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  • Question 1 - Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long? ...

    Correct

    • Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long?

      Your Answer: 2-3 days

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin can also stimulate after pains that occur 2-3 following delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which ONE among the following factors does not increase the risk for developing...

    Incorrect

    • Which ONE among the following factors does not increase the risk for developing postpartum endometritis?

      Your Answer: Retention of placental fragments in the uterus

      Correct Answer: Advanced maternal age

      Explanation:

      The most common clinical findings in a postpartum women with endometritis are postpartum fever, with tachycardia relative to the rise in temperature, midline lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness from the 2nd to 10th day of postpartum.

      Most common risk factors for the development of postpartum endometritis are:
      – Cesarean deliveries are considered as the most important risk factor for postpartum endometritis, especially those performed after the onset of labour.
      – Young maternal age.
      – Multiple digital cervical examinations.
      – Prolonged rupture of membranes.
      – Retention of placental products.
      – Prolonged labour.
      – Chorioamnionitis.
      Advanced maternal age is not considered as a risk factor for development of postpartum endometritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding Human Papillomavirus, what percentage of women develop antibodies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Human Papillomavirus, what percentage of women develop antibodies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Human Papillomavirus has been is implicated in the development of genital warts as well as, head and neck, anogenital and cervical cancers, with the most important high-risk strains being 16 and 18. Over 50% of women worldwide are thought to possess antibodies against various strains of HPV after natural infection. Many infections are asymptomatic and are cleared within 2 years. Several vaccines have been formulated against HPV, one of which is Gardasil, a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV types 6,11, 16,18.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Pelvic ligaments can change at term resulting in? ...

    Incorrect

    • Pelvic ligaments can change at term resulting in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enlargement of the pelvic cavity

      Explanation:

      The pelvis is supported by a variety of ligaments. At term, these ligaments allow for variation in its structure such that the overall size of the pelvic cavity is increased in order to accommodate the upcoming foetus into the cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin 1gram as single dose

      Explanation:

      The best treatment option for chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy is Azithromycin 1g as a single dose orally. This is the preferred option as the drug is coming under category B1 in pregnancy.

      Tetracycline antibiotics, including doxycycline, should never be used in pregnant or breastfeeding women.

      Erythromycin Estolate is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its increased risk for hepatotoxicity. Ciprofloxacin is not commonly used for treating chlamydial urethritis and its use is not safe during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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  • Question 6 - A 21 year old married gravida 1 para 1 has not used her...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old married gravida 1 para 1 has not used her oral contraceptives for 6 months. She comes to your office for evaluation because her menstrual period is 2 weeks late. Her menses had been regular since discontinuing the oral contraceptives. A urine hCG is negative. Which one of the following is true regarding this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is unlikely that she is pregnant

      Explanation:

      With the high level of sensitivity and specificity of current tests to measure hCG in serum and urine, pregnancy can now be diagnosed before the time of the first missed menstrual period- For current serum hCG assays, the low threshold for detection is 10-25 IU/L, while for urine assays it is 25-50 IU/L, which corresponds to approximately the seventh day after conception. Because the levels of hCG in the blood and urine are very similar, the tests are equivalent. Urine testing may reveal a positive result as early as 3-4 days after implantation. By the time of the expected menstrual period, the test will be positive 98% of the time- If a test is negative more than 1 week after the expected time of the menstrual period, it is almost certain the patient is not pregnant. To cover these rare instances where a woman has a low hCG and conceived later than expected, the test should be repeated in 1 week for a definitive result.

      Since ectopic pregnancy is not a life-threatening problem for the mother until 2 months after conception, a patient with a negative urine hCG does not require ultrasonography to exclude ectopic pregnancy. Patients with a suspected ectopic pregnancy and a negative urine hCG should be followed closely, as early laparoscopic intervention can improve the chances of future fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia....

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. She has been using an IUCD for one year now and wants to know the cause of her current condition. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PID

      Explanation:

      IUCD is a risk factor for PID and PID has the clinical picture already described. However, fibroids should also be excluded since they may present in the same way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The ureters receive autonomic supply from which spinal segments? ...

    Incorrect

    • The ureters receive autonomic supply from which spinal segments?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T11-L2

      Explanation:

      The ureters receive innervation by a number of nerve plexuses. The nerves supplying the ureters originate from spinal segments T11 to L2. When you think about ureteric colic giving classic ‘loin to groin’ pain it is because the pain is referred to these dermatomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 9 - Maternal serum prolactin levels in pregnancy are highest: ...

    Incorrect

    • Maternal serum prolactin levels in pregnancy are highest:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: On the 3rd to 4th day postpartum

      Explanation:

      Prolactin is necessary for the secretion of milk by the cells of the alveoli. The level of prolactin in the blood increases markedly during pregnancy, and stimulates the growth and development of the mammary tissue, in preparation for the production of milk. However, milk is not secreted then, because progesterone and oestrogen, the hormones of pregnancy, block this action of prolactin. After delivery, levels of progesterone and oestrogen fall rapidly, prolactin is no longer blocked, and milk secretion begins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements regarding the Vaginal artery is typically TRUE? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding the Vaginal artery is typically TRUE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It arises from the Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The Vaginal artery, like the Uterine artery is typically a branch of the Internal Iliac artery. It can sometimes arise as a branch of the Uterine artery so it is important to read the question (if the stem stated it CAN arise from the Uterine artery then that would be true)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 11 - Evidence from meta-analysis of RCTs is what level of evidence? ...

    Incorrect

    • Evidence from meta-analysis of RCTs is what level of evidence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ia

      Explanation:

      The levels of evidence range from I-IV:
      1a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) or metanalysis of randomized controlled trials: highest level of evidence.
      1b: Individual randomized controlled trial (with narrow confidence interval)
      1c: All or none randomized controlled trials
      2a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) of cohort studies
      2b: Individual cohort study or low quality randomized controlled trials (e.g. <80% follow-up)
      2c: Outcomes Research; ecological studies
      3a: Systematic review (with homogeneity) of case-control studies
      3b: Individual case-control study
      4: Case series (and poor quality cohort and case-control studies)
      5: Expert opinion without explicit critical appraisal, or based on physiology, bench research or first principles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
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  • Question 12 - When is the highest risk of maternal-fetal transmission of Toxoplasma Gondii during pregnancy?...

    Incorrect

    • When is the highest risk of maternal-fetal transmission of Toxoplasma Gondii during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 26-40 weeks

      Explanation:

      The risk of transplacental transmission from mother to foetus is greater in later pregnancy i.e. 26-40 weeks. Although the risk of transmission is lower in early pregnancy, if infection does occur earlier, particularly before 10 weeks, then complications are typically more severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding menstruation, which of the following is the maximum normal blood loss? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding menstruation, which of the following is the maximum normal blood loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80-85ml

      Explanation:

      Most women lose about 35-40 ml of blood on average during each menstrual cycle. The maximum amount of blood loss is 80 ml after which blood loss of more than 80 ml is defined as heavy menstrual bleeding, formerly known as menorrhagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 14 - Presence of which one of the following features at term makes spontaneous delivery...

    Incorrect

    • Presence of which one of the following features at term makes spontaneous delivery incompatible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mentum posterior

      Explanation:

      When face presentation is diagnosed, around 60% of cases are in the mentum anterior position, 25% are mentum posterior and 15% are mentum transverse; most malpositions rotate spontaneously into mentum anterior. A vaginal birth at term is possible only if the foetus is in the mentum anterior position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 15 - A 24 year old who is 32 weeks pregnant presents with a rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old who is 32 weeks pregnant presents with a rash to the abdomen. Looking at the picture below what is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      This is Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy (PEP) also known as Pruritic Urticarial Papules and Plaques of Pregnancy (PUPPP). Papules and plaques form on the abdomen (commonly within striae). It is most common in women during their first pregnancy and typically occurs in the 3rd trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 21 year old patient presents to the clinic with a 48 hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old patient presents to the clinic with a 48 hour history of unprotected sexual intercourse. She is not on any form of contraception. After discussion you prescribe a dose of Ulipristal 30 mg stat. Which of the following would be the appropriate advice regarding vomiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If vomiting occurs within 3 hours a repeat dose should be taken

      Explanation:

      Ulipristal acetate is a selective progesterone receptor modulator which regulates the luteinizing hormone (LH) surge, preventing ovulation. This emergency contraceptive can be used up to five days after unprotected sexual intercourse and is given as a 30mg oral dose. If vomiting occurs within three hours, then a second tablet is needed to ensure its effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 17 - All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is a group of tumours defined by abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. Trophoblast cells produce human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

      GTD is divided into hydatidiform moles (contain villi) and other trophoblastic neoplasms (lack villi). The non-molar or malignant forms of GTD are called gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN).
      Hydatidiform mole (HM) is associated with abnormal gametogenesis and/or fertilization. Risk factors include extremes of age, ethnicity, and a prior history of an HM which suggests a genetic basis for its aetiology.

      GTD is best managed by an interprofessional team that includes nurses and pharmacists. Patients with molar pregnancies must be monitored for associated complications including hyperthyroidism, pre-eclampsia, and ovarian theca lutein cysts. Molar pregnancy induced hyperthyroidism should resolve with the evacuation of the uterus, but patients may require beta-adrenergic blocking agents before anaesthesia to reverse effects of thyroid storm. Pre-eclampsia also resolves quickly after the evacuation of the uterus. Theca lutein cysts will regress spontaneously with falling beta-HCG levels. However, patients must be counselled on signs and symptoms of ovarian torsion and ruptured ovarian cysts.

      A single uterine evacuation has no significant effect on future fertility, and pregnancy outcomes in subsequent pregnancies are comparable to that of the general population, despite a slight increased risk of developing molar pregnancy again.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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  • Question 18 - Maternal blood flow through the uterine artery at term is approximately ...

    Incorrect

    • Maternal blood flow through the uterine artery at term is approximately

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 750ml/min

      Explanation:

      Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - When the presenting part of the foetus is at the level of ischial...

    Incorrect

    • When the presenting part of the foetus is at the level of ischial spines, this level is known as?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Station 0

      Explanation:

      Station 0 – This is when the baby’s head is even with the ischial spines. The baby is said to be engaged when the largest part of the head has entered the pelvis.
      If the presenting part lies above the ischial spines, the station is reported as a negative number from -1 to -5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin levels increase during stress

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyperprolactinemia: Prolactinomas, Medication (phenothiazines, metoclopramide, risperidone, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, oestrogens, verapamil), Stress, Pregnancy, Hypothyroidism, Kidney disease, Chest trauma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old lady is somewhat jaundiced, has black urine, and has pruritus of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old lady is somewhat jaundiced, has black urine, and has pruritus of her abdomen skin at 30 weeks of pregnancy in her first pregnancy. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, her fundal height is 29 cm above the pubic symphysis, and her liquid volume is a little lower than expected. Laboratory investigations reveal:
      Serum bilirubin (unconjugated): 5 mmol/L (0-10),
      Serum bilirubin (conjugated): 12 mmol/L (0-5),
      Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 450U/L (30--350),
      Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45U/L (<55),
      Serum bile acids: 100 mmol/L (1-26).
      The most likely cause for her presentation is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obstetric cholestasis.

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Obstetric Cholestasis.
      The characteristics (elevated bile acids, conjugated bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels) are typical with obstetric cholestasis, which affects roughly 3-4 percent of pregnant women in Australia. Obstetric cholestasis is diagnosed when otherwise unexplained pruritus occurs in pregnancy and abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) and/or raised bile acids occur in the pregnant woman and both resolve after delivery. Pruritus that involves the palms and soles of the feet is particularly suggestive.
      Liver function tests and bile acid levels measurements are used to validate this diagnosis.
      All of the other diagnoses are theoretically possible, but unlikely.
      On liver function tests, hepatitis A and acute fatty liver of pregnancy (which is frequently associated with severe vomiting in late pregnancy) usually show substantially worse hepatocellular damage.
      Pre-eclampsia is connected with hypertension and proteinuria (along with changes in renal function and, in certain cases, thrombocytopenia), while cholelithiasis is associated with obstructive jaundice and pale stools due to a stone in the CBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which nerves innervate the internal anal sphincter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerves innervate the internal anal sphincter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic Splanchnic

      Explanation:

      The anal sphincters are responsible for closing the anal canal to the passage of faeces and flatus. The smooth muscle or involuntary internal sphincter sustains contraction to prevent the leakage of faeces between bowel movements and is innervated by the pelvic splanchnic nerves, which are a branch of the spinal segment 4. The external sphincter is made up of skeletal muscle and can therefore contract and relax voluntarily. Its innervation comes from the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve, and the perineal branch of S4 nerve roots.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 23 - Bladder contraction during voiding (micturating) is mediated via innervation of which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Bladder contraction during voiding (micturating) is mediated via innervation of which of the following pathways?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parasympathetic fibres from S2,S3,S4 nerve roots

      Explanation:

      Detrusor contraction is via Parasympathetic innervation of pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-4). This also causes relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter Note contraction and relaxation of the external urethral sphincter is under somatic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 24 - The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:...

    Incorrect

    • The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crown rump length

      Explanation:

      Fetal ultrasound scanning is considered an essential part of routine antenatal care with first trimester scans recommended for confirming viability, accurate estimation of gestational age and determining the number of foetuses. Fetal crown-rump length (CRL) is measured in early pregnancy primarily to determine the gestation age (GA) of a foetus and is most reliable between 9+0 to 13+6 weeks’ gestation, but not beyond.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 25 - A 24-year-old woman is planning to conceive and comes for your advice. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman is planning to conceive and comes for your advice. She has a history of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy and has been stable on sodium valproate. Despite your full explanations about the risks of the teratogenicity of antiepileptic drugs, she insists she wants to be a mother and asks you to guide her.
      Among the following which would be the most appropriate advice to give this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      As they respond differently to different drugs, a thorough distinguishing must be done between the two major groups of epilepsies while approaching a woman, who wishes to become pregnant while on antiepileptic drugs.

      Partial epilepsies will respond to most of the antiepileptic drugs, but in case of idiopathic generalized epilepsies, especially in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, seizure can be controlled only with a reasonably low dose of sodium valproate. Although lamotrigine may be helpful but substitution of sodium valproate with lamotrigine is not the right choice. This is because lamotrigine is not as effective as sodium valproate and will sometimes worsens myoclonic seizures in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.

      Topiramate and levetiracetam are found to be effective in idiopathic generalized epilepsy, while carbamazepine, phenytoin and gabapentin may worsen some seizure types, especially in myoclonic and absence seizures. For some women with idiopathic generalized epilepsies, there will be no effective alternative to sodium valproate as cessation of sodium valproate will lead to recurrence of the generalized seizures, especially juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Hence, it is not advisable to discontinue the drug in auch patients.

      On the other hand, sodium valproate have the highest reported teratogenicity potential among antiepileptic drugs and the Australian Pregnancy Register has reported the risk to be as high as 16% if used in first trimester. Sodium valproate should be avoided in women of reproductive age and if a patient on the medication is willing to become pregnant, she should be well informed about the risk of teratogenicity and the decision must be left to her. If she decides to accept the risks and continue with pregnancy, the lowest possible effective dose should be prescribed to her.

      If the dose of sodium valproate has been reduced to minimum during pregnancy to reduce the possible teratogenesis, it is recommended to re-establish the prepartum effective dose before the onset of labor. This is because, it is the time with increased risk for seizures, especially in patients with idiopathic generalised epilepsy who are very sensitive to sleep deprivation. Valproate therapy is found to be safe during breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 26 - What is meant by a barr body? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is meant by a barr body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is the condensed non-functioning X chromosome

      Explanation:

      Barr body is an inactive and non functioning X chromosome found in female somatic cells and is presents with a rim around the nucleus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit. Upon history-taking, it was noted that this was her first pregnancy and based on her last menstrual period, she is pregnant for 11 weeks already. There was also no mention of a history of medical problems.
      Upon further observation, the uterus was palpable midway between her pubic symphysis and the umbilicus. There was also no audible fetal heart tones using the Doppler stethoscope.
      Which of the following is considered the best management as the next step given the case above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schedule an ultrasound as soon as possible to determine the gestational age and viability of the foetus.

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, the uterus increases in size to accommodate the developing foetus. At 16 weeks gestation, the fundus of the uterus must be palpated at the midpoint between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis but the patient’s uterus was already palpable at just 11 weeks.

      If less than seven weeks pregnant, it’s unlikely to find a heartbeat by ultrasound. Using transvaginal ultrasound, a developing baby’s heartbeat should be clearly visible by the time a woman is seven weeks pregnant. Abdominal ultrasound is considerably less sensitive, so it can take longer for the heartbeat to become visible. If past seven weeks pregnant, seeing no heartbeat may be a sign of miscarriage.

      Fetal viability is confirmed by the presence of an embryo that has cardiac activity. Cardiac activity is often present when the embryo itself measures 2 mm or greater during the 6th week of gestation. If cardiac activity is not evident, other sonographic features of early pregnancy can predict viability.

      It is recommended that all pregnant women undergo a routine ultrasound at 10 to 13 weeks of gestation to determine an accurate gestational age. Getting an accurate gestational age is highly important and pertinent for the optimal assessment of fetal growth later in pregnancy. Ultrasound is the most reliable method for establishing a true gestational age by measurement of crown-rump length, which can be measured either transabdominally or transvaginally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 28 - A 53-year-old lady had mild vaginal bleeding for the previous 18 hours following...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old lady had mild vaginal bleeding for the previous 18 hours following sexual engagement. It's been a year since she had her last menstrual cycle. Her previous cervical screening test was 12 months ago, and everything came back normal. For the past year, she had not engaged in any sexual activity. She wasn't on any hormone replacement treatment at the time.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrophic vaginitis

      Explanation:

      Postmenopausal haemorrhage has started in this patient. Menopause is defined as the permanent cessation of menstruation and fertility that occurs 12 months after the previous menstrual period.

      Atrophic vaginitis caused by oestrogen insufficiency is the most likely reason for this woman’s postmenopausal haemorrhage. It can also induce vaginal dryness and soreness during sexual intercourse.

      Endometrial hyperplasia is unlikely to develop without hormone replacement therapy or oestrogen stimulation of the endometrium.

      Similarly, endometrial cancer is a less likely cause of this patient’s post-menopausal bleeding.

      A year ago, this woman received a normal cervical screening test. Cervical cancer is extremely unlikely to occur. After 12 months of no oestrogen, it’s also unlikely that you’ll have any irregular periods.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery,...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm

      Explanation:

      For the foetus to pass through the vagina, the obstetric conjugate should be 11cm or greater. If the diameter is less than 10 cm then its better to perform C-section as the labour might not progress. All the other options favour a normal vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 30 - Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      When considering immunoglobulins in neonates. There are only a few key points you are likely to be tested on. 1. IgA is resistant to stomach acid and found in large amounts in breast milk. 2. IgG is the only Ig that can cross the placenta so is key for passive neonatal immunity 3. When the neonate starts synthesising its own Ig it is IgM that is produced first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
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  • Question 31 - A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to the hands and soles of the feet. Examination reveals wart like lesions on the vagina and a diagnosis of condyloma latum is made. What stage of syphilis infection is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary

      Explanation:

      Condylomas are warty neoplasms of the vulvar area. The most common type are condyloma acuminatum which occur due to HPV 6 or 11. Condyloma latum are also known as secondary syphilis are less common. Both of these are sexually transmitted.

      Stages of Syphilis:
      – Primary 3-90 days
      Chancre and lymphadenopathy
      – Secondary 4-10 weeks
      Widespread rash typically affecting hands and soles of feet.
      Wart lesions (condyloma latum) of mucus membranes
      – Latent Early <1 yr. after secondary stage
      – Late >2 yr. after secondary stage
      Asymptomatic
      – Tertiary 3+ years after primary infection
      Gummas or
      Neurosyphilis or
      Cardiovascular syphilis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 32 - Which increases the risk for developing endometrial cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which increases the risk for developing endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early menarche

      Explanation:

      Endometrioid endometrial carcinoma is oestrogen-responsive, and the main risk factor for this disease is long-term exposure to excess endogenous or exogenous oestrogen without adequate opposition by a progestin.

      Early age at menarche is a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma in some studies; late menopause is less consistently associated with an increased risk of the disease. Both of these factors result in prolonged oestrogen stimulation and at times of the reproductive years during which anovulatory cycles are common

      Other risk factors include
      obesity,
      nulliparity,
      diabetes mellitus, and
      hypertension.

      The risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma with oestrogen therapy can be significantly reduced by the concomitant administration of a progestin. In general, combined oestrogen-progestin preparations do not increase the risk of endometrial hyperplasia.

      Endometrial carcinoma usually occurs in postmenopausal women (mean age at diagnosis is 62 years). Women under age 50 who develop endometrial cancer often have risk factors such as obesity or chronic anovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 33 - A patient who is 12 weeks pregnant is being seen in the antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who is 12 weeks pregnant is being seen in the antenatal clinic. Urinalysis shows protein ++. A 24 hour urine collection is organised. Greater than what level would indicate significant proteinuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 300 mg over 24 hours

      Explanation:

      pre-eclampsia is defined as hypertension of at least 140/90 mmHg recorded on at least two separate occasions and at least 4 hours apart and in the presence of at least 300 mg protein in a 24 hour collection of urine, arising de novo after the 20th week of pregnancy in a previously normotensive woman and resolving completely by the sixth postpartum week.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
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  • Question 34 - Galactopoiesis is maintained by which hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Galactopoiesis is maintained by which hormone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The production of milk is regulated by the hormone Prolactin. Oxytocin on the other hand is responsible for the let down reflex that occurs during breast feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has a BMI of 24. Her FSH level is 55 U/L (2-8 U/L in luteal phase; >25 U/L in menopause), LH is 54 U/L, and oestradiol is low, according to laboratory tests. The level of serum prolactin is likewise normal. Her urine pregnancy test came out negative.
      Each ovary had 3-4 cysts on ultrasonography. She hopes to get pregnant in the near future.
      Which of the following would be the best treatment option for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

      Explanation:

      Ovarian insufficiency is a failure of the ovary to function adequately in a woman younger than 40 years, in its role either as an endocrine organ or as a reproductive organ. In women aged 40 years or older, the expected physiologic decline of ovarian function that takes place with aging is termed perimenopause or the menopausal transition.
      Medical treatment of patients with primary ovarian insufficiency should address the following aspects:

      Ovarian hormone replacement
      Restoration of fertility
      Psychological well-being of the patient

      It is not appropriate to give this patient contraceptive pills since she desires pregnancy.

      There is no evidence that Danazol or Metformin would improve ovarian follicle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney? ...

    Incorrect

    • The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal Cortex

      Explanation:

      The juxtaglomerular apparatus is the main site for the production of renin. It plays an important role in the regulation of the blood pressure. These structures are mainly located in the cortex of the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Premature menopause is defined as cessation of menses before the age of: ...

    Incorrect

    • Premature menopause is defined as cessation of menses before the age of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause occurs if menopause happens before the age of 40. It effects 1% of women under the age of 40 and 0.1% under 30.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries, joined by vessels from the uterine tubes and most from the fundus of the uterus, follow the ovarian veins as they ascend to the right and left lumbar (caval/aortic) lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - The joint between the two pubic bones is called the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The joint between the two pubic bones is called the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pubis symphysis

      Explanation:

      The pubic symphysis or symphysis pubis is the midline cartilaginous joint (secondary cartilaginous) uniting the superior rami of the left and right pubic bones. It is located anterior to the urinary bladder and superior to it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she...

    Incorrect

    • A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is 39+6 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes. What is the likelihood of spontaneous labour starting within 24 hours?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60%

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, term refers to the gestational period from 37 0 to 41 6 weeks. Preterm births occur between 24 0 and 36 6 weeks. 60% of the women will go into labour with in 24 hours in PPROM. After 24 hours have past without any contraction and the gestation age is more than 34 week than prostaglandins can be used to augment labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy induced hypertension

      Explanation:

      Congenital uterine abnormalities are associated with an increased risk of spontaneous abortions, preterm delivery of the foetus, fetal growth retardation and malpresentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - An 19-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of painful menses for the...

    Incorrect

    • An 19-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of painful menses for the past year. She was given NSAIDs at first, then OCPs after the NSAIDs failed to control her symptoms. OCP has also struggled to regulate the painful menses.
      Which of the following would be the best next step in your management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Adolescents who fail to respond to first- or second-line treatment and have recurrent symptoms or have symptoms that worsen over time should be re-evaluated for other possible and serious causes of secondary dysmenorrhea such as endometriosis, uterine leiomyomas, polyps, or pelvic pathologies.

      When pelvic pathology is suspected, abdominal and transvaginal ultrasonography should be used as first-line investigation. However, transvaginal ultrasound is more accurate and the preferred option if possible.

      CT scan is not indicated in the assessment of dysmenorrhea.

      D&C and laparoscopy can be considered as treatment options once a diagnosis has been established but can not be used as primary steps in diagnosis of dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Where is Glucagon produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is Glucagon produced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Islet alpha cells

      Explanation:

      The alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans are responsible for the production and secretion of glucagon. The B cells secrete insulin, the D cells secrete somatostatin, and the F cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide. The B cells, which are the most common and account for 60–75% of the cells in the islets, are generally located in the centre of each islet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen is an oestrogen antagonist in breast tissue but it acts as a partial oestrogen agonist on the endometrium increasing the risk of hyperplasia and has been linked to endometrial cancer. Tamoxifen improves bone density in post-menopausal women. It is an off license treatment for gynaecomastia. Reduced lactation is a potential side effect of Tamoxifen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and is offered Hysterosalpingography (HSG). She has 28 day cycles. Which of the following statements regarding HSG is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Typically performed using iodine based water soluble contrast

      Explanation:

      Hysterosalpingography is used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes. It is performed by injection of a radio-opaque iodine based contrast. This test is contraindicated in pelvic inflammatory disease and during pregnancy. Should be performed in Follicular phase of menstrual cycle after cessation of menstrual bleeding and prior to ovulation (days 6-12).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
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      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Whilst reviewing a 34 year old patient with amenorrhoea in clinic they tell...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst reviewing a 34 year old patient with amenorrhoea in clinic they tell you they have gained over 10kg in weight in the past 8 weeks and have noticed worsening acne. Routine bloods taken that morning show a random glucose 11.1mmol/l, normal thyroid function tests and negative pregnancy test. BP is 168/96 mmHg. You suspect Cushing's. What would the most appropriate investigation be to conform the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dexamethasone suppression test

      Explanation:

      In Cushing’s syndrome there is excess cortisol. Causes are broadly divided into 2 types: ACTH dependent disease: excess ACTH from the pituitary (Cushing’s disease), ectopic ACTH-producing tumours or excess ACTH administration. Non-ACTH-dependent: adrenal adenomas, adrenal carcinomas, excess glucocorticoid administration. The recommended diagnostic tests for the presence of Cushing’s syndrome are 24-hour urinary free cortisol, 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test and late-night salivary cortisol. There are several other tests that may also be performed to find the cause. ACTH and cortisol measured together may show if this is ACTH dependent or not. MRI pituitary and CT abdo and pelvis may show if tumour is the cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 28-year-old, 10-weeks pregnant woman comes to you complaining of right iliac fossa...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old, 10-weeks pregnant woman comes to you complaining of right iliac fossa pain, which is more when she tries to stand up or cough. She also had a history of appendectomy, done 12 years ago.
      Physical examination reveals mild tenderness in right iliac fossa, without any rebound tenderness or guarding.
      Among the following options which will be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Round ligament pain

      Explanation:

      The given case can be diagnosed as round ligament pain, which is common during pregnancy. This happens as a result to the stretching of round ligament in pelvis to occupy the growing uterus. The round ligament pain usually gets worse with movements or straining and will be relieved by rest or warm application.

      As the abdominal examination of patient is unremarkable, conditions like ovarian cyst rupture, ectopic pregnancy and intestinal obstruction are a very unlikely to be the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of minor left-sided lower abdomen ache. Her blood pressure is 125/90 mmHg, her pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.3°C.
      She is otherwise in perfect health. There is no discomfort, rebound, or guarding on the abdominal exam. On the left side of the uterus, an ultrasonographic examination reveals a 6cm solid mass lateral to the uterus.
      Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian teratoma

      Explanation:

      Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.

      When symptoms are present, they may include abdominal pain, mass or swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. Bladder symptoms, gastrointestinal disturbances, and back pain are less frequent. When abdominal pain is present, it usually is constant and ranges from slight to moderate in intensity.

      Mucinous cystadenomas are relatively common (12% to 15% of all ovarian tumours). They can become massive. These tumours usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence.

      Corpus luteal cysts present with irregular menses, abdominal fullness due to fluid build up and pelvic pressure.

      Endometriosis mainly presents with cyclic pain at site of involvement and dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your clinic with a recent history of, four days ago, contact with a child suffering from parvovirus infection. She is concerned whether her baby might be affected.
      A serum analysis for lgM and lgG antibody for parvovirus came back as negative.
      Which among the following would be the most appropriate next step of management in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat serologic tests in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA virus, which is the causative organism for erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped cheek syndrome.

      Maternal infection with parvovirus B19 is almost always associated with an increased risk of transplacental fetal infection throughout the pregnancy. Fetal infection results in fetal parvovirus syndrome, which is characterized by anemia­ hydrops with cardiac failure and possibly death.
      The earlier the exposure occurs, it is more likely to result in fetal parvovirus syndrome and stillbirth is the common outcome in case of third trimester infection.

      Women who have been exposed to parvovirus in early pregnancy should be informed on the possible risk of fetal infection and also should be screened for parvovirus B19 specific lgG.
      – If parvovirus specific lgG is positive reassure that pregnancy is not at risk
      – If parvovirus specific lgG is negative, serology for lgM should be performed
      After infection with parvovirus, patient’s lgM is expected to become positive within 1 to 3 weeks and it will remain high for about 8-12 weeks. lgG levels will start to rise within 2 to 4 weeks after the infection.

      This woman has a negative lgG titer which indicates that she is not immune to the infection. Although her lgM titer is negative now, this does not exclude the chance of infection as it takes approximately 1 to 3 weeks after infection for lgM to become positive, and will then remain high for 8 to 12 weeks. In such cases, it is recommended the serologic tests be repeated in 2 weeks when the lgM may become positive while lgG starts to rise.

      – Positive lgM titers confirm maternal parvovirus infection. If that is the case, the next step would be fetal monitoring with ultrasound for development of hydrops at 1-2 weeks intervals for the next 6-12 weeks(needs referral). Once the fetus is found to have hydrops, fetal umbilical cord sampling and intrauterine blood transfusion are considered the treatment options.
      – Positive lgG and negative lgM indicates maternal immunity to parvovirus.

      Interpretation of serologic tests results and the further actions recommended are as follows:

      If both IgM and IgG are negative, it means mother is not immune to parvovirus B19 infection, and an infection is possible. Further action will be Repetition of serological tests in 2 weeks.

      If IgM is positive and IgG is negative, it means the infection is established. Fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks must be done.

      If both IgM and IgG are positive, it means infection is established, and an infection is possible. Further action will be fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks.

      If IgM is negative and IgG is positive, it means the mother is immune to parvovirus infection. In this case it is important to reassure the mother that the baby is safe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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      Seconds
  • Question 50 - What kind of epithelium lines the endocervix? ...

    Incorrect

    • What kind of epithelium lines the endocervix?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Columnar

      Explanation:

      Its important to note the endo and ectocervix have 2 epithelial types. Where columnar and squamous epithelia meet is the transformation zone (or squamous-columnar junction, SCJ). This is relevant as it is the primary site for dysplasia and is where smears are taken from.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Breast feeding stimulates the hypothalamus to produce which of the following hormones? ...

    Incorrect

    • Breast feeding stimulates the hypothalamus to produce which of the following hormones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Breast feeding facilitates the production of Oxytocin by the hypothalamus which is stored and secreted by the posterior pituitary.
      Ergometrine is an ergoline derivative that can be used to increase uterine tone.
      Atosiban is an antagonist of Oxytocin receptors
      ADH is another posterior pituitary hormone.
      Prostaglandin E2 plays an important role in cervical ripening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Which species of candida is the most common cause of genital candida infection...

    Incorrect

    • Which species of candida is the most common cause of genital candida infection in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Candida albicans

      Explanation:

      Vulvovaginal candidiasis is the most common genital infection and it is caused by candida albicans in 80-92% of the cases. Other non albicans species include C.tropicalis, C.glabrata, C.krusei and C.parapsilosis. 20% of women of childbearing age are asymptotic colonisers of Candida species as part of their normal vaginal flora. This increases to 40% in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerazette®

      Explanation:

      Traditional POP main mode of contraceptive action: thickening of cervical mucus Desogestrel-only POP main mode of contraceptive action is inhibition of ovulation Cerazette® is the only Desogestrel-only POP in the options above. Other desogestrel brands include: Aizea® Cerelle® Nacrez® The other POPs listed are considered traditional POPs and have the following compositions: Norgeston® – Levonorgestrel 30 mcg Micronor® & Noriday® – Norethisterone 350 mcg Femulen® – Ethynediol diacetate 500 mcg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic shock in obstetrics and gynecology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Organisms frequently associated with obstetric sepsis include: beta haemolytic streptococci, Gram-negative rods such as Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae and influenza A and B.

      E. coli is the most common sepsis pathogen in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - What is the most common cause of premature menopause in the UK? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of premature menopause in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause is most commonly idiopathic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - At what week in pregnancy is testing for gestational diabetes (GD) advised ...

    Incorrect

    • At what week in pregnancy is testing for gestational diabetes (GD) advised

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: As soon as possible after booking if past history of GD

      Explanation:

      Testing for GD should use the 2 hour 75g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to test for GD in women. Testing women who have had GD in a previous pregnancy: early self monitoring of blood glucose OR a 75 g 2 hour OGTT as soon as possible after booking (whether in the first or second trimester) and a further 75 g 2hour OGTT at 24-28 weeks if the results of the first OGTT are normal. Testing women with risk factors for GD: 75g 2 hour OGTT at 24-28 weeks

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less likely to die of sudden infant death syndrome

      Explanation:

      The effects of smoking on the outcomes of pregnancy are well documented and include an increased risk of preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM), preterm birth, low birth weight, placenta previa, and placental abruption. Many studies have shown that the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is increased by maternal smoking during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia for the last 6 years. Her menstrual cycles are normal, but she has bled excessively for eight days every month, and her haemoglobin level was 90g/L one month ago. She's already on iron supplementation. She has a history of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 (CIN3) in addition to the anaemia, albeit her yearly smear test has been normal since the laser treatment six years ago. She is also undergoing hypertension treatment. Physical examination is unremarkable. She is not willing for endometrial ablation or hysterectomy until her menopause. Which of the following medical therapies would be the best for her to utilize between now and the time she is expected to hit menopause, which is around the age of 50?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD

      Explanation:

      Adenomyosis or dysfunctional uterine haemorrhage are the most likely causes of heavy periods.
      Because she refuses to have a hysterectomy or endometrial ablation, hormonal therapy must be administered in addition to the iron therapy she is already receiving.
      Any of the choices could be employed, but using therapy only during the luteal phase of the cycle in someone who is virtually surely ovulating (based on her typical monthly cycles) is unlikely to work.

      Danazol is prone to cause serious adverse effects (virilization), especially when used for a long period of time.
      GnRH agonists would cause amenorrhoea but are more likely to cause substantial menopausal symptoms, and the °fa contraceptive pill (OCP) is generally best avoided in someone using hypertension medication.

      Treatment with norethisterone throughout the cycle is likely to be the most successful of the treatments available.
      If a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena®) had been offered as an alternative, it would have been acceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A young woman complained of itching and discharge from her vaginal area. There...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman complained of itching and discharge from her vaginal area. There is red vulva and yellowish discharge on inspection.
      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clotrimazole

      Explanation:

      This patient has got thrush or a fungal infection in the vaginal area. Candida infection is most likely based on the white discharge and itching. A vaginal clotrimazole antifungal treatment is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and thigh. She had recently travelled by airplane from overseas and is at 18 weeks of gestation of her second pregnancy. The only incidence of trauma she can think of is when she hit her left knee on a table yesterday.
      On physical examination, it is found that she has some swelling of her left ankle that is not present on the right side. Her first pregnancy was unremarkable except for development of some symptoms that were believed to be related to pelvic symphyseal separation around 28 weeks of gestation.
      Which one of the following is the mostly cause for this patient's pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: deep venous Thrombosis (DVT) in her left leg

      Explanation:

      For this pregnant patient who recently travelled overseas most likely has a deep venous thrombosis (DVT). It would also be expected that the patient would have oedema in the symptomatic leg and account for the swelling described.

      Though they could cause unilateral leg pain, neither symphyseal separation nor sciatica due to a prolapsed intervertebral disc usually occur as early as 18 weeks of gestation. This patient’s symptoms also do not suggest either diagnosis.

      Pain due to trauma would usually be maximal at the site where the trauma took place, which would be in the knee for this patient. Traumatic pain and house cleaning also would not cause the pain described or result in ankle swelling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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      Seconds
  • Question 61 - What is the primary form of haemoglobin in a 6 week old foetus?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary form of haemoglobin in a 6 week old foetus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hb Gower 1

      Explanation:

      HB gower 1 is the predominant embryonic haemoglobin when the foetus is 6 weeks old and is replaced by adult haemoglobin by the age of 5 months post natally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE? ...

    Incorrect

    • In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: More than 50% will abort

      Explanation:

      Threatened abortion:
      – Vaginal bleeding with closed cervical os during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy
      – Occurs in 25% of 1st-trimester pregnancies
      – 50% survival
      More than half of threatened abortions will abort. The risk of spontaneous abortion, in a patient with a threatened abortion, is less if fetal cardiac activity is present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - During normal pregnancy, a weight gain is anticipated. The average weight gain is...

    Incorrect

    • During normal pregnancy, a weight gain is anticipated. The average weight gain is approximately:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10-15 kg

      Explanation:

      Institute of Medicine Weight Gain Recommendations for Pregnancy: Recommends a gestational weight gain of 16.8–24.5 kg (37–54 lb) for women of normal weight, 14.1–22.7 kg (31–50 lb) for overweight women, and 11.3–19.1 kg (25–42 lb) for obese women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Which immunoglobulin provides passive immunity to the neonate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which immunoglobulin provides passive immunity to the neonate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      Passive immunity to the neonate is provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG) since it can be transferred through the placenta from mother to the foetus.
      IgA is transferred from mothers to offspring through breast milk.
      IgM molecular structure is too big to be filtered through the placental vasculature to the foetus. IgM is the first Ig to be synthesised by the neonate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Which of the following organisms causes toxoplasmosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organisms causes toxoplasmosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxoplasma Gondii

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasma gondii, an intracellular protozoan, is the main causative agent for Toxoplasmosis. Though the primary host for the organism is the domestic cat, humans can become infected by eating undercooked meat of animals harbouring cysts, consuming water or food contaminated with cat faeces, or through maternal-fetal transmission. Toxoplasmosis can cause complications in pregnancy such as miscarriages and congenital infection which can lead to hydrocephalus, microcephaly, mental disability and vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Which of the following regarding the use of tocolytics is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following regarding the use of tocolytics is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use of a tocolytic drug is not associated with a clear reduction in perinatal or neonatal mortality, or neonatal morbidity

      Explanation:

      Tocolytics are used to suppress contractions. The Canadian preterm labour trial which remains a very influential tocolytic trial to date concluded that tocolytics such as a beta agonist have no significant benefit on perinatal mortality or morbidity or prolong pregnancy to term however it did reduce the number of women delivering within 2 days by 40%. This 48 hour window is the only reason for the use of tocolytics.
      Choice of tocolytic (NICE)
      1st line: Nifedipine
      2nd line: Oxytocin receptor antagonists e.g. atosiban

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Regarding lymph drainage of the breast where does the majority of lymph drain...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the breast where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic drainage of the breast.
      The lateral two thirds of the breast drains into the axillary lymph nodes. This constitute about 75% of the lymphatic drainage of the breast. The medial third of the breast drains into the parasternal lymph nodes and these communicate with the ipsilateral lymph nodes from the opposite breast. The superior part of the breast drains into the infraclavicular lymph nodes and inferior part drains into the diaphragmatic lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A patient is seen in the gynaecology outpatient clinic and is noted to...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is seen in the gynaecology outpatient clinic and is noted to have large volume genital warts perianally and near the urethral meatus. You discuss treatment options and the patient opts for LASER therapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate type of LASER to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CO2

      Explanation:

      Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia is a premalignant condition which is associated with HPV or lichen sclerosis. Biopsy is essential for diagnosis. Treatment depends of the patients choice and include surgical excision of the area or laser therapy with CO2. Other treatment modalities include immunomodulating creams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - You see a patient in fertility clinic who you suspect has Klinefelters. What...

    Incorrect

    • You see a patient in fertility clinic who you suspect has Klinefelters. What is the likely karyotype?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome occurs in 1:1000 individuals. They are phenotypically male and genotypically they have 47,XXY chromosomes. These individuals have small testes, are tall with disproportionate long lower limbs.40% will also have gynecomastia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 70 - A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy 2 years ago. She is planning to conceive but is concerned about what her medications may do to her baby.
      Which of the following is considered to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High dose folic acid for one month before conception and during first trimester

      Explanation:

      CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).

      The use of lamotrigine during pregnancy has not been associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects; however, the recommendation regarding higher doses of folic acid supplementation is often, but not always, broadened to include women taking any anticonvulsant, including lamotrigine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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  • Question 71 - Regarding twin pregnancies all of the following are correct EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding twin pregnancies all of the following are correct EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Identical or monozygotic twins arise from fertilization of two ovum

      Explanation:

      Monozygotic (MZ) twins originate when a single egg is fertilized to form one zygote, which then divides into two embryos. Although they share the same genotype they are not phenotypically identical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      0
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  • Question 72 - A mother brought her 3-year-old daughter to the doctor with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brought her 3-year-old daughter to the doctor with a complaint of vulval pruritus. On examination, the vulval region has a well-defined white plaque with a wrinkled surface and scattered telangiectasia. The diagnosis of lichen sclerosis was confirmed by histopathology.
      Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potent topical steroids

      Explanation:

      Lichen sclerosis (LS) is a benign, chronic, progressive dermatologic condition characterized by marked inflammation, epithelial thinning, and distinctive dermal changes accompanied by symptoms of pruritus and pain.

      Topical corticosteroids are the mainstay of therapy. Intralesional corticosteroid therapy is an additional option that is useful for the treatment of thick hypertrophic plaques that topical corticosteroids may not penetrate adequately.

      Antibiotics or antifungals have no role in the treatment of LS since it’s not an infection.
      Since histological diagnosis has already been made, there is no need to refer to dermatologist.
      Surgical intervention is indicated for treatment of complications like adhesion and scarring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
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  • Question 73 - All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The metabolic adaptations of pregnancy are orchestrated by hormones produced by the placenta and maternal pituitary gland, which undergo dramatic changes during gestation. After involution of ovarian sex steroid production by wk 6, placental oestrogen and progesterone production increases exponentially to term. Concurrently, there are progressive increases in prolactin (PRL), produced by the maternal pituitary gland and decidua, and human chorionic somatomammotropin (CSH, also called human placental lactogen), which has structural similarities to GH and PRL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 74 - A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She has hirsutism and acne. She has also expressed that she occasionally suffers from migraines along with pins and needles in her left arm.
      Which is the best contraceptive for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A barrier method of contraception.

      Explanation:

      OCPs which contain oestrogen and progesterone are contraindicated in women who have migraines associated with a neurological deficit or aura (pins and needles in this case). In such cases, the alternative would be Implanon (etonogestrel), however, there are mixed reviews and opinions regarding whether or not there is a decreased efficacy in heavier women. The absolute contraindication for Implanon is active breast cancer. Therefore, the best advice for her case would be some form of barrier contraceptive.

      When choosing a COCP (combined oral contraceptive pill), it is recommended that a formulation containing 20-30ug of ethinyl oestradiol is chosen. The progestogen part is responsible for prevention of conception and can be norgestrel or any other progestogens although the formulations containing norgestrel tend to be cheaper than more novel progestins such as cyproterone acetate as well as drospirenone. If the patient is known to have issues with excessive fluid retention, OCPs that has drospirenone would be the most suitable. However, if the patient is suspected to have PCOS, the best choice would be one that contains cyproterone acetate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 75 - A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of gestation comes to the hospital due to intense, constant lower abdominal pain.The patient got conceived via in-vitro fertilization and her prenatal course has been uncomplicated.Over the past 10 years, the patient has had 3 spontaneous abortions, all attributed to uterine leiomyoma.Two years ago, she had an abdominal myomectomy during which the uterine cavity was entered.
      On examination her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline rate in the 140s with moderate variability and persistent variable decelerations to the 90s. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and last for 45 seconds, her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced.
      Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy and cesarean delivery

      Explanation:

      Uterine surgical history & scope of vaginal birth are as follows:
      – In case of low transverse cesarean delivery with horizontal incision: trial of labor is not contraindicated.
      – Classical cesarean delivery with vertical incision: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy with uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy without uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is not contraindicated.

      In laboring patients with prior uterine surgical histories like a prior classical (vertical) cesarean delivery or a prior myomectomy that was extensive or has entered the uterine cavity like during removal of intramural or submucosal fibroids are at a higher risk for uterine rupture. Given this patient’s history of previous myomectomy, her intense and constant abdominal pain with an abnormal fetal heart rate tracing, like persistent variable decelerations, are pointing to uterine rupture. vaginal bleeding, abdominally palpable fetal parts, loss of fetal station and any change in contraction pattern are the other possible manifestations of uterine rupture. Based on the extent and exact location of the rupture and the presence or absence of regional anesthesia, presentation of a uterine rupture will change.

      Vaginal delivery is safe after a low transverse (horizontal uterine incision) cesarean delivery. Patients with a history of either classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy are delivered via cesarean delivery at 36-37 weeks gestation, so urgent laparotomy and cesarean delivery are required if these patients present in labor. Further management is determined by other intraoperative findings like, whether uterine rupture has occurred, if occured then delivery is done through the rupture site, followed by a uterine repair; If the uterus is unruptured, a hysterotomy (ie, cesarean delivery) is performed. In patients with prior classical cesarean delivery or extensive myomectomy, an expectant management for a vaginal delivery is contraindicated.

      Amnioinfusion is the technique of placing an intrauterine pressure catheter to decrease umbilical cord compression by doing an intrauterine infusion and this thereby helps to resolve variable decelerations. In patients with a history of uterine surgery Amnioinfusion is contraindicated.

      In cases with abnormal fetal heart rate tracings, if the patient is completely (10cm) dilated, an operative vaginal delivery can be performed to expedite a vaginal delivery.

      Terbutaline is a tocolytic, which is administered to relax the uterus in conditions with contractile abnormalities, such as tachysystole which presents with >5 contractions in 10 minutes or tetanic contractions were contractions last for >2 minutes, which results in fetal heart rate abnormalities. In the given case, the patient’s contractions are normal, which occurs in every 2-3 minutes and lasts for 45 seconds, causing pain and cervical dilation.

      After a classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy, labor and vaginal delivery are contraindicated due to its significant risk of uterine rupture. Laparotomy and cesarean delivery are preferred in laboring a patients at high risk of uterine rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 76 - A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms,...

    Incorrect

    • A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms, and increased nervousness.
      Along with TSH what other investigations should be done for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Free T4

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned in the case has developed thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy. TSH level should be tested, and if the result shows any suppressed or elevated TSH level, then it is mandatory to check for free T4 level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 77 - WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as ...

    Incorrect

    • WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life per 1000 births

      Explanation:

      WHO defines perinatal death as the number of still births and death in the first week of life per 1000 births.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
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  • Question 78 - Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amounts during pregnancy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amounts during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      The nutritional status of a woman before and during pregnancy is important for a healthy pregnancy outcome. Pregnancy is a state of increased requirement of macro and micronutrients, and malnourishment or inadequate dietary intake before and during pregnancy, can lead to adverse perinatal outcomes. Many nutritional interventions have been proposed for pregnant mothers. These include multiple micronutrients (MMN), iron/folate, balanced protein energy, calcium, zinc and folic acid supplementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 79 - A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration of severe dysmenorrhea. Analgesia with paracetamol, panadeine as well as indomethacin did not provide much relief. The girl is very concerned that the underlying cause could be something sinister.
      What is the most likely cause of her dysmenorrhea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometrial prostaglandin release.

      Explanation:

      It is less common for a girl of this age to develop fibroids, endometriosis and endometrial polyps, although these are all causes of severe dysmenorrhea. Chronic pelvic infection can be due to sexually transmitted disease but the history does not mention any previous episodes of pelvic pain or symptoms of infection such as fever. In this case, it is most likely that she has primary dysmenorrhea. Primary dysmenorrhea, in which no pathological cause can be identified, is believed to be due to the prostaglandins released by the secretory endometrium. If secondary dysmenorrhea is suspected, then endometriosis would be the most prominent cause.

      While hysteroscopic and laparoscopic examinations are commonly done in adult women to rule out organic causes such as those mentioned earlier, in younger girls, they are usually only carried out if pain management with, for example, NSAIDs and the use of COCPs, have failed to either provide symptom relief or reduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 80 - Due to her inability to conceive, a 28-year-old nulligravid lady comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • Due to her inability to conceive, a 28-year-old nulligravid lady comes to the office with her husband. The patient and her spouse had been having intercourse every other day since they stopped using barrier contraception a year ago. Every 28 days, the patient experiences a 5-day period with two days of high flow. She has transient pelvic pain 14 days after her menstruation begins, but intercourse is painless.
      The patient was admitted to the hospital in her late teens for a pelvic infection, and she had discomfort with intercourse, discharge, and fever during her stay. She hasn't had any previous medical or surgical procedures. Her younger sibling suffers from polycystic ovarian syndrome. The patient's husband is 32 years old, has no children, and a normal semen analysis. The patient has a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 86 beats per minute. There are no anomalies on physical examination.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hysterosalpingogram

      Explanation:

      Primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected, timed sexual intercourse in a nulliparous patient under the age of 35. (After 35 years of age, infertility testing can begin after 6 months.) Because the patient’s partner’s sperm analysis is normal, female factor infertility is the most likely explanation. This patient’s adolescent hospitalizations are likely due to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a common cause of infertility caused by tubal scarring and blockage.

      A hysterosalpingogram, which includes infusing radiocontrast into the cervix under fluoroscopy, is the first-line imaging technique for determining fallopian tube patency. A hysterosalpingogram is a non-invasive procedure that can detect uterine cavity irregularities (e.g., bicornuate uterus).

      Peritoneal adhesions and endometriosis can be seen and treated directly using laparoscopy.

      PID-related scarring inside the fallopian tubes can be assessed by laparoscopy with chromotubation; however, it is invasive, expensive, and not utilized first-line.

      Ovulation is detected using a mid-cycle LH level. The LH surge can be detected in urine and serum 36 hours before ovulation. Regular menstrual periods are characterized by mittelschmerz (mid-cycle pelvic pain), which indicates ovulation. As a result, an LH level would be useless.

      Ovarian reserve begins to deteriorate around the age of 35, and serum FSH levels rise in women who are losing their ability to ovulate. Because this patient is much younger and has regular periods, a drop in ovum quantity is unlikely to be the reason for infertility.

      Increased serum androgen levels can prevent ovulation by inhibiting the release of GnRH and FSH through feedback inhibition. The patient has regular cycles and no hyperandrogenic symptoms, despite her sister having polycystic ovarian syndrome (e.g., hirsutism, irregular menses).

      In a nulliparous patient under the age of 35, primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected sexual intercourse. A hysterosalpingogram is used to determine the cause of infertility, such as tubal blockage caused by a previous pelvic infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 81 - A biophysical profile includes all of the following assessment parameters EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • A biophysical profile includes all of the following assessment parameters EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal weight

      Explanation:

      The biophysical profile is a composite test that collects 5 indicators of fetal well-being, including fetal heart rate reactivity, breathing movements, gross body movements, muscular tone, and quantitative estimation of amniotic fluid volume. The assessment of fetal heart rate is accomplished by performing a nonstress test, whereas the latter 4 variables are observed using real-time ultra-sonography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
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  • Question 82 - Beta and Delta Thalassemia are associated with abnormalities to which chromosome ...

    Incorrect

    • Beta and Delta Thalassemia are associated with abnormalities to which chromosome

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 11

      Explanation:

      Fetal haemoglobin (HBF) is the main haemoglobin type in the foetus and persists after birth for around 6 months. Fetal haemoglobin is composed of two alpha and two gamma subunits The alpha globulin chain is coded for by genes on Chromosome 16. Alpha Thalassemia are therefore associated with Chromosome16 defects The beta and delta globulin chains are coded for by genes on Chromosome 11. Beta and Delta Thalassemia are therefore associated with Chromosome 11 Defects

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 83 - A 25-year old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal check-up. Upon interview, the patient revealed that she has been smoking one pack of cigarettes per day for the past five years.
      All of the following are considered correct regarding the disadvantages of smoking during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of developing small teeth with faulty enamel

      Explanation:

      Small teeth with faulty enamel is more associated with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).

      In FAS, the most common orofacial changes are small eyelid fissures , flat facies, maxillary hypoplasia, short nose, long and hypoplastic nasal filter, and thin upper lip. The unique facial appearance of FAS patients is the result of changes in 4 areas: short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge with an upturned nasal tip, hypoplastic philtrum with a thin upper vermillion border, and a flat midface. Other facial anomalies include micrognathia, occasional cleft lip and/or palate and small teeth with defective enamel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 84 - A 29 year old is diagnosed with stage 1A2 cervical cancer. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old is diagnosed with stage 1A2 cervical cancer. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LLETZ

      Explanation:

      The treatment of stage 1A cervical cancer is excision of the margins using the Loop electrical excision procedure (LLETZ). Hysterectomy is not necessary. This treatment enables fertility to be preserved.

      2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma
      0 – Carcinoma in situ
      1 – Confined to the cervix (diagnosed microscopy)
      1A1 – Less than 3mm depth & 7mm lateral spread
      1A2 – 3mm to 5mm depth & less than 7mm lateral spread
      1B1 – Clinically visible lesion or greater than A2 & less than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      1B2 – Clinically visible lesion, greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2 – Invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or lower 1/3 vagina
      2A1 – Involvement of the upper two-thirds of the vagina, without parametrical invasion & Less than 4cm
      2A2 – Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2B – Parametrial involvement
      3 – Extends to Pelvic side wall or lower 1/3 vagina or hydronephrosis
      3A – No pelvic side wall involvement
      3B – Pelvic side wall involved or hydronephrosis
      4 – Extends beyond true pelvis 4A Invades mucosa bladder and rectum
      4B – Distant Metastasis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 85 - What is the maximum normal diameter of the yolk sac on transvaginal ultrasound?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the maximum normal diameter of the yolk sac on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6mm

      Explanation:

      The yolk sac increases in size up until the 10th week reaching a maximum diameter of 6mm in normal pregnancy. After the 10th week the yolk sac will gradually disappear. It is usually sonographically undetectable by 20 weeks. A yolk sac greater than 6mm diameter is suspicious of failed pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
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  • Question 86 - What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pubic arch

      Explanation:

      Pelvic Outlet Boundaries Anteriorly: Pubic arch Laterally: Ischial tuberosities Posterolaterally: Inferior margin of the sacrotuberous ligament Posteriorly: Tip of the coccyx Note: The pelvis outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 87 - The amniotic fluid volume progressively increases during pregnancy. At which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The amniotic fluid volume progressively increases during pregnancy. At which of the following gestational ages will amniotic fluid volume reach a maximum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 35 weeks

      Explanation:

      Amniotic fluid volume begins to increase rapidly in the second and third trimester as the fetal kidneys continue to develop. By 35 weeks gestation the amniotic fluid volume reaches a maximum average of about 800 ml after which it decreases slightly to term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 88 - Raised FSH levels are found in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Raised FSH levels are found in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Women on combined oral contraceptive pills

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen- and progesterone-containing oral contraceptives inhibit LH, which suppresses the FSH and LH levels, preventing follicular development and ovulation. Combined pills suppress FSH and LH throughout the cycle, inhibit endometrial proliferation, and produce a scanty cervical mucus. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 89 - A 35-year-old Aboriginal woman is found to be lgM positive, but lgG negative...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old Aboriginal woman is found to be lgM positive, but lgG negative after exposure to a child with rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy.
      On laboratory investigation, rubella infection is confirmed as repeated serology testing shows not only a positive lgM, but also a rising titers of lgG.
      Among the following next steps in management, which one is considered to be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Termination of the pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Antenatal screening for rubella IgG is a routine recommended for all pregnant women at their first visit. All pregnant women who have a history of contact with rubella or any clinical features consistent with rubella –like illness should be screened for the presence of rising antibody titre and / or rubella specific IgM. Serological confirmation is mandatory for diagnosing rubella.
      As in this case scenario, positive lgM for rubella indicates active rubella infection, in such cases it is recommended to repeat the test. If lgM is still positive, it confirms rubella infection. No further testing from another laboratory is required.
      The risk for fetal infection and damage is higher if rubella infection occurs during the first trimester of pregnancy, which is 85% in the first two months of pregnancy and 50 -80% in the third month. Therefore, termination of pregnancy is usually recommended in this situation. NHIG has been used in trials for prophylaxis and prevention of congenital rubella syndrome after contact to a case with rubella infection, but the results have been discouraging, therefore, it is not advisable.
      In the given case, rubella infection has been established already, so NHIG will not be of any benefit as primary prevention.
      Rubella-containing vaccines like MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine are contraindicated throughout pregnancy, it should be avoided; and women who remain susceptible to rubella should receive MMR vaccine postpartum.
      Risk of fetal infection and/or fetal damage or for development of congenital rubella syndrome is related to the timing of maternal infection. Cases with Primary infection is found to be in higher risk
      In cases of asymptomatic re-infection with a good history of previous positive serology, even though it is difficult to quantify, the risk of fetal infection has been reported to be < 5 percent. Congenital rubella syndrome following maternal re-infection is considered rare particularly if re-infection occurs after 12 weeks. If the clinical picture is typically of rubella or if possibility of previous immunity is inconclusive based on serology, then the risk is assumed to be the same as that of primary infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 90 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic.
    She complains of a 6 week...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic.
      She complains of a 6 week history of amenorrhoea and on diagnostic testing, has a positive pregnancy test.
      On past medical history, it is noted that she had a multiload (Cu375) intrauterine device inserted six months ago.
      On physical examination, The strings of the device are not visibly protruding through the external os, as would be expected.
      She is happy to proceed with the pregnancy, and asks what should be done next.
      What is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound of the pelvis.

      Explanation:

      The best next step is to order an ultrasound of the pelvis to locate the IUCD in the uterine cavity.

      Once the device is located, appropriate advice can be given about the pregnancy proceeding.

      Uterine sounding and hysteroscopy are contraindicated in the presence of a viable pregnancy due to risks of infection and abortion.

      Pelvic X-ray is indicated if the device cannot be located during the pelvic ultrasound. It can show if the device is in the peritoneal cavity or has been expelled from the uterus. It should only be done after the pregnancy.

      In cases where the device is in the peritoneal cavity, a laparoscopy is indicated for device removal.

      Pregnancy termination is not indicated simply because of the presence of an intrauterine device (IUCD) in the uterus, unless other factors dictate that this is appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 91 - An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new partner and she are arranging a trip to Thailand. She has no contraindications.
      What is the best piece of advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral contraceptive pills and condoms

      Explanation:

      OCPs should be started in this patient as well as condoms to prevent likely sexually transmitted infections.

      Condoms alone are not effective for prevention of pregnancy.

      OCPs alone do not prevent from sexually transmitted infections.

      It is not appropriate to inform the parents and the patient hasn’t refused any advice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 92 - A 51-year-old woman comes to your doctor's office for a breast cancer screening....

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old woman comes to your doctor's office for a breast cancer screening. For the past year, she has been on combination hormone replacement treatment (HRT). Mammography is the sole accessible form of breast cancer screening, and she is predicted to have dense breast tissue due to HRT.
      Which of the following is the best HRT and breast cancer screening suggestion for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue HRT and perform mammography as recommended for other women

      Explanation:

      Among a variety of imaging modalities developed for breast cancer screening, mammography is the best-studied and the only imaging technique that has been shown to decrease mortality as demonstrated in multiple randomized trials. However, it is important to know that, even in the best circumstances, mammography may miss up to 20 percent of underlying breast cancers.

      Women on HRT are likely to have dense breast. Dense breasts are associated with an increased risk of breast cancer and can decrease the sensitivity of mammography for small lesions. Nevertheless, we do not alter our general approach to age- and risk-based screening based on breast density. However, for women with dense breasts, we do prefer digital mammography over film mammography, due to greater sensitivity; digital mammography is the modality typically used for mammography in most locations in the United States.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 93 - Which of the following pubertal events is NOT mediated by gonadal oestrogen production?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pubertal events is NOT mediated by gonadal oestrogen production?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pubic hair growth

      Explanation:

      The role of androgens in the female includes acting as precursors for oestrogen production, anabolic effects, stimulation of axillary and pubic hair growth, sebum production, stimulation of bone formation, and stimulation of erythropoietin production in the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 94 - A 26 year old patient with PCOS has been trying to conceive for...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient with PCOS has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. Which of the following is the most appropriate first line treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clomiphene

      Explanation:

      Firstline medical management of PCOS is with clomiphene.

      Ovulation Disorders

      WHO Group I : Hypothalamic pituitary failure (Stress, anorexia, exercise induced)
      Management:
      Increase BMI if <19 kg/m2
      Reduce exercise if high levels
      Pulsatile GnRH or Gonadotrophins with LH activity to induce ovulation

      WHO Group II : Hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian dysfunction (PCOS)
      Management:
      Weight reduction if BMI >30
      Clomiphene/Clomiphene (1st line)
      Metformin (1st line)
      Clomiphene & Metformin (1st/2nd line)
      Laparoscopic drilling (2nd line)
      Gonadotrophins (2nd line)

      WHO Group III : Ovarian failure
      Management:
      Consider IVF with donor eggs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 95 - A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to hospital with very severe hypertension. This is her second pregnancy. In the United Kingdom, what is the first line of treatment for hypertension whilst pregnant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Atenolol is considered teratogenic and has two main risks: fetal bradycardia and neonatal apnoea. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are also known to be teratogenic (even though large-scale studies are difficult to conduct during pregnancies).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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  • Question 96 - A 23-year-old G1P0 female presents to your department with a complaint of not...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old G1P0 female presents to your department with a complaint of not having menstrual periods over the last 6 months. She had her first menstrual periods at the age of 13 and they have been consistent since then with a cycle of 28 days. She reports that she had an unplanned pregnancy 8 months ago and did an elective abortion at the 8th week of gestation. Since that time she has not had menstrual periods. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and they use condoms consistently. The pregnancy test is negative.
      Which of the following diagnostic tests is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hysteroscopy

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with secondary amenorrhea, most likely caused by Asherman’s syndrome- Secondary amenorrhea is defined as absence of menstruation for – 3 months in a patient who had regular menstruation previously or absence of menstruation for 9 months in a patient who had oligomenorrhea- Asherman’s syndrome as the cause of her amenorrhea is suggested by its beginning shortly after undergoing elective abortion. It is an outflow tract obstruction caused by intrauterine synechiae resulting from the procedure.

      The best diagnostic test to confirm this diagnosis is hysteroscopy. It can allow visualization of the uterine cavity, the nature and extent of intrauterine synechiae.

      → Progesterone withdrawal test is one of the diagnostic studies done in the early work-up of secondary amenorrhoea- It is usually followed by the estrogen-progesterone challenge test and other tests. Progesterone withdrawal test alone would not confirm Asherman’s syndrome.
      → Pelvic ultrasound is more useful in primary amenorrhea work-up when the presence or absence of the uterus is to be confirmed- It is not very useful in the evaluation of intrauterine adhesions.
      → Brain MRI is useful in confirming the presence of pituitary tumours in patients, who are found to have high levels of prolactin. This patient’s most likely cause of secondary amenorrhea is Asherman’s syndrome.
      → TSH and prolactin levels should be the next step in the work-up of secondary amenorrhea after pregnancy has been ruled out; however, these studies cannot confirm Asherman’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 97 - A 21-year-old nulliparous lady came seeking contraceptive advice. She has never smoked and...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old nulliparous lady came seeking contraceptive advice. She has never smoked and has no relatives who have been diagnosed with breast cancer or heart disease.
      Her weight is 90 kg, her height is 167 cm, her BMI is 32 kg/m2, and her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg, as recorded on two occasions. She also suffers from hirsutism. she was diagnosed with PCOS.
      What are your plans for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis. A woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovaries (as opposed to PCOS) if she has 20 or more follicles in at least 1 ovary. The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
      Hirsutism
      Infertility
      Obesity and metabolic syndrome
      Diabetes
      Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Drugs used in the treatment of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) include metformin (off-label use), spironolactone, eflornithine (topical cream to treat hirsutism), and oral contraceptives. Oral contraceptives containing a combination of oestrogen and progestin increase sex hormone–binding globulin (SHBG) levels and thereby reduce the free testosterone level. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels are also suppressed. This restores cyclic exposure of the endometrium to oestrogen-progestin, with the resumption of menstrual periods and decreased hirsutism.

      Drug of choice for treatment of PCOS are COCs, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 98 - Lymph drainage from the bladder is via which nodes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Lymph drainage from the bladder is via which nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External, Internal and Common iliac nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic drainage of the bladder is to the common iliac nodes via the internal iliac nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 99 - A patient arrives on labour ward she is 38 weeks pregnant. Her last...

    Incorrect

    • A patient arrives on labour ward she is 38 weeks pregnant. Her last and only pregnancy ended with delivery via uncomplicated lower segment C-Section 3 years ago. Contractions are 6 minutes apart and on examination and the cervix is 6cm dilated. She wants to know the chances of a successful vaginal delivery if she proceeds with a vaginal delivery after C-section(VBAC). What is the chance of successful delivery with VBAC?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      There is 70% chance that a women who has had a C-section can deliver via spontaneous vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
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  • Question 100 - All of the following statements regarding human chorionic gonadotrophin are true except:: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements regarding human chorionic gonadotrophin are true except::

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It's level doubles every 48 hours in ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      In normal pregnancy the levels of hCG doubles after every 48-72 hours but in case of ectopic pregnancy the levels of hCG are lower than the normal. It is produced by the placenta and its main role is nourishment of the egg after implantation. Its levels reached a peak at 8-10 weeks of pregnancy and after that the levels decreases for the remainder of pregnancy. In hydatiform mole and trophoblastic diseases its the main hormone for diagnosis of the disease because the levels are highly elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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