-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 59-year-old patient presents with altered bowel habits and bleeding per rectum. Exam and sigmoidoscopy showed an ulcer. What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Colorectal carcinoma
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms along with his age indicates a diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Blood test marker CA-19-9 is a prognostic index for colorectal cancer which confirms the suspicion. Celiac disease is not usually associated with bleeding per rectum and it is associated with a reaction to products containing gliadin. Crohn’s disease and UC are inflammatory bowel diseases and on endoscopy, show many other features of inflammation and not just a single ulcer. A patient with IBS will also have bloating and intermittent diarrhoea with constipation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 55 year old female presents with complaints of retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia (which is intermittent and unpredictable in nature). When she swallows, food very suddenly 'sticks' in her chest. She is able to clear it when she drinks water, and then can finish the meal without any further incidence. A barium meal shows she has a corkscrew oesophagus. What is the most likely type of dysphagia here?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal spasm
Explanation:All of the symptoms observed in this patient are typical of uncoordinated irregular oesophageal peristalsis – this is characteristic of oesophageal spasm. The cork-screw oesophagus is also diagnostic of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old male was brought in unconscious state with high fever, swollen nasal mucosa and constricted pupils. Which of the following substances can cause this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cocaine
Explanation:This presentation is suggestive of cocaine toxicity. The major effects of cocaine poisoning include CNS effects such as agitation, seizures and psychosis, and cardiovascular effects such as dysrhythmias, myocardial infarction and cardiovascular collapse. The common route for cocaine ingestion is through the nose, hence the irritated swollen septum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old male came to the emergency room after sustaining injuries during a fight at a nightclub. He was drunk and abusive to the nurse on duty. Which of the following steps is the most appropriate in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:As this patient seems to be a danger to the safety of staff, police should be called to handle the situation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A child cannot wave goodbye or grasp objects with her fingers and thumb but can sit briefly supported by leaning forward on her hands. She can reach and grasp objects with the whole hand and then pass it from one hand to the other and is babbling. What is her expected age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:At 7 months, children are expected to sit briefly leaning forward on their hands, reach and grasp objects, transfer objects from hand to hand, and babble. Children are usually expected to wave goodbye or grasp objects with their fingers or thumb at around 10 months and older.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman was found to have splenomegaly with her spleen palpable up to the umbilicus. Blood tests revealed the following results: Hb=8.7g/dl, Platelets=72 and WBC=100. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia
Explanation:Patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) can initially be asymptomatic but as the disease progresses, they appear to have elevated WBCs with anaemia and a lower than normal platelet count. The blood test results in addition to the profound splenomegaly, which is the most common finding in patients with CML, make CML the most possible diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
From the list of options, choose the most likely anaesthetic or analgesic cause of maternal hypotension.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epidural anaesthetic
Explanation:In spinal anaesthesia, the needle parts the dura rather than tears it. In an epidural, however, the needle is meant to inject around the dura but may penetrate it by accident. Maternal hypotension is most likely to be caused by dural penetration during an epidural, as this is the generally intended procedure. Postdural puncture headache appears to be associated higher with a spinal than an epidural.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency by his parents with worsening ataxia. They also mention that the boy's urine has a distinct sweet odour. Further investigations reveal the presence of leucine, isoleucine and valine in the urine. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maple Syrup Urine Disease
Explanation:Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder affecting branched-chain amino acids. It is one type of organic academia. The condition gets its name from the distinctive sweet odour of affected infants’ urine, particularly prior to diagnosis, and during times of acute illness. MSUD, also known as branched-chain ketoaciduria, is an aminoacidopathy due to an enzyme defect in the catabolic pathway of the branched-chain amino acids leucine, isoleucine, and valine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old male is complaining about sore feet and lower back pain. He says it feels like walking on gravel. He also mentioned have some urethral discharge that he had not received any treatment for. He had a holiday in Morocco recently. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sjogren's Syndrome
Explanation:This is a case of Sjogren Syndrome (aka Reiter’s disease). It is characterised by a triad of: seronegative arthritis mostly sacroiliitis (walking on gravel reflects planter fasciitis), urethritis and conjunctivitis. Sjogren Syndrome usually follows gastroenteritis or non specific urethritis. On the other hand gonococcal arthritis usually occurs in patients who are systemically unwell.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 55 year old lady who a known case of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) presented with complaints of weakness in her lower limbs, urinary incontinence and progressively worsening confusion. Which of the following statements is true regarding NPH?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is associated with gait disturbance
Explanation:Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a form of communicating hydrocephalus characterised by enlarged ventricles with normal opening pressure on lumbar puncture. For diagnostic purposes, a triad of urinary incontinence, gait abnormality and dementia is necessary. It is necessary to diagnose the condition early because it is reversible by placing a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. It is most common in patients aged more than 60 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old woman experienced right sided weakness shortly after she woke up. However, the weakness resolved in 30 minutes and left no disability. Her CT and ECG appear normal. What extra actions should be taken if she is already on Aspirin, Simvastatin, Amlodipine and Bendroflumethiazide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start Aspirin 300 mg for 2 weeks
Explanation:The patient has most probably experienced a transient ischemic attack which should be initially managed with aspirin 300 mg for two weeks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 25 year old female presented with multiple small genital ulcers, which are painful following a sexual intercourse with an unknown man. Which of the following can be used topically for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acyclovir
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis is Herpes Simplex infection. Topical Acyclovir can be used in early stages.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A child suffers from a chest infection while taking flucloxacillin. A few days later, he develops jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. What is he suffering from now?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholestatic jaundice
Explanation:Due to its cholestatic properties, Flucloxacillin can block bile flow through the liver, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, giving rise to jaundice. Dark urine is the result of excessive bilirubin in the blood being filtered by the kidney. As the bile doesn’t move into the small intestine, stools are pale.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Barrett's oesophagus is well recognized as a complication of gastroesophageal reflux disease. What is the pathological change that occurs in the above condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous to columnar epithelium
Explanation:Barrett’s oesophagus is characterised by the metaplastic replacement of the normal squamous epithelium of the lower oesophagus by columnar epithelium.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old woman presents with painful vesicles in her right ear and a fever for some time. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster
Explanation:Herpes zoster oticus is a viral infection of the inner, middle, and external ear. It manifests as severe otalgia with associated cutaneous vesicular eruption, usually of the external canal and pinna. When associated with facial paralysis, the infection is called Ramsay Hunt syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 41-year-old woman has been feeling down lately. She has been avoiding social events and has a strong family history of depression. Which of the following increases her suicidal tendency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Past history of overdose
Explanation:A large prospective study identified hopelessness, higher levels of suicidal ideation, recurrent episodes of depression, presence of personality disorders, previous psychiatric hospitalisation, older age, unemployed status and a family history of suicide as significant markers for suicide. Having one or more previous suicide attempts is a very strong predictor of suicide risk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old child presented to the paediatric clinic with a swollen face, hands and feet. She gained 2 kilograms over the last month despite poor feeding. What is the investigation of choice in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary albumin
Explanation:This is a case of nephrotic syndrome that can be confirmed by the presence of urinary albumin. It should be further investigated by a tissue sample to confirm the diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 37-year-old woman known with ulcerative colitis is referred with a microcytic anaemia. Blood tests reveal the following results:
Hb 88 g/L (120-160),
WCC 3.6 ×109/L (4-11),
Platelets 222 ×109/L (150-400),
MCV 70 fL (80-96),
Haptoglobins <0.04 g/L (0.13-1.63),
Lactate dehydrogenase 850 U/L (100-250),
Bilirubin 68 µmol/L (1-22),
Alkaline phosphatase 100 U/L (45-105),
ALT 23 U/L (5-40).
Which investigation would confirm the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:This a case of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia which is a rare complication of the less used treatment, salazopyrine, used for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). A direct Coombs’ test looks for erythrocytes already coated with antibody, whereas the indirect test is used to detect potential red cell antibody interactions floating around in the blood.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
An 8 week old baby presents with a fever of 38 degrees. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for infection screen and start IV antibiotic
Explanation:This temperature is considered to be a mild fever and is most often caused by a minor infection in children of this age. Therefore, an infection screen should be conducted and an IV antibiotic.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A female with a history of prolonged depression presents to the clinic with coarse tremors. Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Valproate is one of the most prescribed antiepileptic medications and is also commonly associated with tremors. It is the most common neurological adverse event observed with valproate. Approximately 25% of patients taking valproate are found to develop a tremor within 3–12 months of initiating therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
All of the following conditions because feeding problems for a neonate except for which one?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Physiological jaundice
Explanation:Physiological jaundice is the condition in which there is a yellow discolouration of the eyes and the skin of the baby caused by the build up of bilirubin in the blood due to an immature liver. No other symptoms accompany physiological jaundice, thus it will not present with difficulty in feeding. All the other conditions listed can present with feeding problems.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 25 year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised pruritis during the 3rd trimester of her pregnancy. She was diagnosed as a case of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Which one of the following factors carries the greatest risk to the foetus in this disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perinatal mortality
Explanation:Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy can affect both mother and foetus, however it is more harmful for the foetus. Amongst foetuses, there is an increased risk of perinatal mortality, meconium aspiration, premature delivery and post partum haemorrhage. Exact cause of fetal death cannot be predicted accurately but it is not related to intra uterine growth retardation or placental insufficiency. The liver can be affected in the mother leading to generalized pruritis but no evidence of fetal hepatic dysfunction has been found.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came for pre-pregnancy counselling. Which of the following is the most suitable advise for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines women with type I diabetes, who are expecting a child should aim to keep their HbA1c level[1] below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) without causing problematic hypoglycaemia. Women with diabetes whose HbA1c level is above 86 mmol/mol (10%) should be strongly advised not to get pregnant because of the associated risks. The risks are higher with chronic diabetes. There is an increased risk to the foetus or mother due to diabetes in pregnancy. Women who are waiting to become pregnant should take folic acid (5 mg/day) until 12 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
From the following options, choose the one which is most characteristic of early Alzheimer's disease.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Alzheimer’s disease is most often characterized early on by short-term memory loss. The other options in this list are characteristic of the following: normal pressure hydrocephalus (gait ataxia and urinary incontinence); Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (myoclonic jerks); delirium or Lewy body dementia (visual hallucinations).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 61-year-old man presents post seizure. On examination, he is oriented and alert with hyper-reflexia of the left arm, and inattention on the left side of the body. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebral tumour
Explanation:Brain tumour symptoms include gradual paralysis on one side of the body, extreme headaches, and seizures. Hyperreflexia is defined as overactive reflexes including twitching or spastic tendencies, which are indicative of upper motor neuron disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 40 year old male returning from an African country, presented with lower abdominal pain and haematuria. Bladder calcifications were detected on abdominal x-ray. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schistosoma haematobium
Explanation:Schistosoma haematobium characteristically causes urinary tract disease. S.mansoni, S. mekongi, S. intercalatum, and S. japonicum cause intestinal tract and liver disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A rise in which of the following antibodies would indicate severe systemic involvement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti double-stranded DNA antibodies
Explanation:Anti ds-DNA antibodies are very specific for SLE and their presence most often indicates systemic spread of the disease. These antibodies are present in about 30 percent of the total cases of SLE.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in her left elbow that is localized to the left lateral epicondyle. She has spent the weekend painting her house. A diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis is suspected. The pain would characteristically worsen on which of the following movements?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended
Explanation:Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles, thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which results in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which of the following drugs does not cause broncho-dilatation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Atenolol is a beta-selective (cardio selective) adrenoceptor blocking drug without partial agonist or membrane stabilising activity. Higher doses of Atenolol causes broncho-constriction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)