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  • Question 1 - Cholecystokinin is secreted from: ...

    Correct

    • Cholecystokinin is secreted from:

      Your Answer: I cells in upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin (CCK) was discovered in 1928 in jejunal extracts as a gallbladder contraction factor. It was later shown to be member of a peptide family, which are all ligands for the CCK1 and CCK2 receptors. CCK peptides are known to be synthetized in the small intestinal endocrine I-cells and cerebral neurons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 59-year-old marketing manager presents with a persistent watery left eye for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old marketing manager presents with a persistent watery left eye for the past 4 days. On examination there is erythema and swelling of the inner canthus of the left eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dacryocystitis

      Explanation:

      Dacryocystitis is an infection of the lacrimal sac, secondary to obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct at the junction of lacrimal sac. It causes pain, redness, a watering eye (epiphora), and swelling and erythema at the inner canthus of the eye. Management is with systemic antibiotics. IV antibiotics are indicated if there is associated periorbital cellulitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 3 - Which of the following is suggestive of co-existence of mitral regurgitation and mitral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is suggestive of co-existence of mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Displaced apex beat

      Explanation:

      Apex beat displacement is caused by mitral regurgitation and because it is not found in mitral stenosis, it is suggestive of mixed mitral disease. The other given responses occur in mitral stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 4 - An elderly woman is taken to the clinic by her husband because she...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman is taken to the clinic by her husband because she has been complaining about seeing ghosts in their house. She no longer wants to enter in the house. You wonder if this might be Charles-Bonnet syndrome.
      Which of the following risk factors may pre-dispose this woman to Charles-Bonnet syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral visual impairment

      Explanation:

      Charles Bonnet syndrome (CBS) involves visual hallucinations due to eye disease, usually associated with a sharp decline in vision. The phenomenon is seen in patients with moderate or severe visual impairment. It can occur spontaneously as the vision declines or it may be precipitated, in predisposed individuals, by concurrent illness such as infections elsewhere in the body.

      It is not clear why CBS develops or why some individuals appear to be predisposed to it. It is particularly noted in patients with advanced macular degeneration. It has been suggested that reduced or absent stimulation of the visual system leads to increased excitability of the visual cortex (deafferentation hypothesis). This release phenomenon is compared to phantom limb symptoms after amputation.

      CBS is much more common in older patients because conditions causing marked visual loss are more common in older people. However, it can occur at any age and has been described in children.
      The prevalence is hard to assess due to considerable under-reporting, perhaps because patients frequently fear that it is a sign of mental illness or dementia. However, it is thought to occur in:
      About 10-15% of patients with moderate visual loss.
      Possibly up to 50% of people with severe visual loss.
      Presentation:
      The nature of the hallucination depends on the part of the brain that is activated. The hallucinations may be black and white or in colour. They may involve grids/brickwork/lattice patterns but are typically much more complex:

      The hallucinations are always outside the body.
      The hallucinations are purely visual – other senses are not involved.
      The hallucinations have no personal meaning to the patient.
      Hallucinations may last seconds, minutes or hours.
      CBS tends to occur in a ‘state of quiet restfulness’. This may be after a meal or when listening to the radio (but not when dozing off).
      Symptoms also have a tendency to occur in dim lighting conditions.
      Patients may report high levels of distress, with some patients reporting anger, anxiety and even fear associated with the hallucinations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast.

      Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Young age

      Explanation:

      Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
      1. Young age (<40 years)
      2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
      3. Increased tumour size
      4. High-grade tumour
      5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
      6. Positive lymph node status

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 6 - How should DVT during pregnancy be managed? ...

    Incorrect

    • How should DVT during pregnancy be managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dalteparin

      Explanation:

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition in which a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the leg.

      Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred treatment for most patients with acute DVT, including in pregnancy. A large meta-analyses comparing LMWH to unfractionated heparin (UFH) showed that LMWH decreased the risk of mortality, recurrent veno-thrombo embolism (VTE), and haemorrhage compared with heparin. Other advantages of LMWH may include more predictable therapeutic response, ease of administration and monitoring, and less heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Disadvantages of LMWH include cost and longer half-life compared with heparin.

      Warfarin, which is administered orally, is used if long-term anticoagulation is needed. The international normalized ratio (INR) is followed, with a target range of 2-3. Warfarin crosses the placenta and is teratogenic, causing a constellation of anomalies known as warfarin embryopathy, with greatest risk between the sixth and twelfth week of gestation.
      Other options are not indicated for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 7 - A 63 year old man presents with painless jaundice and weight loss over...

    Incorrect

    • A 63 year old man presents with painless jaundice and weight loss over the last few months. He is a heavy smoker and has a past medical history of COPD. On examination his abdomen is soft and non tender and he is clearly icteric.

      His bloods reveal deranged LFTs with an alkaline phosphates of 240 and a bilirubin of 92, ALT and AST are both around 200. An ultrasound of his abdomen is performed and shows both intra and extrahepatic bowel duct dilatation within the liver.

      What`s the first line investigation of his case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRCP

      Explanation:

      When you hear painless jaundice and weight loss in the same sentence, the first thing you should think is cancer. Likely cholangiocarcinoma here or some other biliary tract obstructing cancer. The first line imaging for this would be MRCP because you’re looking for obstruction– the dilatation of the intra and extrahepatic ducts suggests this. This is less invasive than an ERCP or a liver biopsy. CT C/A/P will likely be needed for staging later but it is asking for the initial test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoclast function

      Explanation:

      It is a metabolic bone disease caused by defective osteoclastic resorption of immature bone. Osteopetrosis is also known as marble bone disease. Osteoclasts are unable to adequately acidify bone matrix. Impaired bone resorption leads to overly dense bone that is more likely to fracture. It is usually treated with bone marrow transplant and high dose calcitriol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 66-year-old man with newly-diagnosed small cell carcinoma discusses his further treatment options...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man with newly-diagnosed small cell carcinoma discusses his further treatment options with the team of doctors.
      Which statement is incorrect about small cell carcinoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with small cell lung cancer always benefit from surgery

      Explanation:

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) is characterized by rapid growth and early dissemination. Prompt initiation of treatment is important.

      Patients with clinical stage Ia (T1N0) after standard staging evaluation may be considered for surgical resection, but combined treatment with chemotherapy and radiation therapy is the standard of care. Radiation therapy is often added at the second cycle of chemotherapy.

      Historically, patients undergoing surgery for small cell lung cancer (SCLC) had a dismal prognosis. However, more recent data suggest that patients with true stage I SCLC may benefit from surgical resection.

      Common sites of hematogenous metastases include the brain, bones, liver, adrenal glands, and bone marrow. The symptoms depend upon the site of spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase II metabolism of a drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conjugation

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:
      Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.

      Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 11 - A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is worried she may be depressed.

      On examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease and a gold-yellow ring at the periphery of the iris in both eyes. Her serum copper level is low.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      This patient has Wilson’s disease. They Kayser-Fleischer ring (ring that encircles the iris) is diagnostic of this. Low serum copper is seen in Wilson’s disease. With the Kayser-Fleischer ring, this makes all of the other answer choices incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 52 yr. old female who was a smoker, with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 52 yr. old female who was a smoker, with a history of asymptomatic atrial septal defect (ASD) presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion and ankle oedema for the past 2 weeks. She has defaulted on her follow up for ASD. On examination she was cyanosed and clubbing was noted. Her pulse rate was 92 and blood pressure was 100/60 mmHg. Echocardiography revealed a dilated right ventricle of the heart. The right ventricular pressure was 90 mmHg. Significant tricuspid and pulmonary regurgitation were also noted. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eisenmenger’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      According to echocardiography findings pulmonary pressure is closer to systemic blood pressure and it is evidence of pulmonary hypertension. Because of the reversal of shunt due to pulmonary hypertension, cyanosis and clubbing have developed. So the most probable diagnosis is Eisenmenger’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old male patient presents to the urology clinic with a one-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male patient presents to the urology clinic with a one-month history of passing frank haematuria. Flexible cystoscopy shows a mass of the bladder wall and biopsy reveals transitional cell carcinoma.

      Out of the following, which industry has he most likely worked in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dyestuffs and pigment manufacture

      Explanation:

      Exposure to aniline dyes is a risk factor for transitional cell carcinoma. Aniline dyes are used in dyestuffs and pigment manufacturing.

      The other aforementioned options are ruled out because:
      1. Feed production may expose to aflatoxin (hepatocellular carcinoma).

      2. Being a military personnel may expose to mustard gas (lung cancer).

      3. Rubber industry may expose to nitrosamines (oesophageal and gastric cancer).

      4. Refrigerant production before 1974 may expose to vinyl chloride (hepatic angiosarcoma).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 14 - A 38-year-old woman returns from a summer holiday with a dry cough. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman returns from a summer holiday with a dry cough. Her CXR shows bilateral consolidated areas. Which antibiotic would you suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin is a well-established broad-spectrum fluoroquinolone antibiotic that penetrates well into the lung tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 15 - A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club....

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club.

      Which of the following features suggest she had taken ecstasy (MDMA)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A pyrexia of 40°C

      Explanation:

      MDMA commonly known as ecstasy or molly, is a psychoactive drug primarily used as a recreational drug. The desired effects include altered sensations, increased energy, empathy, and pleasure. Features of MDMA abuse include hyponatraemia, tachycardia, hyperventilation, and hyperthermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 16 - A 46-year-old nurse presents with a short history of epistaxis and bleeding gums....

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old nurse presents with a short history of epistaxis and bleeding gums. Her complete blood count, coagulation profile, and blood film are requested. The results are as follows:

      Hb: 8.6 g/dL,
      WCC: 2.3 x 10^9/L,
      Plts: 18 x 10^9/L,
      Coagulation profile: deranged,
      Blood film: bilobed large mononuclear cells.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      This is a picture of bone marrow failure secondary to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). AML is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

      Other listed options are ruled out because:
      1. Von Willebrand disease: may present with epistaxis and bleeding gums in severe cases but rarely with abnormalities on blood results.

      2. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia: mostly seen in children.

      3. Lymphoma: usually presents with rubbery enlargement of lymph nodes.

      4. Warfarin overdose: no bilobed large mononuclear cells seen on blood film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 17 - Causes of dilated pupils include which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Causes of dilated pupils include which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethylene glycol poisoning

      Explanation:

      Ethylene glycol poisoning is the only poison listed that will cause dilation of the pupils whereas all the other listed conditions and poisons will present with small pupils other than in the case of Myotonic dystrophy wherein the patient will present with a cortical cataract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged....

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged. On review, she is making good progress but consideration is given to secondary prevention of further fractures. What is the most appropriate step in the prevention of further fractures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      In such a clinical scenario, NICE guidelines support initiating treatment with bisphosphonates without waiting for a DEXA scan.

      Osteoporosis is defined as low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure ultimately predisposing patients to low-impact, fragility fractures.

      Management:
      Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D replete
      Alendronate is the first-line treatment. Around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate.
      Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates.
      Other medications that are useful in the treatment of osteoporosis are denosumab, teriparatide, raloxifene, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 19 - A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty,...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty, her temperature is 33 °C and she was in left ventricular failure.
      Her blood glucose level is 5.7 mmol/l and random cortisol is elevated. Free T4 is 4.4 pmol/l.
      A CT scan of her brain reveals no focal lesion and a cursory assessment reveals no gross focal neurology.

      Which diagnosis fits best with this woman’s clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Profound hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients with severe hypothyroidism often present with variable symptoms that may be masked or potentiated by co-morbid conditions. Characteristic symptoms may include fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, hoarseness, constipation, and myalgias. Neurologic symptoms may include ataxia, depression, and mental status changes ranging from mild confusion to overt dementia.
      Clinical findings that may raise suspicion of thyroid hormone deficiency include hypothermia, bradycardia, goitrous enlargement of the thyroid, cool dry skin, myxoedema, delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes, a pericardial or abdominal effusion, hyponatremia, and hypercholesterolemia.

      The patient has a greatly reduced free T4 concentration, is hypothermic, unconscious and has evidence of associated heart failure. All of those support the diagnosis of profound hypothyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome with right-sided accessory pathway

      Explanation:

      Causes for right axis deviation:
      -Right ventricular hypertrophy and Left posterior fascicular block
      -Lateral myocardial infarction.
      -Acute or chronic lung diseases: Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cor pulmonale.
      -Congenital heart disease (e.g., dextrocardia, secundum atrial septal defect).
      -Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
      -Ventricular ectopic rhythms (e.g., ventricular tachycardia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 21 - A 77 year old mail carrier presents to the emergency department with severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 77 year old mail carrier presents to the emergency department with severe flinging movements of his right arm. Where would the causative lesion be located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right subthalamic nucleus

      Explanation:

      Hemiballismus is a movement disorder which manifests as unilateral involuntary flinging movements of the proximal upper limbs. The lesion is located in the ipsilateral subthalamic nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 27-year-old lady presents with severe morning headaches associated with nausea. Head MRI...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old lady presents with severe morning headaches associated with nausea. Head MRI reveals a large compressive tumour arising from the falx cerebri. The tumour is well delineated. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningioma

      Explanation:

      Meningiomas are the most common benign tumours of the brain. Their name is derived from the fact that they arise from the dura mater which together with the pia matter and arachnoid mater form the meninges. The chances that a meningioma is benign are almost 98%. They are non-invasive and well delineated, causing sign and symptoms of brain compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements regarding restless leg syndrome is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding restless leg syndrome is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is three times as common in females

      Explanation:

      In restless leg syndrome (RLS), males and females are thought to be equally affected. RLS is a syndrome of spontaneous, continuous lower limb movements that may be associated with paraesthesia. It is extremely common, affecting between 2-10% of the general population and a family history may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 74-year-old man with longstanding Waldenström's macroglobulinemia presents to the rheumatology clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man with longstanding Waldenström's macroglobulinemia presents to the rheumatology clinic with joint pain and generalised weakness.

      Which of the following would be most indicative of type I cryoglobulinemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raynaud's phenomenon

      Explanation:

      Cryoglobulinemia may be caused by paraprotein bands such as those seen in Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia and multiple myeloma (MM). Meltzer’s triad of arthralgia, weakness, and palpable purpura are common to all types of cryoglobulinemia—as are membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis and low C4 levels. Raynaud’s phenomenon, however, occurs only in type 1 cryoglobulinemia, and its presence can be helpful in ascertaining the underlying cause.

      Cryoglobulinemia is a condition in which the blood contains large amounts of pathological cold-sensitive antibodies called cryoglobulins—proteins (mostly immunoglobulins themselves) that become insoluble at reduced temperatures. One-third of the cases are idiopathic.

      There are three types of cryoglobulinemia:
      1. Type I (25%):
      Monoclonal—IgG or IgM
      Associated with multiple myeloma (MM), Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia

      2. Type II (25%):
      Mixed monoclonal and polyclonal—usually with rheumatoid factor (RF)
      Associated with hepatitis C, rheumatoid arthritis (RA), Sjogren’s syndrome

      3. Type III (50%):
      Polyclonal—usually with RF
      Associated with rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s syndrome

      Investigation results for cryoglobulinemia show low complement (especially C4) and high ESR. Treatment options include immunosuppression and plasmapheresis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 25 - A patient presented with acute onset of mild right hemiparesis affecting the body....

    Incorrect

    • A patient presented with acute onset of mild right hemiparesis affecting the body. He also has evidence of sensory loss on the right hand side. There is evidence of Horner’s syndrome and sensory loss on the face on the left hand side.
      Which of the following structures are involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain stem

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome or posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome, where the symptoms are due to an ischemia in the brainstem. The classical symptoms include contralateral sensory deficits of the trunk region paired with ipsilateral facial sensory deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old lady is found to be hepatitis B surface antigen positive. This...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old lady is found to be hepatitis B surface antigen positive. This positive result has persisted for more than six months. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) is negative. HBV DNA is negative. Her liver function tests are all entirely normal.

      Which of the following options would be the best for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No antiviral therapy but monitor serology

      Explanation:

      Again, remember the Hepatitis B serologies: In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, + anti-HBc, + IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. In immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, + anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. IN THIS CASE, the person is HBsAg+ for 6 months and everything else is negative, normal transaminase. They do not need antiviral therapy, but their serology should be monitored serially. There would be no reason to do a liver biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - In which part of the body is conjugated bilirubin metabolised to urobilinogen? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which part of the body is conjugated bilirubin metabolised to urobilinogen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Large intestine

      Explanation:

      Urobiligen is produced by the action of bacteria on bilirubin in the intestine. As a reminder, unconjugated bilirubin becomes conjugated in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin goes through enterohepatic circulation. About half of the urobiligen is reabsorbed and excreted by the kidneys in the urine. The rest is converted to stercobilinogen –> stercobilin, which is excreted in stool, giving it its brown colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - Which one of the following types of thyroid cancer is associated with the...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following types of thyroid cancer is associated with the RET oncogene?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medullary

      Explanation:

      RET (rearranged during transfection) is a receptor tyrosine kinase involved in the development of neural crest derived cell lineages, kidney, and male germ cells. Different human cancers, including papillary and medullary thyroid carcinomas, lung adenocarcinomas, and myeloproliferative disorders display gain-of-function mutations in RET.
      In over 90% of cases, MEN2 syndromes are due to germline missense mutations of the RET gene.
      Multiple endocrine neoplasias type 2 (MEN2) is an inherited disorder characterized by the development of medullary thyroid cancer (MTC), parathyroid tumours, and pheochromocytoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - A 53 year-old dancer presents to the ED with increasing weakness. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 53 year-old dancer presents to the ED with increasing weakness. She has no pertinent past medical history aside from a recent diarrhoeal illness, which she attributes to an undercooked chicken meal. Her husband says that she has been unable to get up out of a chair for the past day. Upon examination, there is bilateral limb weakness and areflexia noted, but it is more severe in the lower limbs. You notice that if she lies flat in the bed, her oxygen saturations fall by around 2% on the pulse oximeter and she is unable to perform spirometry. Which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate management of choice in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ITU review for consideration of ventilation

      Explanation:

      This woman has a history that is suggestive of Guillain– Barré syndrome. This may be precipitated by Campylobacter, and her history of recent diarrhoeal illness is pointing towards that. Certain features point to a poor prognosis, including rapidity of onset, reduced vital capacity or respiratory failure, age >40 and reduced amplitude of compound muscle action potential. Her inability to perform spirometry and desaturating whilst lying flat are suggestive of impending respiratory muscle weakness. Review for consideration of ventilation is recommended. Further management of choice for Guillain-Barre syndrome is IV immunoglobulins. Steroids have no value in the treatment of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 75-year-old lady is referred to hospital from her GP. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old lady is referred to hospital from her GP. She has been treated for essential hypertension, with Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg once daily and triamterene 150 mg once daily.
       
      Routine investigations show:

      Serum sodium 134 mmol/L (137-144)
      Serum potassium 5.9 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Serum urea 7.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Serum creatinine 100 μmol/L (60-110)

       
      Her blood pressure is measured at 134/86 mmHg. Her electrocardiogram is normal. The GP has stopped the triamterene today.
       
      Which of these is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat urea and electrolytes in one week

      Explanation:

      Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalaemia, therefore, it was stopped in this patient. With all other lab results returning normal values and a normal ECG, management will simply require repeating the U & E after one week since the Triamterene has already be stopped.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

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