormalities including neural tube defects.
Maternal serum screening for Down syndrome is best performed between 15-17 weeks of pregnancy and this screening includes analysis of alpha fetoprotein, estriol, and beta-HCG in maternal blood. Conducting tests on accurate dates is necessary to obtain reliable results.
Amniocentesis which is very accurate for the diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies including Down syndrome, is best performed between 16-18 weeks of gestation and it carries a risk of 1 in 200 for miscarriage. Rh negative women will need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).
Chorionic villus sampling is best performed between 10-12 weeks of gestation and carries a 1 in 100 risk of miscarriage, this test is also very much accurate for diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies. Rh negative women need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).
It is best to perform rubella screen before conception than during pregnancy, this is because rubella vaccine is not recommended to be given to a pregnant mother as its a live vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 51
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.
Explanation:Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 52
Incorrect
-
Regarding pelvic inflammatory disease, which of the following is the tubal factor infertility rate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12.50%
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a known risk factor in causing tubal infertility due to its role in tubal damage. The tubal infertility rate after one episode of PID is thought to be about 12.5%. After two episodes the risk increases to 25%, and 50% after three episodes. The usual causative agents are chlamydia and gonorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 53
Incorrect
-
A 18-year-old girl arrives at the ER with severe abdominal pain. When it started, she was in the school band. She says the pain began 30 minutes ago in the left lower region and didn't radiate. On a scale of 1 to 10, the discomfort is a 7 and is not accompanied by nausea, vomiting, or diarrhoea. Menarche began at the age of thirteen. Her menses were erratic at first, but she has had regular periods for the past six months.
Her vital signs are stable, and she has no fever. She uses combination oral contraceptives and is sexually active. She denies taking any other drugs. A flat abdomen with regular peristalsis is revealed on physical examination. Pelvic examination indicates a regular vagina with a normal-appearing cervix. There is no mucopurulent cervical discharge. Bimanual examination is remarkable with a tender 5-cm mass in the left adnexa.
A pregnancy test result is negative. A pelvic sonogram exhibits a normal intrauterine pregnancy and a 5 X 6 cm complex mass of the left ovary, with focal areas of calcification.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic teratoma
Explanation:Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.
Most mature cystic teratomas can be diagnosed at ultrasonography (US) but may have a variety of appearances, characterized by echogenic sebaceous material and calcification.
Follicular cysts are simple fluid-filled cysts and never have calcifications.
Mucinous cystadenoma usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence However, calcifications are not usually seen.
Brenner tumour is also a benign epithelial ovarian tumour but it is solid, occurring most often in women over 50 years of age.
Serous cystadenoma also does not show calcifications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 54
Incorrect
-
The inguinal canal is reinforced anterolaterally by which structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal oblique
Explanation:The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal ligament is part of the floor.
The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 55
Incorrect
-
During the inflammatory phase of wound healing what is the predominant cell type found in the wound during days 3-4?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:PMNs phagocytise debris and kill bacteria via free radicals (AKA respiratory burst). They also break down damaged tissue. PMNs typically undergo apoptosis after 48 hours. They are then engulfed and degraded by macrophages. Macrophages therefore become the predominant cell type in the wound on days 3-4.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 56
Incorrect
-
Which of the following has been shown to increase ovarian cancer risk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hormone replacement therapy (oestrogen only)
Explanation:Factors that increase the risk of ovarian cancer include nulliparity, IUD, endometriosis, cigarette smoking, HRT and obesity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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Question 58
Incorrect
-
On the sixth day of her menstrual cycle, a 25-year-old lady comes to your clinic with slight lower abdomen pain. She has no children and lives with her male companion. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, her pulse is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.5°C.
On vaginal examination, no adnexal lump is palpated, however cervical motion pain is noticed.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervical swabs for culture
Explanation:Pain upon movement of the cervix with the health care provider’s gloved fingers is suggestive of an inflammatory process of the pelvic organs. CMT, when present, is classically found on bimanual examination of the cervix and uterus. While CMT is often associated with pelvic inflammatory disease, it can be present in other disease entities such as ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, ovarian torsion, appendicitis, and perforated abdominal viscus.
PID is not a singular disease entity but describes a spectrum of disease. It is an upper genital tract infection, which may affect the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and peritoneum. PID can begin as cervicitis, progress to endometritis, followed by involvement of the fallopian tubes as pyosalpinx, and ultimately involve the ovary as a tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA). The two most common causative pathogens are N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis although the infection is often polymicrobial.
Documentation of infection with either of these two organisms must be done by cervical swabs for culture.
Transvaginal ultrasound or CT scan can be done to confirm diagnosis however the absence of findings in these investigations doesn’t rule out the possibility of PID.
Urinalysis can be done to exclude urinary tract infection, one of the possible differential diagnosis for PID.
Thyroid stimulating hormone has no role in the diagnosis of PID.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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Question 60
Incorrect
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Question 61
Incorrect
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Question 62
Incorrect
-
Chief role of the mid-cycle LH surge is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All are correct
Explanation:LH surge occurs around ovulation and it is this LH surge which results in completion of the 1st meiotic division and ovulation occurs. It enhances the production of androgens and also luteinizes the granulosa cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 63
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements is true regarding the development of external genitalia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The genital fold forms the scrotum in males
Explanation:Genital folds lead to the formation of the scrotum in males while in females they form the posterior labial commissure. Genital tubercles form the labia majora whereas the tubercle itself becomes the mons pubis. The labia minora is formed by the urogenital folds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
Completion of the 3rd stage of labour refers to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Expulsion of the placenta and membranes
Explanation:The third stage of labours starts from the delivery of the foetus to the delivery of the placenta and the membranes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 65
Incorrect
-
A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. You diagnose Erb-Duchenne palsy. Which nerve roots are typically affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C5 and C6
Explanation:Erb’s or Erb-Duchenne palsy is a type of brachial plexus injury. The brachial plexus comprises C5 to T1 nerve roots. In Erb’s palsy C5 and C6 are the roots primarily affected. Shoulder Dystocia is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 66
Incorrect
-
What percentage of testosterone is bound to SHBG?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:About 97% of the testosterone that is secreted loosely binds to the SHBG and circulates in the blood for several hours in this bound state until it is transported to the target organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 67
Incorrect
-
In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis. The risk of early onset neonatal Group B Streptococcus sepsis can be reduced by screening for Group B streptococcus status and by the use of intrapartum antibiotics.
From the below given statements, which is false regarding Group B streptococcus screening and intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: For elective caesarian section before the commencement of labour give antibiotics prophylaxis is recommended, irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage
Explanation:A rectovaginal swab taken for Group B streptococci culture should be done in women presenting with threatened preterm labour
If labour is establishes, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be commenced and continued until delivery. In cases were labour is not establish, prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be ceased and should be re-established only if the culture is found to be positive, that too at the time of onset of labour.
Strategies acceptable for reducing early onset Group B streptococci sepsis includes universal culture-based screening using combined low vaginal plus or minus anorectal swab at 35-37 weeks gestation or a clinical risk factor based approach.
No additional prophylaxis is recommended irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage, for elective cesarean section before the commencement of labour. However, if a woman who commences labour or has spontaneous rupture of the membranes before her planned Caesarean section is screened positive for Group B streptococci, she should receive intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis while awaiting delivery.
Although there is little direct evidence to guide this practice, consideration of the above mentioned evidences it is recommendation that, every women with unknown Group B streptococci status at the time of delivery should be managed according to the presence of intrapartum risk factors.
All women at increased risk of early onset Group B streptococci sepsis must be offered an intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis with IV penicillin-G or ampicillin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 68
Incorrect
-
When is the earliest appropriate gestational age to perform amniocentesis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15+0 weeks
Explanation:The best time to perform amniocentesis is at the gestational age of 15 weeks or more. There is increased risk of abortion, respiratory problems and fetal talipes if amniocentesis is performed before the gestational age of 14 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 69
Incorrect
-
Which of the following factors causes the greatest increase in risk of developing bladder cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder is most commonly caused by cigarette smoke. Other risk factors include naphthylamine, azodyes and long term cyclophosphamide use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 70
Incorrect
-
Regarding pelvic Gonorrhoea infection in women. What percentage of cases are asymptomatic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted disease that is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea. It infects the mucous membrane of the genital tract epithelium in the endocervical and the urethral mucosa. Around 50% of the women are asymptomatic. However it presents as increase vaginal discharge, dysuria, proctitis and pelvic tenderness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 71
Incorrect
-
The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal Cortex
Explanation:The substructures of the nephrons are mainly located within the cortex. The JGA sits next to the glomerulus in the cortex (click on the magnifying glass of the image to see the arrangement). They play an important role in blood pressure homeostasis as the juxtaglomerular cells produce renin. The descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle and collecting ducts have sections within both the cortex and medulla
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 72
Incorrect
-
Which ONE among the following factors does not increase the risk for developing postpartum endometritis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advanced maternal age
Explanation:The most common clinical findings in a postpartum women with endometritis are postpartum fever, with tachycardia relative to the rise in temperature, midline lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness from the 2nd to 10th day of postpartum.
Most common risk factors for the development of postpartum endometritis are:
– Cesarean deliveries are considered as the most important risk factor for postpartum endometritis, especially those performed after the onset of labour.
– Young maternal age.
– Multiple digital cervical examinations.
– Prolonged rupture of membranes.
– Retention of placental products.
– Prolonged labour.
– Chorioamnionitis.
Advanced maternal age is not considered as a risk factor for development of postpartum endometritis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 73
Incorrect
-
All of the following factors are associated with umbilical cord prolapse, except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anencephaly
Explanation:Anencephaly means the missing of a particular portion of the scalp and brain tissue. The other factors listed are associated with umbilical cord prolapse like multiparity, twin birth, polyhydramnios, premature delivery, long umbilical cord or breech presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 74
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for a routine checkup, as she is concerned about having gained 4.5 kg over the last year. She believes that the gain is related to her oral contraceptive pills.
Patient takes low-dose ethinyl estradiol
orethindrone daily.Prior to starting the pills, she had regular but heavy periods lasting for 4-5 days. Patient used to miss her school every month, on the first day of her period, due to severe cramping. Her pain symptoms resolved 3 months after starting the pills and she takes no other medications. Patient's coitarche was at the age of 18 and she has had 2 partners since then.Patient and her current partner use condoms inconsistently.
On examination her vital signs are normal, with a BMI of 27 kg/m2 and physical examination is unremarkable.
Among the following which is the most appropriate advice for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure that the weight gain is not related to combined OCPs
Explanation:Breakthrough bleeding, breast tenderness, nausea, bloating, amenorrhea, hypertension, venous thromboembolic disease, increased risk of cervical cancer with decreased risk of ovarian & endometrial cancer, liver disorders like hepatic adenoma and increase in triglycerides due to estrogen component are the common side effects & risks of using combination oral contraceptives.
Patient in the given case mentioned symptoms of primary dysmenorrhea, which is recurrent lower abdominal pain associated with menstruation. Combination estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are considered as the first-line treatment for dysmenorrhea in sexually active patients as OCPs help to reduce pain by thinning the endometrial lining, reducing prostaglandin release and by decreasing uterine contractions.
Nausea, bloating and breast tenderness, are considered as the early side effects of OCPs and will usually improve with continued use. The most common side effect is breakthrough bleeding which is usually associated with lower estrogen doses and other adverse effects caused by the pills include hypertension, increased risk of cervical cancer and venous thromboembolism. Although common perception considers weight gain as a side effect, several studies have shown that no significant weight gain is associated with OCPs, particularly with low-dose formulations. Considering this, the patient should be reassured that her weight gain is not associated with regular use of OCPs.In patients who are not sexually active, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are considered as the first-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhea. As stopping contraception will increase this Patient’s risk of unintended pregnancy this is not advisable to her.
Switching the patient to a copper intrauterine device (IUD) will decrease systemic side effects, but as its inflammatory reaction in the uterus may increase pain symptoms, copper IUD is not recommended for patients with dysmenorrhea.
As Medroxyprogesterone will increase body fat and decrease lean muscle mass resulting in weight gain is not a good option for this patient. Also medroxyprogesterone due to its risk of significant loss of bone mineral density, is not recommended for adolescents or young women. So it can be used in this age group only if other options are unacceptable.
Presence of estrogen component is the main reason behind the side effects of combination OCPs. Progesterone-only pills have relatively fewer side effects but as they do not inhibit ovulation, they are less effective for treating dysmenorrhea and for contraception.
Combination oral contraceptive pills are the first-line therapy for primary dysmenorrhea in sexually active patients. Its side effects include breakthrough bleeding, hypertension, and increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Researches proves that weight gain is usually not an adverse effect of OCPs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 75
Incorrect
-
Galactorrhoea (non-gestational lactation) may result from all of the following EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrapartum haemorrhage
Explanation:Pituitary tumours, the most common pathologic cause of galactorrhoea can result in hyperprolactinemia by producing prolactin or blocking the passage of dopamine from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. Approximately 30 percent of patients with chronic renal failure have elevated prolactin levels, possibly because of decreased renal clearance of prolactin. Primary hypothyroidism is a rare cause of galactorrhoea in children and adults. In patients with primary hypothyroidism, there is increased production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone, which may stimulate prolactin release. Nonpituitary malignancies, such as bronchogenic carcinoma, renal adenocarcinoma and Hodgkin’s and T-cell lymphomas, may also release prolactin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 76
Incorrect
-
A 38 year old women attends clinic follow up. You note pelvic ultrasound shows a 36mm simple cyst. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding this cyst according to the RCOG green top guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discharge with no follow up
Explanation:As this is a simple cyst less than 50mm in diameter the patient does not require further investigation or routine follow up
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 77
Incorrect
-
What is the incidence of hyperthyroidism in complete molar pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3%
Explanation:As B-HCG and TSH have similar structures, increased B-HCG can lead to hyperthyroidism, however there is only a 3% chance of this happening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 78
Incorrect
-
What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcemia. It is usually caused by a tumour of the parathyroid gland. Symptoms are related to increased calcium levels which can cause kidney stones, abdominal groans, psychiatric overtones and bones disease such as osteoporosis,osteomalacia and arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 79
Incorrect
-
A woman in early pregnancy is worried because of several small raised nodules on the areola of both breasts. There are no other findings. Your immediate management should be:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance after thorough examination
Explanation:The correct answer is reassurance after thorough examination. Most breast lesions diagnosed during pregnancy and lactation, even some specific ones such as lactation and adenoma galactocele, are benign. The diagnosis of breast cancer, which is difficult to elucidate and is less common among women who are pregnant or lactating than among those of the same age who are not, continues to be a challenge for clinicians.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 80
Incorrect
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Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA
Explanation:When considering immunoglobulins in neonates. There are only a few key points you are likely to be tested on. 1. IgA is resistant to stomach acid and found in large amounts in breast milk. 2. IgG is the only Ig that can cross the placenta so is key for passive neonatal immunity 3. When the neonate starts synthesising its own Ig it is IgM that is produced first.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 47 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that shows a partially echogenic mass with posterior sound attenuation owing to sebaceous material and hair within the cyst cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mature teratoma
Explanation:These are the most common ovarian tumours in young women. The most common form is the mature dermoid cyst (cystic teratoma). It can consist of a combination of all the type of tissues (mesenchymal, stromal and epithelial). Any mature tissue type can be present such as muscle, cartilage, bone, teeth and often hair. Treatment is cystectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 82
Incorrect
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What kind of biochemical changes occur during the luteal phase of menstrual cycle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High progesterone levels
Explanation:Menstrual cycle can be divided into the follicular phase and luteal phase. In the luteal phase, there is an increase in progesterone secretion and LH levels are low. If the ova is fertilized, it is implanted in the endometrium. In case of failure in fertilization, there is gradual decrease in progesterone and LH levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female G1P1 presents with her husband because she has not been breastfeeding her baby 24 hours though she had previously stated she intended exclusive breastfeeding for the first 3 months. She feels sad most of the time and her mood has been very low for the past 2 weeks, she has trouble sleeping at night and feels tired all day. She complains that her husband doesn’t seem to know how to help. For the past 24 hours she feels like she is not fit to be a mother and doesn’t want to feed the baby anymore. She has been frightened by thoughts to harm herself and the baby. Her baby is 7 weeks old.
In addition to antidepressant medication, which of the following treatment is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy
Explanation:This patient presents because of significant mood changes since she gave birth to her child: she is sad most of times and she is having guilt feelings about her adequacy for motherhood- She is also complaining of insomnia, tiredness, and even some suicidal ideation. These symptoms are highly suggestive postpartum depression. This should be differentiated from postpartum blues, which usually present within the first 2 weeks and last for few days. This patient’s symptoms started 5 weeks postpartum. Postpartum depression usually presents within the first 6 weeks to the first year postpartum.
Postpartum depression is the most common complication of childbearing and affects the mother, the child, and relationship with the partner. It is diagnosed the same way as major depressive disorder in other patients. Since untreated postpartum depression can have long-term effects on the mother and the child, appropriate therapy should be undertaken as soon as possible- Antidepressant medications such as sertraline can be used to treat postpartum depression. In a patient who has suicidal ideation, electroconvulsive therapy has a more rapid and effective action than medication and should be considered in these patients.
→ Cognitive behavioural therapy is effective in women with mild to moderate postpartum depression; it would not be a good choice in this patient with suicidal ideation and at risk of harming the baby.
→ Estrogen therapy used alone or in combination with antidepressant, has been shown to significantly reduce the symptoms of postpartum depression; however, it would not be the most appropriate choice in a patient with suicidal ideation.
→ Peer support has shown equivocal results in various studies even though most postpartum patients report that lacking an intimate friend or confidant or facing social isolation are factors leading to depression.
→ Non-directive counselling also known as ”listening visits“ has been found to be effective in postpartum patients, though the studies that were conducted are deemed to be of small sample and larger studies still need to be done to validate these findings. It would not be an appropriate choice for this patient with suicidal ideation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 84
Incorrect
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You review a 28 year old patient in the fertility clinic. She has a diagnosis of PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. She has been taking Clomiphene and metformin for the past 6 months. What is the next most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonadotrophins
Explanation:Clomiphene shouldn’t be continued for more than 6 months. The second line options are Gonadotrophins or ovarian drilling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 70 year old patient is being reviewed in clinic for post menopausal bleeding. Examination reveals a lesion of the vaginal wall. Which is the most common type of primary vaginal cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:The vaginal epithelium is made of squamous cells. Hence the most common carcinoma that occurs in the Vagina is squamous cell carcinoma. Diagnosis is made with vaginal biopsy. Usually the pain only presents if the disease extends beyond the vagina involving the perineal nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents for difficulty and pain in attempting sexual intercourse. She states that she never had such symptoms prior. The pain is not felt at the time of penetration, but appears to hurt deeper in the vagina.
She was recently pregnant with her first child and delivery was three months ago. She did not have an episiotomy or sustain any vaginal lacerations during delivery. She denies any vaginal bleeding since her lochia had stopped two months ago. She is still breastfeeding her child.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her dyspareunia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrophic vaginal epithelium.
Explanation:This is a patient that recently gave birth and is still breastfeeding presenting with dyspareunia. The most likely cause would be a thin atrophic vaginal epithelium. This is very common presentation and is due to the low oestrogen levels due to the prolactin elevation from breastfeeding.
An unrecognised and unsutured vaginal tear should have healed by this time and should not be causing issues.
Endometriosis tends to resolve during a pregnancy, but if this was the issue, it would have caused dyspareunia prior to pregnancy.
Vaginal infective causes of dyspareunia, such as monilial or trichomonal infections, are rare in amenorrhoeic women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 87
Incorrect
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The midwife asks for your advice about a 33 year old woman who she has just seen at her booking appointment. The patient had an uncomplicated pregnancy 10 years ago. This is her second pregnancy. There is no significant personal or family history. On examination the patients blood pressure is 120/75, BMI 32.5kg/m2. The midwife asks your advice on testing for gestational diabetes. What would you advise?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: OGTT at 24-28 weeks
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justify ed to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specific city for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 88
Incorrect
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Which one of the following factors will most likely increase the chances of ovulation in female?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LH surge
Explanation:Different changes can occur during the menstrual cycle including an increased body temperature at the time of ovulation, thinning of the cervical mucus and few other changes, but it is the LH surge which is the most important factor necessary for ovulation.
Mittelschmerz is characterised by recurrent midcycle pain which occurs around the time of ovulation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A young female patient presents at a family clinic seeking advice about her options for contraception. She is considering taking combined OCPS but is worried about the risk of cancer with long term use.
Which of the following is increased by OCPs?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervical cancer
Explanation:The risks of breast and cervical cancers are increased in women who use oral contraceptives, whereas the risks of endometrial, ovarian, and colorectal cancers are reduced.
Women who have used oral contraceptives for 5 or more years have a higher risk of cervical cancer than women who have never used oral contraceptives. The longer a woman uses oral contraceptives, the greater the increase in her risk of cervical cancer.
One study found a 10% increased risk for less than 5 years of use, a 60% increased risk with 5–9 years of use, and a doubling of the risk with 10 or more years of use. However, the risk of cervical cancer has been found to decline over time after women stop using oral contraceptives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Antiepileptic, phenytoin more so than topiramate are inducers of cytochrome P450. They should not be given with COCPs. The metabolism of oestrogen and progestogen is increased by anti-epileptic drugs that induce cytochrome P450 leading to a loss of contraceptive effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman, G1P0, comes to your clinic at the 12th week of her pregnancy, complaining of a mild vaginal bleeding since last 12 hours along with mild but periodic pain.
On vaginal examination, cervical os is found to be closed with mild discharge which contains blood clots. Ultrasound performed confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal foetal heart sound.
What among the following will be the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Threatened miscarriage
Explanation:The case is most likely diagnosed a threatened miscarriage.
A diagnosis of threatened miscarriage is made when there is uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix and is confirmed by the sonographic visualisation of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity. Miscarriages may not always follow even though there was multiple episodes or large amounts of bleeding, therefore the term “threatened” is used in these cases.
At 7 to 11 weeks of gestation, about 90 to 96 percent cases of pregnancies, will not usually miscarry if they have presented with an intact fetal cardiac activity along with vaginal bleeding and if bleeding occurs at the later weeks of gestational age chances of success rate is higher.Topic review:
– Inevitable miscarriages presents with a dilated cervix, increasing uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissues can often be felt or seen through the cervical os and its passage occurs within a short time.
– In Incomplete miscarriage, the membranes will rupture passing the fetus out, but significant amounts of placental tissue will be retained. This occurs most commonly in late first trimester or early second trimester. On examination, the cervical os will be opened and the gestational tissue can be observed in the cervix, with a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age, but not well contracted. The amount of bleeding varies but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock. There will be painful cramps
ontractions and ultrasound reveals tissue in the uterus.
– A missed miscarriage refers to the in-utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20th week of gestation, with retention of the pregnancy for a prolonged period of time. In this case, women may notice that symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have abated and they don’t “feel pregnant” anymore.
Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix usually remains closed. Ultrasound reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.
– Complete miscarriage, usually occurs before 12 weeks of gestation and the entire contents of the uterus will be expelled resulting in a complete miscarriage. In this case, physical examination reveals a small, well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix with scanty vaginal bleeding and mild cramping. Ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus with no extra-uterine gestation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 92
Incorrect
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Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 46XY
Explanation:Genetically, patients suffering from androgen insensitivity syndrome are 46XY. They are males but insensitive to male hormones i.e. androgens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding the Vaginal artery is typically TRUE?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It arises from the Internal iliac artery
Explanation:The Vaginal artery, like the Uterine artery is typically a branch of the Internal Iliac artery. It can sometimes arise as a branch of the Uterine artery so it is important to read the question (if the stem stated it CAN arise from the Uterine artery then that would be true)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 26 year old patient known to have Group B Streptococcus (GBS) on vaginal swab is going into labour. A normal vaginal delivery is planned. She is penicillin allergic with a history of anaphylaxis. What intrapartum antibiotic treatment is advised?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV Vancomycin 1g 12 hourly
Explanation:In a person who is infected by streptococcus (Group B) should be started on benzylpenicillin as soon as possible. In case of allergy vancomycin should be started at 1g every 12 hours. Tetracyclines should be avoided in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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Question 96
Incorrect
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a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings.
Which is the cause for her bleeding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion
Explanation:Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
pain and bleeding during or after sex
pain during or after cervical screening
light discharge of mucus
spotting between periods
Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.
Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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You receive a swab result from a patient who had complained of odorous vaginal discharge. It confirms bacterial vaginosis (BV). Which pathogen is most commonly associated with BV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is characterised by a foul smelling vaginal discharge without inflammation. The most common spp to cause this is gardnerella vaginalis. Other spp include mycoplasma hominis and bacteroides. It occurs due to growth and increase in anaerobic spp with simultaneous reduction in lactobacilli in vaginal flora causing an increase in vaginal pH. It is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a car accident while wearing a seatbelt.
On examination there are visible bruises on the abdomen but patient is otherwise normal. Fetal heart sounds are audible and are within normal parameters and CTG is reassuring.
Which of the following will be the best next step in management of this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit her and observe for 24 hours
Explanation:Trauma is a major contributor for maternal mortality and is one of the leading causes of pregnancy-associated maternal deaths.
As a result of maternal hypotension or hypoxemia, placental abruption, uterine rupture or fetal trauma a maternal trauma can compromise the fetus also.
Patient’s bruises on the abdomen which are seatbelt marks, are indications that this woman has positioned the seat belt incorrectly over the uterus. So there is a good chance that the uterus and its contents, including the fetus, has been affected by the impact. In a pregnant woman, the correct position of seat belt is when the lap belt is placed on the hip below uterus and the sash is placed between breasts and above the uterus.A minimum of 24-hour period monitoring is recommended for all pregnant women, apart from the routine trauma workup indicated in non-pregnant women, in case they have sustained trauma in the presence of any of the following:
– Regular uterine contractions
– Vaginal bleeding
– A non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
– Abdominal/uterine pain
– Significant trauma to the abdomenConsidering the bruises over her abdomen this patient should be considered as having significant abdominal trauma and must be kept under observation for a minimum of 24 hours. Such patients should not be discharged unless the clinician makes sure they do not have any complications like abruption or preterm labor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 99
Incorrect
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Serum prolactin levels are greatest in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suckling
Explanation:Serum prolactin levels are increased during suckling. Some other conditions in which serum prolactin is increased consist of: prolactin secreting brain tumours, anti psychotic drugs and hypothyroidism. It can also be increased in pregnancy, nipple stimulation and stress.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician due to her concern of bleeding from the vagina. Upon interview, she described the bleeding to be light pink to bright red and compared with the first few days post-delivery, the bleeding was less heavy. There was also no fever or cramping pain reported by the patient.
Upon examination, it was observed that she is afebrile and her uterus is appropriately sized and non-tender. There was also the presence of about 10cc old, dark blood in her vagina and her cervix was closed.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:The postpartum period begins soon after the baby’s delivery and usually lasts six to eight weeks and ends when the mother’s body has nearly returned to its pre-pregnant state.
Bloody vaginal discharge (lochia rubra) is heavy for the first 3-4 days, and slowly it becomes watery in consistency and colour changes to pinkish-brown (lochia serosa). After the next 10-12 days, it changes to yellowish-white (lochia alba). Advise women to seek medical attention if heavy vaginal bleeding persists (soaking a pad or more in less than an hour). Women with heavy, persistent postpartum bleeding should be evaluated for complications such as retained placenta, uterine atony, rarely invasive placenta, or coagulation disorders. Endometritis may also occur, presenting as fever with no source, maybe accompanied by uterine tenderness and vaginal discharge. This usually requires intravenous antibiotics. This also should be explained and advise the mother to seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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