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  • Question 1 - An 18-year-old female patient presents with a history of headache and photophobia. You...

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    • An 18-year-old female patient presents with a history of headache and photophobia. You believe that the diagnosis is subarachnoid haemorrhage but your colleague insists on bacterial meningitis. Which of the following would you use to support your diagnosis?

      Your Answer: A history of diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: A family history of polycystic renal disease

      Explanation:

      Hypertension could be the result of polycystic renal disease and is a risk factor for subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH). What are common in polycystic renal disease are cerebral aneurysms which could rupture if hypertension is present. Both meningitis and SAH can lead to a fluctuating level of consciousness and opiate abuse is not a risk factor for either SAH nor meningitis. Finally, diabetes is not linked with none of the possible diagnoses because hypertension is not a risk factor of diabetes.

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  • Question 2 - A 60 year old male complained of pain and redness at the metatarsophalangeal...

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    • A 60 year old male complained of pain and redness at the metatarsophalangeal joints of left big toe. He was on treatment for hypertension. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is responsible for the above symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      The clinical diagnosis is acute gout. According to the latest research diuretics, β blockers, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, and non-losartan angiotensin II receptor blockers are associated with an increased risk of gout, as those drugs increase serum uric acid levels. Calcium channel blockers and losartan are associated with a lower risk. Thiazide diuretics have the highest association with gout.

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  • Question 3 - A 6-month-old baby boy presented to the paediatrician with yellow discolouration of his...

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    • A 6-month-old baby boy presented to the paediatrician with yellow discolouration of his skin and sclera. His mother says his stools are pale. On examination, he was found to be below average weight. What is a likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Pale stools suggest obstructive jaundice. Initially, the symptoms of biliary atresia are indistinguishable from those of neonatal jaundice, a usually harmless condition commonly seen in infants. However, infants with biliary atresia develop progressive conjugated jaundice, pale white stools and dark urine.

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  • Question 4 - A young woman presents to the clinic with massive hematemesis. The episodes continue...

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    • A young woman presents to the clinic with massive hematemesis. The episodes continue to occur despite initial measures. She is a chronic alcoholic. Which of the following steps would be the most important regarding the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency banding

      Explanation:

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common medical emergency which carries a hospital mortality in excess of 10%. The most important causes are peptic ulcer and varices. Varices are treated by endoscopic band ligation or injection sclerotherapy and management of the underlying liver disease.

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  • Question 5 - What is the blood supply to the liver? ...

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    • What is the blood supply to the liver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein

      Explanation:

      The liver receives a dual blood supply from the hepatic portal vein and hepatic arteries. The hepatic portal vein delivers approximately 75% of the liver’s blood supply, and carries venous blood drained from the spleen, gastrointestinal tract, and its associated organs. The hepatic arteries supply arterial blood to the liver, accounting for the remaining quarter of its blood flow. Oxygen is provided from both sources; approximately half of the liver’s oxygen demand is met by the hepatic portal vein, and half is met by the hepatic arteries

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  • Question 6 - A 35 year old male complains of a headache that gets worse when...

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    • A 35 year old male complains of a headache that gets worse when he moves his head forward. From the list of options, which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic Sinusitis

      Explanation:

      Symptoms such as pain worsening when bending forward, are consistent with chronic sinusitis. Sinusitis also does not present with nausea or vomiting, which is worsened by loud noises or bright lights.

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  • Question 7 - Which of the following characteristics does the jugular venous waveform have in tricuspid...

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    • Which of the following characteristics does the jugular venous waveform have in tricuspid regurgitation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Large V waves

      Explanation:

      The jugular venous pulsation has a biphasic waveform.

      – The a wave corresponds to right atrial contraction and ends synchronously with the carotid artery pulse. The peak of the ‘a’ wave demarcates the end of atrial systole.
      – The c wave corresponds to right ventricular contraction causing the tricuspid valve to bulge towards the right atrium during RV isovolumetric contraction.
      – The x’ descent follows the ‘c’ wave and occurs as a result of the right ventricle pulling the tricuspid valve downward during ventricular systole (ventricular ejection/atrial relaxation). (As stroke volume is ejected, the ventricle takes up less space in the pericardium, allowing relaxed atrium to enlarge). The x’ (x prime) descent can be used as a measure of right ventricle contractility.
      – The x descent follows the ‘a’ wave and corresponds to atrial relaxation and rapid atrial filling due to low pressure.
      – The v wave corresponds to venous filling when the tricuspid valve is closed and venous pressure increases from venous return – this occurs during and following the carotid pulse.
      – The y descent corresponds to the rapid emptying of the atrium into the ventricle following the opening of the tricuspid valve.

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  • Question 8 - A girl suffered full thickness circumferential burn to her right arm. What is...

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    • A girl suffered full thickness circumferential burn to her right arm. What is best step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escharotomy

      Explanation:

      An escharotomy is a surgical procedure used to treat full-thickness (third-degree) circumferential burns. In full-thickness burns, both the epidermis and the dermis are destroyed along with sensory nerves in the dermis. The tough leathery tissue remaining after a full-thickness burn has been termed eschar.

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  • Question 9 - Which type of myocardial infarction has the worst prognosis? ...

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    • Which type of myocardial infarction has the worst prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Exercise tolerance of 3 METS on a predischarge exercise test is the most important indicator of a poor post-MI prognosis. Other similar features that predispose the individual to a poor prognosis are resuscitation from a secondary ventricular tachyarrhythmia after the fist 24h and poor left ventricular function on echo.

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  • Question 10 - Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?...

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    • Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Drug induced lupus typically presents with pulmonary involvement and no renal or neurological involvement. Hence glomerulonephritis would be highly unlikely in this case. Rash and arthralgias are classic presentations. Pleurisy can be present as pulmonary involvement may occur with DILE.

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  • Question 11 - A 52-year-old hypertensive, smoker presents to ER with right side weakness. He gives...

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    • A 52-year-old hypertensive, smoker presents to ER with right side weakness. He gives a history of multiple falls and lack of concentration. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multi-infarct dementia

      Explanation:

      The patient is a heavy smoker and hypertensive which are risk factors of atherosclerosis and cerebrovascular diseases. The acute onset of the weakness and the lateralization indicates a cerebral infarction.

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  • Question 12 - Select the correct statement regarding the portal vein. ...

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    • Select the correct statement regarding the portal vein.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It drains most of the gastrointestinal tract and the spleen.

      Explanation:

      The portal vein supplies 75% of total blood flow to the liver and enters the liver centrally via the porta hepatis. Portal venous flow increases after meals. The portal vein receives blood from the intestines via the superior and inferior mesenteric veins, from the stomach via gastric veins and from the spleen and pancreas via the splenic vein.

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  • Question 13 - A 60 year old male has been taken to the doctor with dysphagia...

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    • A 60 year old male has been taken to the doctor with dysphagia and pain when swallowing. A barium meal shows he has gross dilation of the oesophagus, with a smooth narrowing at the lower end. Choose the single most likely cause of his symptoms.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Finding it difficult to swallow both food and drink with a narrow oesophagus is consistent with a diagnosis of achalasia.

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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old male, came to the OPD with a complaint of severe headache...

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    • A 45-year-old male, came to the OPD with a complaint of severe headache on the right side with right-sided jaw pain and additional blurred vision in the right eye. The headache was throbbing in character. What is the single most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ESR

      Explanation:

      The age of the patient, one sided headache and loss of vision on that side suggest temporal arteritis, also known as giant cell arteritis. The laboratory hallmark of this condition is a raised ESR.

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  • Question 15 - A 75 year old woman presented with difficulty in climbing the stairs and...

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    • A 75 year old woman presented with difficulty in climbing the stairs and difficulty in holding her head up, for the past 6 months. She didn't have any significant joint pain. Her creatinine phosphokinase level was very high and ESR was normal. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis is an idiopathic inflammatory myopathy characterized by symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness, elevated skeletal muscle enzyme levels and characteristic electromyography (EMG) and muscle biopsy findings. Weak neck extensors cause difficulty holding the head up. Pain is not a significant symptom, which differentiates it from arthritic conditions. ESR is elevated in only 50% of patients with polymyositis.

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  • Question 16 - A 20 year old female is suffering from amenorrhea. She has a BMI...

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    • A 20 year old female is suffering from amenorrhea. She has a BMI of 14 but still thinks that she needs to lose weight. Choose the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Anorexia is consistent with the symptoms described.

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  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old woman had a major surgery for removal of cancer of the...

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    • A 70-year-old woman had a major surgery for removal of cancer of the ovary and lymph node dissection 6 days ago. She had not passed any flatus or stool since then. She recently developed recurrent vomiting and severe abdominal distention. What is the next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NG tube suction and IV fluids

      Explanation:

      This patient developed paralytic ileus. It should be treated conservatively using IV fluids and NG tube.

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  • Question 18 - A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur...

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    • A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur radiating to between her scapulae. A radio-femoral delay was also found. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      These cardiovascular findings are suggestive of coarctation of the aorta, which is common among patients with Turner’s syndrome. Physical features of Turner’s syndrome include a short neck with a webbed appearance, a low hairline at the back of the head, low-set ears, and narrow fingernails and toenails that are turned upward.
      Atrioventricular septal defect is the most common cardiac anomaly in Down’s syndrome.
      Structural heart defects at birth (i.e., ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus) are common in Edward’s syndrome.
      Pulmonary stenosis with or without dysplastic pulmonary valve and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are common in Noonan’s syndrome.
      Supravalvar aortic stenosis and peripheral pulmonary stenosis are found in William’s syndrome.

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  • Question 19 - A 20-year-old football player has fallen and hit his head on the ground....

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    • A 20-year-old football player has fallen and hit his head on the ground. He did not lose consciousness but has a left side subconjunctival haemorrhage, swelling, and tenderness over his left cheek. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial XR

      Explanation:

      History and examination findings are suggestive of facial injury and intracranial haemorrhage is unlikely. To exclude any facial fracture, an X-ray is suggested.

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  • Question 20 - A 37-year-old male patient presented with bilateral kidney stones. He gave a history...

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    • A 37-year-old male patient presented with bilateral kidney stones. He gave a history of sarcoidosis. What is the most probable cause for renal stones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyper calcaemic

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is a multisystem granulomatous disorder which may involve the kidneys to a variable degree. Renal calculi have been reported to occur in about 10% of patients with chronic sarcoidosis. Hypercalcaemia due to marked hyperabsorption of dietary calcium, bone resorption and renal tubular calcium reabsorption causes hypercalciuria. Both hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria contribute to nephrolithiasis.

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  • Question 21 - A 12-year-old boy was admitted with profound diarrhoea and low urine output. His...

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    • A 12-year-old boy was admitted with profound diarrhoea and low urine output. His mucous membranes seem dry and his skin turgor is low. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid replacement

      Explanation:

      Fluid replacement therapy should be initiated immediately because the patient is suffering from severe dehydration as shown by the low urine output, the dry mucous membranes and the low skin turgor.

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  • Question 22 - A 10 month infant was brought in a drowsy condition with a 4...

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    • A 10 month infant was brought in a drowsy condition with a 4 day history of vomiting and diarrhoea. His skin turgor was reduced and skin appeared mottled. Vital signs showed decreased BP, reduced capillary refill and a heart rate of 145/min. The best choice of treatment in this case would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV fluid bolus over 20 minutes

      Explanation:

      According to WHO, the treatment protocol in severely dehydrated children, is to infuse a bolus of isotonic crystalloid over 20-30 min at 30ml/kg to children less than 12 months of age followed by giving the remaining fluid over 5 hours for infants. Reference: World Health Organisation, the treatment of diarrhoea, a manual for physical and senior health workers.

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  • Question 23 - Which of the following vaccinations is contraindicated in patients with malignancy undergoing chemotherapy?...

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    • Which of the following vaccinations is contraindicated in patients with malignancy undergoing chemotherapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      MMR vaccine is a live vaccine. It contains measles, mumps and rubella. These vaccines should be avoided during chemotherapy and for 6 months after.

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  • Question 24 - A child with jaundice and pale stools would most likely be evaluated by...

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    • A child with jaundice and pale stools would most likely be evaluated by which of the following tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: US

      Explanation:

      Blood tests do not help in the diagnosis of jaundice except of course by telling the level of jaundice (bilirubin) and providing some corroborative evidence such as autoantibodies, tumour markers or viral titres in the case of hepatitis. Classifying causes of jaundice on the basis of ultrasound provides a quick and easy schema for diagnosing jaundice which is applicable in primary care as well as hospital based practice.

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  • Question 25 - A 34 year old patient arrives at the clinic with cervical lymphadenopathy and...

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    • A 34 year old patient arrives at the clinic with cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Lymphomas are a type of cancer that arises from lymphocytes. There are two main types of lymphoma:
      1. Hodgkin lymphomas, which are characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, and
      2. Non-Hodgkin lymphomas (NHLs), which comprise all other types of lymphoma. NHLs are further classified according to the cell type, i.e., B cells, T cells, and natural killer (NK) cells, and tumour grade.
      Low-grade tumours originate from mature cells that have a slow growth rate and an indolent clinical course. The most common low-grade B-cell lymphoma is follicular lymphoma, while the most common low-grade T-cell lymphomas are the cutaneous T-cell lymphomas such as mycosis fungoides. High-grade tumours, on the other hand, have a rapid growth rate and an aggressive clinical course. Certain subtypes of NHL are more common in children and young adults, such as Burkitt lymphoma.
      There is a variety of treatment options, depending on the type of lymphoma. Generally, treatment involves a combination of chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Limited disease low-grade tumours and high-grade NHL are treated with a curative approach. Advanced, low-grade tumours are treated with a palliative approach in symptomatic patients.

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  • Question 26 - A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic,...

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    • A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic, having runny nose, sore throat, and fever. She has unceasing stridor and drooling of saliva while her body is inclined forward. What is the most important next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call ENT specialist

      Explanation:

      A consultation with an ENT is required to establish the reason for the child’s drooling and stridor indicating and obstructive process. Enlarged tonsils and adenoids should be checked.

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  • Question 27 - A 71 year old male got trapped under a cupboard for 4 hours...

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    • A 71 year old male got trapped under a cupboard for 4 hours which accidentally fell on his leg while he was moving his house. Which enzyme activity would you measure in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Creatinine kinase

      Explanation:

      Creatine kinase (CK) is an enzyme found in the heart, brain, skeletal muscle, and other tissues. Increased amounts of CK are released into the blood when there is muscle damage. This test measures the amount of creatine kinase in the blood.

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  • Question 28 - A defect in DNA gyrase can lead to which of the following cancerous...

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    • A defect in DNA gyrase can lead to which of the following cancerous conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Xeroderma pigmentosum

      Explanation:

      Xeroderma pigmentosum is an X-linked recessive condition, which is caused by mutations in DNA gyrase which further encodes the XP gene. The defect may lead to skin cancer at an early stage of life, especially at photo exposed sites.

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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old male visited his diabetic clinic with a complaint of inability to...

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    • A 55-year-old male visited his diabetic clinic with a complaint of inability to walk properly due to weakness of his lower limbs. On examination, dorsiflexion was found to be weak bilaterally and there was diminished sensation on the dorsum of his feet as well as on the lower lateral portions of his legs. Which of the following could have led to this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression of the common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The branches of the common peroneal nerve innervate the skin of the dorsum of the foot as well as the muscles which help to carry out dorsiflexion of the foot. Compression of the common peroneal nerve cause foot drop as well as the loss in sensation of the skin on the dorsum of the foot.

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  • Question 30 - A 12-year-old boy hit his head on a pole on the school playground....

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    • A 12-year-old boy hit his head on a pole on the school playground. His friends noted that he lost consciousness for a few seconds. The school nurse sent him to the Emergency Department as he had a small nasal bleed that stopped spontaneously. In the intervening two hours, he has noticed a watery discharge from his nose. On examination, there is considerable bruising on his nose and forehead, he was complaining of a headache. Which is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basilar skull fracture

      Explanation:

      Orbital bone fracture: The child has sustained a head injury and subsequently describes a CSF rhinorrhoea (indicating a cerebro-spinal fluid leak). CSF rhinorrhoea can occur in skull or nasal bone fractures. Given the symptoms of loss of consciousness and headache, this child is more at risk of having suffered a skull fracture requiring emergency CT head investigation and specialist neurosurgical management. An ethmoid bone fracture may also present this way. A skull x ray would help to determine an air fluid level and indeed allow some visualisation of the nasal bones, though in children the nasal bones do not visualise well due to lack of fusion. Either way this child would need assessment in the nearest Emergency Department and the school would be expected to follow a ‘head injury’ protocol.

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