00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - Ulipristal is thought to prevent pregnancy by what primary mechanism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Ulipristal is thought to prevent pregnancy by what primary mechanism?

      Your Answer: Environmental changes resulting in decreased sperm motility

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      Ulipristal is a progesterone receptor modulator that is used up to 120 hours following unprotected intercourse. It inhibits ovulation. The dose is 30 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman visited your clinic at her 30th week of gestation, complaining...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visited your clinic at her 30th week of gestation, complaining of left lower limb pain.
      The doppler ultrasound findings had confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis and she was treated with low molecular weight heparin.
      Now she is at her 34 weeks of gestation, and is expecting delivery in next four weeks. What would be your advice for her today?

      Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin should be switched to unfractionated heparin

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed deep vein thrombosis during pregnancy and required anti-coagulation as part of treatment for up to 3-6 months. Enoxaparin, which is a low molecular weight heparin, is preferred over heparin due to the once or twice a day therapeutic dosing. Also monitoring of aPTT is not required in this case.

      There is an association between Enoxaparin and an increased risk for epidural hematoma in women receiving epidural anaesthesia during labour. Considering that the patient mentioned is expected to go for delivery in 4 weeks and the possibility of her needing an epidural anaesthesia or general anaesthesia in case of undergoing a cesarean section, enoxaparin should be switched to unfractionated heparin, four weeks prior to the anticipated delivery. This is because of the fact that heparin can be antidoted with protamine sulphate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Excessive increased level of β-HCG is expected in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Excessive increased level of β-HCG is expected in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Human chorionic gonadotropin levels dynamically increase during early gestation and the levels are significantly greater in viable pregnancies than in ectopic gestation, biochemical pregnancy, or spontaneous abortions. Similarly, the hCG concentrations are significantly higher in multiple pregnancy as compared with singleton.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In which of the following situations are mini-pills unsafe to use? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following situations are mini-pills unsafe to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian cysts

      Explanation:

      Progestin only pills increase the risk of developing follicular cysts. Sonographic studies have observed that follicular cysts are more common in POP users than women not using hormones. The follicular changes tend to increase and regress over time. No intervention is required in asymptomatic women, other than reassurance. POP users who have persistent concerns about ovarian follicular changes should be offered another method of contraception.

      All other options are not contraindications to the use of mini-pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old lady (gravida 0, para-O) presents with occasional lower abdomen discomfort. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old lady (gravida 0, para-O) presents with occasional lower abdomen discomfort. She is not sexually active and her periods last between 32 and 35 days. Her most recent regular menstrual period began three weeks ago. A pelvic ultrasound was performed which shows a normal uterus, left ovary, and a thin unilocular cyst in the right ovary around 4 cm in size. The most likely cause of this ultrasound finding is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A follicular cyst.

      Explanation:

      If one believes that this cycle will last 35 days, the cyst in the left ovary was discovered at mid-cycle.
      It’s too huge to be a ruptured pre-ovulatory follicle, and it doesn’t exhibit the characteristics of a corpus luteum, a benign cystic teratoma, or an endometrioma.

      As a result, a follicular cyst is the most likely diagnosis.

      A benign cyst is almost always seen on ultrasound as a unilocular, thin-walled cystic formation.

      The presence of solid materials in a multiloculated cystic structure strongly suggests the presence of a malignant mass.
      In a 25-year-old woman, this would be unusual, but not unheard of.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An ultrasound in the 1st trimester of pregnancy is done for? ...

    Incorrect

    • An ultrasound in the 1st trimester of pregnancy is done for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dating of the pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Early ultrasound improves the early detection of multiple pregnancies and improved gestational dating may result in fewer inductions for post maturity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following factors as shown to decrease ovarian cancer risk? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors as shown to decrease ovarian cancer risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Taking statins

      Explanation:

      Factors shown to decrease risk of ovarian cancer are:
      – Oral contraceptive use
      – Higher Parity
      – Breast feeding
      – Hysterectomy
      – Tubal Ligation
      – Statins
      – SLE

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where...

    Incorrect

    • The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilium

      Explanation:

      Arcuate means ‘bow shaped’ and there are different arcuate lines in anatomical terms. Regarding the pelvic brim this is composed of the arcuate line of the ilium, pectineal line and prominences of sacrum and pubic symphysis (as demonstrated in the images below). As can be seen the arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium inferior to the iliac fossa and Iliacus. Image sourced from Wikipedia Note: The pelvic outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in her underpants one day prior to consultation. Her mother reports that the girl started cycling lessons one week ago. How will you proceed with the investigation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Examination under Anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      A local exam might not help in locating the cause of the bleeding because it might be underneath the superficial structures. A thorough examination should be done under GA to accurately locate the source of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband, presents to your hospital with amenorrhea lasting two months. She is currently taking clozapine with appropriate control of her symptoms.
      Which of the following is the most crucial step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea worldwide. As a result, the first thing to check in every woman of reproductive age who has amenorrhea is a urine pregnancy test.
      Once pregnancy has been ruled out, an ultrasound or measuring FSH and LH may be done to assess the condition (if required).
      FBC is used to track clozapine side effects such as neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is not recommended for the assessment of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The external carotid develops from the 1st arch. The common and internal carotid develop from the 3rd arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy,...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum free T4

      Explanation:

      Free T3 (FT3) and free T4 (FT4) levels are slightly lower in the second and third trimesters. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low-normal in the first trimester, with normalization by the second trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 24-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks of gestation, presented with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks of gestation, presented with a history of vaginal pressure, vaginal spotting and lower back pain.
      Transvaginal ultrasound finding shows cervical shortening to 2 cm, cervical dilation, and protrusion of fetal membranes into the cervical canal.
      Which among the following risk factors is not related to the development of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol abuse

      Explanation:

      This woman has developed non-specific symptoms of cervical insufficiency, is a painless dilation of cervix resulting in the delivery of a live fetus during the 2nd trimester or premature delivery.

      The following has been identified as the risk factors associated with increased incidence of cervical insufficiency:
      – Congenital disorders of collagen synthesis like Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
      – Prior cone biopsies.
      – Prior deep cervical lacerations, which is secondary to vaginal or cesarean delivery.
      -Müllerian duct defects like bicornuate or septate uterus.
      – More than three prior fetal losses during the 2nd trimester

      From the given options, alcohol abuse is the only one not associated with increased incidence of cervical insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You are asked to infiltrate a patients perineum with local anaesthetic prior to...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to infiltrate a patients perineum with local anaesthetic prior to episiotomy. What is the maximum dose of lidocaine (without adrenaline)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The half-life of lidocaine is approximately 1.5 hours. It is a local anaesthetic and the maximum dose that can be given is 3mg/kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 21-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation in her second pregnancy is...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation in her second pregnancy is admitted in the hospital for severe abdominal pain. She notes that also has been having vaginal bleeding of about one litre and uterine contractions are present. Her previous pregnancy was a vaginal, without any complications. Her current blood pressure is 95/50 mmHg with a pulse rate of 120 beats/min.
      On physical examination, the uterus is palpable at the level of the xiphisternum and is firm. It is acutely tender to palpation. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard on auscultation or with Doppler assessment. The cervix is 4 cm dilated and fully effaced. Immediate resuscitative measures are taken.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amniotomy

      Explanation:

      This patient is presenting with a severe placental abruption causing fetal death and shock in the mother. The most appropriate initial management for the patient is to treat her shock with blood transfusions and exclude or treat any coagulation disorder resulting from the abruption. Delivery also needs to be expedited to remove the dead foetus. An amniotomy is usually all that is required to induce spontaneous labour as the uterus is usually very irritable. Spontaneous labour is likely to occur in this case, where the cervix is already 4 cm dilated and fully effaced.

      Caesarean section is rarely needed to be done when the foetus is already dead.

      Vaginal prostaglandin and an oxytocin (Syntocin®) infusion are not needed and unlikely to be required.

      Ultrasound examination to confirm the diagnosis and fetal death is also unnecessary given the clinical and Doppler findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal Nerve

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve arises from the S2-S4 nerve roots and it lies medial to the internal pudendal artery while exiting the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen. It curves around the sacrospinous ligament and re-enters the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen and from there it runs medial to the ischial tuberosity over the obturator internus in the pudendal canal to the deep perineal pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The following is a gram positive obligate anaerobe: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following is a gram positive obligate anaerobe:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clostridia

      Explanation:

      Obligate anaerobes are a group of bacteria that cannot survive in an oxygen-rich environment. In the body, they are usually found on mucosal membranes such as that of the lower gastrointestinal system, or the vagina. Infection with these organisms is usually suprative and causes abscesses. Examples of gram-negative anaerobes include Bacteroides, Fusobacterium and Prevotella, while gram-positive anaerobes include Actinomyces and Clostridia. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are both gram-positive facultative anaerobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following medications, when given before & during pregnancy may help...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications, when given before & during pregnancy may help to protect neural tube defects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic acid

      Explanation:

      Maternal exposure to dietary factors during pregnancy can influence embryonic development and may modulate the phenotype of offspring through epigenetic programming. Folate is critical for nucleotide synthesis, and preconceptional intake of dietary folic acid (FA) is credited with reduced incidences of neural tube defects in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 37-year-old woman has been taking Microgynon (oral contraceptive pill [OCP]).
    When she...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman has been taking Microgynon (oral contraceptive pill [OCP]).
      When she presents for a repeat prescription, her BP is 160/100 mmHg.
      She mentions that she would like to stop the OCP in six months so that she can conceive.

      What is the most suitable advice for this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cease the OCP, use condoms for contraception, and reassess the BP in three months.

      Explanation:

      The woman’s blood pressure was elevated at her visit; therefore she should be advised to immediately cease the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) so that the hypertension can resolve without the need for any hypotensive treatment. The blood pressure can then be reassessed in three months. Alternative, non-hormonal birth control methods such as condoms should be used instead.

      If her high blood pressure does not resolve, any medication that would be commenced to reduce her blood pressure should be one that is safe to continue when she becomes pregnant.

      It is inappropriate to continue the OCP even at a lower dosage or in combination with a hypotensive agent.

      Methyldopa has been evaluated and used for treatment of hypertension during pregnancy. There is no clinical evidence to suggest that it causes harm to the foetus or neonate.

      Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are not approved for use in pregnancy as they have been associated with fetal death in utero. Other antihypertensive agents such as beta-blockers and diuretics are also problematic in pregnancy and should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In evaluating a reproductive age woman who presents with amenorrhea, which of the...

    Incorrect

    • In evaluating a reproductive age woman who presents with amenorrhea, which of the following conditions will result in a positive (withdrawal) progesterone challenge test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum followed by the placenta- Exogenous progesterone will not lead to withdrawal bleeding. In ovarian failure as well as pituitary failure, no oestrogen stimulation of the endometrium exists, and progesterone cannot cause withdrawal bleeding. With Mullerian agenesis, there is no endometrium. Polycystic ovarian syndrome has an abundance of circulating oestrogen, so the endometrium will proliferate.

      → In pregnancy progesterone withdrawal will not occur since the corpus luteum is producing progesterone- The placenta will take over, starting at 7 weeks, and will be the sole producer of progesterone by 12 weeks.
      → In ovarian failure no oestrogen will be produced; no proliferation of the endometrium will occur.
      → Pituitary failure is an incorrect answer because without gonadotropin stimulation, there will not be enough oestrogen to stimulate the endometrial lining.
      → Mullerian agenesis is an incorrect answer – there is no uterus, thus no bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 28 year old women is seen in the early pregnancy unit. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old women is seen in the early pregnancy unit. She has had a positive pregnancy test but is uncertain of her LMP. Ultrasound doesn't visualise a pregnancy. You perform bHCG tests 48 hours apart. The first bHCG is 400mIU/ml. The second is 190mIU/ml. What is the likely diagnosis

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-viable pregnancy

      Explanation:

      B-HCG levels almost double every 48 hours. A B-HCG levels of less than 5 mIU/ml is considered negative and anything above 25 is considered positive. As the foetus was not visualized on ultrasound in the uterus, there is possibility that this might be an ectopic pregnancy. But since the B-HCG levels also continued to fall the pregnancy becomes non-viable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - In which one of the following circumstances, is it least likely for a...

    Incorrect

    • In which one of the following circumstances, is it least likely for a foetus to be in a transverse lie?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A normal term foetus

      Explanation:

      Normal position of the foetus in relationship to the mother is always a longitudinal lie and a cephalic presentation. Transverse lie means that the baby is sideways. The foetus lies transverse till 26-28th week of gestation, after which it usually changes its position from transverse to a longitudinal lie with head down. A transverse lie can occur in conditions like grand multiparity, preterm foetus, placenta previa and pelvic contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - From which germ layer does the myenteric plexus of the GI tract developed:...

    Incorrect

    • From which germ layer does the myenteric plexus of the GI tract developed:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neural crest of Ectoderm

      Explanation:

      During the 5th week, the neural crest cells migrate along each side of the spinal cord where they form ganglions located dorsolateral to the aorta. Some of these cells migrate ventrally and form neurons in the preaortic ganglia as the celiac and mesenteric ganglia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Lymph drainage from the bladder is via which nodes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Lymph drainage from the bladder is via which nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External, Internal and Common iliac nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic drainage of the bladder is to the common iliac nodes via the internal iliac nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 34-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation. Her past medical history is insignificant, she is non-alcoholic and is not taking any medicine.
      The most likely diagnosis with such a presentation is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premenstrual syndrome

      Explanation:

      As the most likely diagnosis, this woman meets diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome (PMS).
      Affective and physical symptoms that begin one week before menstruation and end four days after menstrual flow begins are diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome. The symptoms must be present for at least three menstrual cycles and must not occur during the preovulatory period.
      It’s critical to note that these symptoms are not caused by any medical or psychological condition, medications, drugs, or alcohol.

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome marked by intense melancholy, emotional lability with frequent tears, and a lack of interest in daily activities. To put it another way, emotional impairment is the most prominent trait.

      This woman does not meet the diagnostic criteria for PMDD because she only has psychological symptoms of irritation and anxiety, as well as physical symptoms of headache and breast soreness (five symptoms).

      PMDD diagnostic criteria include:
      Symptoms and their timing
      A) At least 5 symptoms must be present in the final week before menses, improve within a few days after menses, and become mild or non-existent in the week after menses in the majority of menstrual cycles.
      Symptoms
      B) At least one of the symptoms listed below must be present:
      1) Affective lability that is noticeable (e.g., mood swings, feeling suddenly sad or tearful, or increased sensitivity to rejection)
      2) Excessive irritation, wrath, or interpersonal conflicts
      3) Depressed mood, hopelessness, and self-depreciating thoughts
      4) Severe anxiety, tension, and/or a sense of being tense or on edge
      C) In addition to the symptoms listed in criterion B, one (or more) of the following symptoms must also be present to reach a total of five symptoms.
      1) Loss of enthusiasm for customary activities
      2) Subjective concentration problems
      3) Lethargy, fatigability, or a noticeable lack of energy
      4) Significant changes in appetite, such as binge eating or specific food desires
      5) Insomnia or hypersomnia
      6) A feeling of being overwhelmed or powerless
      7) Physical signs and symptoms include breast discomfort or swelling, joint or muscle pain, bloating, or weight gain.
      Severity
      D)The symptoms are linked to clinically substantial distress or interfere with employment, school, regular social activities, or interpersonal relationships.
      E) Think about other mental illnesses. The disturbance isn’t only a sign of another disorder, like major depressive disorder, panic disorder, persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), or a personality disorder (although it may co-occur with any of these disorders).
      Confirmation of the condition
      F)Prospective daily ratings throughout at least two symptomatic cycles should be used to confirm Criterion A. (although a provisional diagnosis may be made prior to this confirmation)
      Other medical explanations are ruled out.
      G) The symptoms aren’t caused by the physiological consequences of a substance (e.g., drug misuse, medication, or other treatment) or a medical condition (e.g., hyperthyroidism).
      The severity of the symptoms cannot be explained by normal menstrual physiology.
      Generalized anxiety disorder and depression are improbable diagnoses because these symptoms are temporally tied to menstrual cycles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG) is structurally similar to which of the following hormones?...

    Incorrect

    • Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG) is structurally similar to which of the following hormones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

      Explanation:

      TSH, FSH, LH and HCG are all similar glycoproteins. These hormones consist of a common α-subunit and specific β-subunit. All are glycosylated, which determines their bioactivity and half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Fetal urine production starts at what gestation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal urine production starts at what gestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8-11 weeks

      Explanation:

      Fetal urine contributes significantly to amniotic fluid production in the second trimester of pregnancy. As early as 8-11 weeks, urine production begins and can be observed in the fetal bladder on ultrasound scans. The urine creates a hypotonic fluid which contains increasing concentrations of urea and creatinine. By term, a foetus produces about 800 ml of urine a day, of which 250ml is eliminated through fetal swallowing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy induced hypertension

      Explanation:

      Congenital uterine abnormalities are associated with an increased risk of spontaneous abortions, preterm delivery of the foetus, fetal growth retardation and malpresentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial depolarisation

      Explanation:

      P wave = Atrial depolarisation
      QRS complex = Ventricular depolarisation
      T wave = Ventricular repolarisation
      U wave = repolarisation of the interventricular septum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old woman presents for difficulty and pain in attempting sexual intercourse. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents for difficulty and pain in attempting sexual intercourse. She states that she never had such symptoms prior. The pain is not felt at the time of penetration, but appears to hurt deeper in the vagina.
      She was recently pregnant with her first child and delivery was three months ago. She did not have an episiotomy or sustain any vaginal lacerations during delivery. She denies any vaginal bleeding since her lochia had stopped two months ago. She is still breastfeeding her child.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her dyspareunia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrophic vaginal epithelium.

      Explanation:

      This is a patient that recently gave birth and is still breastfeeding presenting with dyspareunia. The most likely cause would be a thin atrophic vaginal epithelium. This is very common presentation and is due to the low oestrogen levels due to the prolactin elevation from breastfeeding.

      An unrecognised and unsutured vaginal tear should have healed by this time and should not be causing issues.

      Endometriosis tends to resolve during a pregnancy, but if this was the issue, it would have caused dyspareunia prior to pregnancy.

      Vaginal infective causes of dyspareunia, such as monilial or trichomonal infections, are rare in amenorrhoeic women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head...

    Incorrect

    • In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Face presentation

      Explanation:

      Face presentation is the abnormal position of the fetal head in labour. In this position the neck is hyperextended.
      Vertex position is the normal presentation of the foetus for delivery, in which the head is flexed and the position of the chin is towards the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 22-year-old primigravid woman present to the emergency department.
    She is at 40...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old primigravid woman present to the emergency department.
      She is at 40 weeks gestation and complains of a 24-hour history of no fetal movements.
      On auscultation, fetal heart beats are clearly audible with a measurement of 140/min.
      On diagnostic testing, the cardiotocograph (CTG) is normal and reactive.
      On physical examination, her cervix is 2cm dilated and fully effaced.
      She is reassured and allowed to return home.
      24 hours later, she calls to complain she has still felt no fetal movements, adding up to a 48 hour history.
      What is the best next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit for induction of labour.

      Explanation:

      Labour induction is indicated as no fetal movements have been felt for 24 hours, with a normal cardiotocograph (CTG) and the pregnancy is at near/full term with a favourable cervix.

      Amniotic fluid volume assessment would have been indicated 24 hours earlier as, if it was low, induction would have been indicated then, despite a normal CTG.

      Ultrasound examination of the foetus is not indicated as it is necessary to expedite delivery.

      Carrying out another CTG, with or without oxytocin challenge, is not indicated, although MG monitoring during induced labour would be mandatory.

      Delivery immediately by Caesarean section is not indicated unless the lack of fetal movements is due to fetal hypoxia. This can result in fetal distress during labour, necessitating an emergency Caesarean section if the cervix is not fully dilated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - You are discussing a planned Caesarean Section (CS) with a patient. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing a planned Caesarean Section (CS) with a patient. Which of the following risks is reduced with CS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early postpartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      There are many different reasons for performing a delivery by Caesarean section. The four major indications accounting for greater than 70 per cent of operations are: 1. previous Caesarean section 2. dystocia 3. malpresentation 4. suspected acute fetal compromise. Other indications, such as multifetal pregnancy, abruptio placenta, placenta praevia, fetal disease and maternal disease are less common. The chances of early postpartum haemorrhage are greatly reduced in C-section deliveries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to hospital with very severe hypertension. This is her second pregnancy. In the United Kingdom, what is the first line of treatment for hypertension whilst pregnant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Atenolol is considered teratogenic and has two main risks: fetal bradycardia and neonatal apnoea. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are also known to be teratogenic (even though large-scale studies are difficult to conduct during pregnancies).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      Vulvovaginal candidiasis is the most common genital infections and it is caused by candida albicans in 80-92% of the cases. It colonise the vaginal flora in 20% of non pregnant and 40% pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - What epithelium cell type lines the ureters? ...

    Incorrect

    • What epithelium cell type lines the ureters?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transitional

      Explanation:

      Uterus is lines by a single layer of columnar epithelium. The endometrium goes through changes during the menstrual cycles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - After birth, all of the following vessels constrict, EXCEPT the: ...

    Incorrect

    • After birth, all of the following vessels constrict, EXCEPT the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic portal vein

      Explanation:

      Immediately after birth the liver is deprived of the large flow of blood supplied during foetal development via the umbilical vein and portal sinus. Simultaneously the blood pressure in the portal sinus, previously as high as in the umbilical vein, falls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Maternal mortality rate is lowest in which age group? ...

    Incorrect

    • Maternal mortality rate is lowest in which age group?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 - 30

      Explanation:

      The maternal mortality rate starts low and raises steeply after the age of 30 years. The lowest mortality rate recorded among women is between 19-30 years of age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days

      Explanation:

      The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in Pregnancy: Erythromycin 500mg four times a day for 7 days or Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days or Amoxicillin 500 mg three times a day for 7 days or Azithromycin 1 gm stat (only if no alternative, safety in pregnancy not fully assessed) The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in NON-PREGNANT patients: Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days OR Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose NOTE: Doxycycline and Ofloxacin are contraindicated in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A patient at 15 weeks gestation undergoes an abortion. She has no known...

    Incorrect

    • A patient at 15 weeks gestation undergoes an abortion. She has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate regarding antibiotic prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stat Azithromycin 1g and metronidazole 800 mg orally at time of abortion

      Explanation:

      First trimester abortions are performed using mifepristone 600 mg followed by insertion of 1 mg gemeprost vaginal pessary. The patients stays in the hospital for about 4-6 hours. At the time of abortion azithromycin 1 g and metronidazole 800 mg should be given to cover the gram positive and negative bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic.
    She complains of a 6 week...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic.
      She complains of a 6 week history of amenorrhoea and on diagnostic testing, has a positive pregnancy test.
      On past medical history, it is noted that she had a multiload (Cu375) intrauterine device inserted six months ago.
      On physical examination, The strings of the device are not visibly protruding through the external os, as would be expected.
      She is happy to proceed with the pregnancy, and asks what should be done next.
      What is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound of the pelvis.

      Explanation:

      The best next step is to order an ultrasound of the pelvis to locate the IUCD in the uterine cavity.

      Once the device is located, appropriate advice can be given about the pregnancy proceeding.

      Uterine sounding and hysteroscopy are contraindicated in the presence of a viable pregnancy due to risks of infection and abortion.

      Pelvic X-ray is indicated if the device cannot be located during the pelvic ultrasound. It can show if the device is in the peritoneal cavity or has been expelled from the uterus. It should only be done after the pregnancy.

      In cases where the device is in the peritoneal cavity, a laparoscopy is indicated for device removal.

      Pregnancy termination is not indicated simply because of the presence of an intrauterine device (IUCD) in the uterus, unless other factors dictate that this is appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - The second stage of labour involves: ...

    Incorrect

    • The second stage of labour involves:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Expulsion of the foetus

      Explanation:

      First stage: The latent phase is generally defined as beginning at the point at which the woman perceives regular uterine contractions. A definition of active labour is having contractions more frequent than every 5 minutes, in addition to either a cervical dilation of 3 cm or more or a cervical effacement of 80% or more.

      Second stage: fetal expulsion begins when the cervix is fully dilated, and ends when the baby is born.

      Third stage: placenta delivery – The period from just after the foetus is expelled until just after the placenta is expelled is called the third stage of labour or the involution stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Among the following mentioned drugs, which one has reported the highest rate of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following mentioned drugs, which one has reported the highest rate of congenital malformations if used in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Among all the antiepileptic drugs sodium valproate carries the highest teratogenicity rate. The potential congenital defects caused by sodium valproate are as below:
      – Neural tube defects like spina bifida, anencephaly
      – Cardiac complications like congenital ventricular septal defect, aortic stenosis, patent ductus arteriosus, aberrant pulmonary artery
      – Limb defects like polydactyly were more than 5 fingers are present, oligodactyly were less than 5 fingers are present, absent fingers, overlapping toes, camptodactyly which is presented as a fixed flexion deformity of one or more proximal interphalangeal joints,split hand, ulnar or tibial hypoplasia.
      – Genitourinary defects like hypospadias, renal hypoplasia, hydronephrosis, duplication of calyceal system.
      – Brain anomalies like hydranencephaly, porencephaly, arachnoid cysts, cerebral atrophy, partial agenesis of corpus callosum, agenesis of septum pellucidum, lissencephaly of  medial sides of occipital lobes, Dandy-Walker anomaly
      – Eye anomalies like bilateral congenital cataract, optic nerve hypoplasia, tear duct anomalies, microphthalmia, bilateral iris defects, corneal opacities.
      – Respiratory tract defects like tracheomalacia, lung hypoplasia,severe laryngeal hypoplasia, abnormal lobulation of the right lung, right oligemic lung which is presented with less blood flow.
      – Abdominal wall defects like omphalocele
      – Skin abnormalities capillary hemangioma, aplasia cutis congenital of the scalp.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - The round ligament develops from which structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The round ligament develops from which structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gubernaculum

      Explanation:

      The round ligament is a remnant of the gubernaculum in females. In males it persists as the scrotal ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which of the following is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in patients of childbearing age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Vaginosis is a common condition which results in a foul smelling discharge from the vagina without any inflammation. It is the most common cause of abnormal PV discharge. Most of the women are asymptomatic carriers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - There are increasing rates of pregnancies among teenagers especially in low socioeconomic rural...

    Incorrect

    • There are increasing rates of pregnancies among teenagers especially in low socioeconomic rural areas.
      What is the contraception method of choice for teenagers with high risk of unplanned pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine Contraceptive Device

      Explanation:

      The use of long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) is globally accepted as a strategy that is successful in decreasing rates of unintended pregnancy, especially in very young women.
      Long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) are defined as any contraceptive that requires administration less than once per cycle (i.e. per month). This includes copper and progestogen-only intrauterine devices (IUDs), and progestogen subdermal implants and injections. However, subdermal implants and IUDs, which have a life of at least three years, have superior efficacy over injections, which require administration every three months. Implants and IUDs are highly cost-effective when compared with other contraceptive methods.

      LARCs are widely recommended by professional bodies and the World Health Organization (WHO) as first-line contraception for young women as they are safe, effective and reversible. Young women should be offered the choice of a LARC as part of a fully informed decision for their first form of contraception.

      LARCs surpass barrier methods and contraceptive pills in effectiveness and safety therefore all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia for the last 6 years. Her menstrual cycles are normal, but she has bled excessively for eight days every month, and her haemoglobin level was 90g/L one month ago. She's already on iron supplementation. She has a history of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 (CIN3) in addition to the anaemia, albeit her yearly smear test has been normal since the laser treatment six years ago. She is also undergoing hypertension treatment. Physical examination is unremarkable. She is not willing for endometrial ablation or hysterectomy until her menopause. Which of the following medical therapies would be the best for her to utilize between now and the time she is expected to hit menopause, which is around the age of 50?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD

      Explanation:

      Adenomyosis or dysfunctional uterine haemorrhage are the most likely causes of heavy periods.
      Because she refuses to have a hysterectomy or endometrial ablation, hormonal therapy must be administered in addition to the iron therapy she is already receiving.
      Any of the choices could be employed, but using therapy only during the luteal phase of the cycle in someone who is virtually surely ovulating (based on her typical monthly cycles) is unlikely to work.

      Danazol is prone to cause serious adverse effects (virilization), especially when used for a long period of time.
      GnRH agonists would cause amenorrhoea but are more likely to cause substantial menopausal symptoms, and the °fa contraceptive pill (OCP) is generally best avoided in someone using hypertension medication.

      Treatment with norethisterone throughout the cycle is likely to be the most successful of the treatments available.
      If a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena®) had been offered as an alternative, it would have been acceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 28-year-old woman had a C-section due to pre-eclampsia. She now complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman had a C-section due to pre-eclampsia. She now complains of right upper quadrant pain unrelated to the surgical wound. Which of the following investigations should be done immediately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LFT

      Explanation:

      There is a high risk of developing HELLP syndrome in pre-eclamptic patients. Considering that she is complaining of right upper quadrant pain, a LFT should be done immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan at 13 weeks following a positive pregnancy test. The patient has had 2 previous pregnancies for which she opted for termination on both occasions. The scan shows no identifiable fetal tissue or gestational sac and you note the radiologist has reported a 'bunch of grapes sign'. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Complete molar pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disorder is abnormal conception that is characterised by swollen and oedematous villi with proliferation of the trophoblasts. In a complete mole there is absence of fetal tissue, there is diffuse proliferation of trophoblastic tissue around hydropic villi and on USG it appears as a bunch of grapes or snow storm appearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for antenatal follow-up.
      On examination, the fundal height is found to be18 cm.
      which among the following would be the best next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform an ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      At 12 weeks gestation the fundus is expected to be palpable above the pubis symphysis and it is expected to be felt at the level of umbilicus by 20 weeks. Though the uterine fundus stands in between from 12 and 20 weeks, the height of the fundus in centimeters is equivalent to the weeks of pregnancy after 20 weeks.

      For 14-week pregnant uterus a fundal height of 18cm is definitely large and dating errors is considered as the most common cause for such a discrepancy. Hence, it is better to perform an ultrasound scan for more accurately estimating the gestational age. Also if the case is not a simple dating error, ultrasonography can provide definitive additional information about other possible conditions such as polyhydramnios, multiple gestation, etc that might have led to a large-for-date uterus.

      A large-for-gestational-age uterus are most commonly found in conditions like:
      – Dating errors which is the most common cause
      – Twin pregnancy
      – Gestational diabetes
      – Polyhydramnios
      – Gestational trophoblastic disease, also known as molar pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Passmed