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  • Question 1 - Which of these organisms is commonly spread by droplet transmission? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these organisms is commonly spread by droplet transmission?

      Your Answer: Rotavirus

      Correct Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

      Explanation:

      Droplets are airborne particles greater than 5 µm in size. Droplet transmission occurs during talking, coughing and sneezing where respiratory droplets are generated.

      Examples of organisms transmitted by the droplet route include:
      Neisseria meningitidis
      Respiratory syncytial virus
      Parainfluenza virus
      Bordetella pertussis
      Influenza virus

      Poliovirus and Rotavirus are transmitted by the faeco-oral route

      Hepatitis B is transmitted by Sexual route

      Staphylococcus aureus is transmitted by direct contact

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      2
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 71-year-old man treated with antibiotics for a chest infection returns with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old man treated with antibiotics for a chest infection returns with a profuse, offensive smelling diarrhoea. A diagnosis of Clostridium difficile diarrhoea is made after investigations.

      Which antibiotic is associated with the greatest risk of causing Clostridium Difficile diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile, a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacteria is present in the gut of approximately 3% of healthy adults (2012 UK HPA estimates). Following use of broad spectrum antibiotics, which alter normal gut flora, Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) occurs. About 80% of Clostridium Difficile infections are seen in people over the age of 65 and its main clinical features are:
      Abdominal cramps, severe bloody and/or watery diarrhoea, offensive smelling diarrhoea, and fever.

      CDI is the most severe consequence of antibiotic treatment and is a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
      Risk for CDI has been found to be greatest with clindamycin followed by fluoroquinolones Tetracyclines are not associated with risk for CDI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      3
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with statin therapy:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with statin therapy:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects of statins include:, Headache, Epistaxis, Gastrointestinal disorders (such as constipation, flatulence, dyspepsia, nausea, and diarrhoea), Musculoskeletal and connective tissue disorders (such as myalgia, arthralgia, pain in the extremity, muscle spasms, joint swelling, and back pain), Hyperglycaemia and diabetes, Myopathy and rhabdomyolysis, Interstitial lung disease and Hepatotoxicity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A patient presents with a history of excessive thirst, urination and high fluid...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a history of excessive thirst, urination and high fluid intake. His blood sugar is normal. You estimate his osmolarity as part of his work-up.

      Which of these equations can be used to estimate osmolarity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 (Na + ) + 2 (K + ) + Glucose + Urea

      Explanation:

      Osmolality and osmolarity are measurements of the solute concentration of a solution. Although the two terms are often used interchangeably, there are differences in the definitions, how they are calculated and the units of measurement used.

      Osmolarity, expressed as mmol/L, is an estimation of the osmolar concentration of plasma. It is proportional to the number of particles per litre of solution.
      Measured Na+, K+, urea and glucose concentrations are used to calculate the value indirectly.
      It is unreliable in pseudohyponatremia and hyperproteinaemia.

      The equations used to calculate osmolarity are:
      Osmolarity = 2 (Na+) + 2 (K+) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L)
      OR
      Osmolarity = 2 (Na+) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L)

      Doubling of sodium accounts for the negative ions associated with sodium, and the exclusion of potassium approximately allows for the incomplete dissociation of sodium chloride.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
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  • Question 5 - A tumour is discovered behind the pectinate line during an examination of a...

    Incorrect

    • A tumour is discovered behind the pectinate line during an examination of a 72-year-old patient with rectal bleeding. Which of the following is the lymphatic drainage of the pectinate line?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      The pectinate line is known as the watershed line because it divides the anal canal into two sections. Below the pectinate line, lymphatic drainage drains to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 6 - In a patient with an ongoing seizure, after what time period should treatment...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with an ongoing seizure, after what time period should treatment be commenced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Immediate emergency care and treatment should be given to children, young people and adults who have prolonged or repeated convulsive seizures.
      Prolonged seizures last 5 minutes or more.
      Repeated seizures refer to 3 or more seizures in an hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 7 - Glucagon is the main catabolic hormone of the body and raises the concentration...

    Incorrect

    • Glucagon is the main catabolic hormone of the body and raises the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream.

      Which pancreatic islet cells secretes glucagon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

      Glucagon, secreted from the pancreatic islet alpha cells, is considered to be the main catabolic hormone of the body. It raises the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream

      There are five different pancreatic islet cells:
      Alpha cells (20%) – produce glucagon
      Beta cells (70%) – produce insulin and amylin
      Delta cells (<10%) – produce somatostatin
      Gamma cells (<5%) – produce pancreatic polypeptide
      Epsilon cells (<1%) – produce ghrelin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
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  • Question 8 - Regarding autoregulation of local blood flow, which of the following statements is CORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding autoregulation of local blood flow, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An increase in blood flow dilutes locally produced vasodilating factors causing vasoconstriction.

      Explanation:

      Autoregulation is the ability to maintain a constant blood flow despite variations in blood pressure (between 50 – 170 mmHg). It is particularly important in the brain, kidney and heart. There are two main methods contributing to autoregulation:
      The myogenic mechanism involves arterial constriction in response to stretching of the vessel wall, probably due to activation of smooth muscle stretch-activated Ca2+channels and Ca2+entry. A reduction in pressure and stretch closes these channels, causing vasodilation.
      The second mechanism of autoregulation is due to locally produced vasodilating factors; an increase in blood flow dilutes these factors causing vasoconstriction, whereas decreased blood flow has the opposite effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman presents with persistent palpitations for the past two days. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with persistent palpitations for the past two days. She has a good haemodynamic balance. An ECG is performed, which reveals that she has atrial flutter. The patient is examined by a cardiology registrar, who recommends using a 'rate control' strategy while she waits for cardioversion.

      Which of the drugs listed below is the best fit for this strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      In atrial flutter, ventricular rate control is usually used as a stopgap measure until sinus rhythm can be restored. A beta-blocker (such as bisoprolol), diltiazem, or verapamil can be used to lower the heart rate.

      Electrical cardioversion, pharmacological cardioversion, or catheter ablation can all be used to restore sinus rhythm. Cardioversion should not be attempted until the patient has been fully anticoagulated for at least three weeks if the duration of atrial flutter is unknown or has lasted for more than 48 hours. Emergency electrical cardioversion is the treatment of choice when there is an acute presentation with haemodynamic compromise. For the treatment of recurrent atrial flutter, catheter ablation is preferred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A GP is considering prescribing a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID) for pain relief for...

    Incorrect

    • A GP is considering prescribing a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID) for pain relief for a patient with a knee injury

      Which of these statements about NSAIDs is NOT true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Side effects are less commonly seen with indomethacin than naproxen

      Explanation:

      Most NSAIDs act as non-selective inhibitors of the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase (COX). They inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2 isoenzymes.

      Only about 60% of patients will respond to any given NSAID.

      It can take 21 days of treatment for a clinically appreciable reduction in inflammation to be apparent. If no improvement is seen after 21 days, the NSAID should be changed.

      The use of NSAIDs in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy is associated with the following risks: delayed onset of labour, premature closure of ductus arteriosus and foetal kernicterus.

      Side effects are lowest in Ibuprofen and highest in indomethacin. so side effects are more commonly seen with indomethacin than naproxen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 11 - An increased anion gap metabolic acidosis is typically caused by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • An increased anion gap metabolic acidosis is typically caused by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propylene glycol overdose

      Explanation:

      Causes of a raised anion gap acidosis can be remember using the mnemonic MUDPILES:
      -Methanol
      -Uraemia (in renal failure)
      -Diabetic ketoacidosis
      -Propylene glycol overdose
      -Infection/Iron overdose/Isoniazid/Inborn errors of metabolism
      -Lactic acidosis
      -Ethylene glycol overdose
      -Salicylate overdose

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
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  • Question 12 - A 16-year old boy is brought to the emergency room after suffering a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year old boy is brought to the emergency room after suffering a traffic accident. Upon examination, there is noted ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration, ipsilateral motor loss, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. A spinal cord injury is given as a diagnosis.

      Which of the following is the most probable cause of this manifestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brown-Séquard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Brown-Sequard Hemicord Syndrome consists of ipsilateral weakness (corticospinal tract) and loss of joint position and vibratory sense (posterior column), with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense (spinothalamic tract) one or two levels below the lesion. Segmental signs, such as radicular pain, muscle atrophy, or loss of a deep tendon reflex, are unilateral. Partial forms are more common than the fully developed syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
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      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Among the following infectious diseases, which is typically considered to have an incubation...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following infectious diseases, which is typically considered to have an incubation period of 3 weeks and longer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Infectious mononucleosis is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The incubation period for EBV varies from 2 weeks to 2 months.

      The usual incubation period for rubella is 14 days; with a range of 12 to 23 days.

      Gonorrhoea has a short incubation period of approximately 2 to 7 days.

      The mumps virus can be isolated from infected saliva and swabs rubbed over the Stensen’s duct from 9 days before onset of symptoms until 8 days after parotitis appears.

      Scarlet fever, which appears within 1 to 2 days after bacterial infection, is characterized by a diffuse red rash that appears on the upper chest and spreads to the trunk and extremities. The rash disappears over the next 5 to
      7 days and is followed by desquamation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
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      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding potassium replacement? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding potassium replacement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral potassium supplements are often required for patients taking spironolactone.

      Explanation:

      It is very seldom that potassium supplements are required with the small doses of diuretics given to treat hypertension. Potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone (rather than potassium supplements), are recommended for hypokalaemia prevention when diuretics are given to eliminate oedema, such as furosemide or the thiazides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids And Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following best describes the order in which blood passes through...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the order in which blood passes through the nephron? 

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Afferent arteriole→Glomerular capillary→Efferent arteriole→Peritubular capillary→Vasa recta

      Explanation:

      The nephron’s blood flow is as follows:
      Afferent arteriole – Glomerular capillary – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillary – Vasa recta – Afferent arteriole – Glomerular capillary – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillary – Vasa recta

      The kidney is the only vascular network in the body with two capillary beds. With arterioles supplying and draining the glomerular capillaries, higher hydrostatic pressures at the glomerulus are maintained, allowing for better filtration. A second capillary network at the tubules enables for secretion and absorption in the tubules, as well as concentrating urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
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      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Which of the following is NOT a benefit of low molecular weight heparin...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a benefit of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) over unfractionated heparin therapy:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Its effects can be rapidly and completely reversed with protamine sulfate.

      Explanation:

      Advantages of LMWHGreater ability to inhibit factor Xa directly, interacting less with platelets and so may have a lesser tendency to cause bleedingGreater bioavailability and longer half-life in plasma making once daily subcutaneous administration possibleMore predictable dose response avoiding the need for routine anticoagulant monitoringLower associated risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia or of osteoporosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - A 78-year-old woman visits the emergency room with dizziness and nausea. She claims...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman visits the emergency room with dizziness and nausea. She claims that her doctor gave her cinnarizine two days prior, but that it didn't seem to help.

      Cinnarizine's mechanism of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antihistamine action

      Explanation:

      Cinnarizine is a piperazine derivative with an antihistamine effect that makes it anti-emetic. Motion sickness and vestibular disorders, such as Méniéres disease, are the most common conditions for which it is prescribed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 49-year-old woman has a history of hypertension and persistent hypokalaemia and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman has a history of hypertension and persistent hypokalaemia and is diagnosed with hyperaldosteronism.

      Which of these is the commonest cause of hyperaldosteronism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenal adenoma

      Explanation:

      When there are excessive circulating levels of aldosterone, hyperaldosteronism occurs. There are two main types of hyperaldosteronism:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism (,95% of cases)
      Secondary hyperaldosteronism (,5% of cases)

      Primary causes of hyperaldosteronism include:
      Adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome)
      Adrenal hyperplasia
      Adrenal cancer
      Familial aldosteronism
      Secondary causes of hyperaldosteronism include:
      Drugs
      Obstructive renal artery disease
      Renal vasoconstriction
      Oedematous disorders syndrome

      Adrenal adenoma is the commonest cause of hyperaldosteronism (seen in ,80% of all cases).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
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      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old guy who has had a knee-high plaster cast on his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old guy who has had a knee-high plaster cast on his left leg for the past 5 weeks arrives at the emergency department complaining of numbness on the dorsum of his left foot and an inability to dorsiflex or evert his foot. You know that his symptoms are due to fibular nerve compression. Where is the fibular nerve located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neck of fibula

      Explanation:

      Dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot are innervated by the deep fibular nerve and the superficial fibular nerve, respectively.

      The common fibular nerve runs obliquely downward along the lateral border of the popliteal fossa (medial to the biceps femoris) before branching at the neck of the fibula.

      Thus, it is prone to being affected during an impact injury or fracture to the bone or leg. Casts that are placed too high can also compress the fibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A 63-year-old man complains of chest pain and syncope on occasion. His heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man complains of chest pain and syncope on occasion. His heart rate is 37 beats per minute, and he has a second-degree heart block, according to his rhythm strip.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in his management, according to the ALS bradycardia algorithm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give atropine 500 mcg

      Explanation:

      Atropine is used to treat bradycardia (sinus, atrial, or nodal) or AV block when the patient’s haemodynamic condition is compromised by the bradycardia.

      If any of the following adverse features are present, the ALS bradycardia algorithm recommends a dose of atropine 500 mcg IV:
      Shock
      Syncope
      Myocardial ischemia
      Insufficiency of the heart

      If this does not work, give additional 500 mcg doses at 3-5 minute intervals until a maximum dose of 3 mg is reached. The heart rate can be slowed paradoxically if the dose is higher than 3 mg.

      The ALS bradycardia algorithm also suggests the following interim measures:
      Transcutaneous pacing
      Isoprenaline infusion 5 mcg/min
      Adrenaline infusion 2-10 mcg/minutes
      Alternative drugs (aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - The pelvic bone is formed by which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • The pelvic bone is formed by which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilium, ischium and pubis

      Explanation:

      Each pelvic bone is formed by three elements: the ilium (superiorly), the pubis (anteroinferiorly) and the ischium (posteroinferiorly).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 22 - Which of the following best describes the positive predictive value of a diagnostic test:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the positive predictive value of a diagnostic test:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The proportion of individuals with a positive test result who have the disease

      Explanation:

      Positive predictive value (PPV) is the proportion of individuals with a positive test result who actually have the disease.
      PPV = a/(a+b)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following describes the pulse pressure: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following describes the pulse pressure:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systolic - diastolic pressure

      Explanation:

      During systole, the pressure in the left ventricle increases and blood is ejected into the aorta. The rise in pressure stretches the elastic walls of the aorta and large arteries and drives blood flow. Systolic pressure is the maximum arterial pressure during systole. During diastole, arterial blood flow is partly maintained by elastic recoil of the walls of large arteries. The minimum pressure reached before the next systole is the diastolic pressure. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is the pulse pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
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      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Act as antigen receptors on T lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Antibodies:
      Neutralise toxins and prevent attachment of pathogens
      Target, opsonise or agglutinate (clump together) antigens for phagocytosis
      Activate the complement cascade (leading to lysis or opsonisation of the pathogen)
      Act as antigen receptors on B lymphocytes
      Activate antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity by natural killer (NK) cells or T cytotoxic cells
      Provide mucosal immunity (IgA-mediated)
      Stimulate degranulation of mast cells (IgE and IgG mediated)
      Provide passive immunity to the newborn (through transplacental passage of IgG and secretion of IgA in breast milk)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following muscles is NOT involved in depression of the mandible:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is NOT involved in depression of the mandible:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Masseter

      Explanation:

      Depression of the mandible is generated by the digastric, geniohyoid, mylohyoid and lateral pterygoid muscles on both side, assisted by gravity. The lateral pterygoid muscles are also involved as this movement also involves protraction of the mandible. The masseter muscle is a powerful elevator of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
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  • Question 26 - A patient presents with a gastrointestinal infection. Which of the following microbes attaches...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a gastrointestinal infection. Which of the following microbes attaches to gut mucosa via a specialised sucking disc:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      Giardia lambliainfection occurs through the ingestion of dormant microbial cysts in contaminated water, food or via faceo-oral transmission via poor hygiene.
      Following ingestion of the cysts, the trophozoite emerges to an active state of feeding and motility. After the feeding stage they undergo asexual replication through longitudinal binary fission.
      They attach to the intestinal wall via a specialised sucking disc. The mechanism for diarrhoea in giardiasis remains unknown but could possibly be due to direct cytotoxicity.
      Giardial trophozoites and cysts pass through the digestive system in the faeces and are excreted. While the trophozoites may be found in the faeces, only the cysts are adapted for long-term survival outside the host.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
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  • Question 27 - Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels are found to be increased in a young lady with...

    Incorrect

    • Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels are found to be increased in a young lady with unexplained hyponatraemia.

      Which of the following is a result of the release of ADH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small volumes of concentrated urine

      Explanation:

      ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, is a hormone that regulates water and electrolyte balance. It is released in response to a variety of events, the most important of which are higher plasma osmolality or lower blood pressure. ADH increases plasma volume and blood pressure via acting on the kidneys and peripheral vasculature.
      ADH causes extensive vasoconstriction by acting on peripheral V1 Receptors.

      ADH binds to B2 Receptors in the terminal distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct of the kidney, increasing transcription and aquaporin insertion in the cells that line the lumen. Aquaporins are water channels that allow water to pass through the tubule and into the interstitial fluid via osmosis, lowering urine losses.
      The permeability of the distal collecting duct (the section within the inner medulla) to urea is likewise increased by ADH. More urea travels out of the tubule and into the peritubular fluid, contributing to the counter current multiplier, which improves the Loop of Henle’s concentrating power.

      Overall, there is enhanced urea and water reabsorption in the presence of ADH, resulting in modest amounts of concentrated urine. There is minimal urea and water reabsorption in the absence of ADH, resulting in huge amounts of dilute urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A 22-year-old presents with acute severe asthma. He takes a drug prescribed by...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old presents with acute severe asthma. He takes a drug prescribed by her GP but cannot recall the name and is receiving regular salbutamol nebulisers. His current potassium level is 2.8 mmol/l.

      Which drug is least likely to have caused his hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Serious hypokalaemia can occur in severe asthma and the effect can be potentiated by concomitant treatment with theophyllines like aminophylline, corticosteroids, thiazide and loop diuretics, and hypoxia. Plasma-potassium concentration should be monitored in severe asthma.

      Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is not likely to have contributed to patients hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following vitamins is not paired correctly with its deficiency syndrome:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vitamins is not paired correctly with its deficiency syndrome:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 - Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

      Explanation:

      Clinical Effects of vitamin deficiency include:
      Vitamin C – Scurvy
      Thiamine (Vitamin B1) – Beriberi/Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
      Vitamin B12 – Megaloblastic anaemia/Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord
      Folate – Megaloblastic anaemia
      Vitamin D – Osteomalacia/Rickets
      Vitamin K – Defective clotting
      Vitamin A – Blindness

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
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  • Question 30 - Gastric emptying is inhibited by all of the following EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Gastric emptying is inhibited by all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parasympathetic stimulation

      Explanation:

      Gastric emptying is decreased by:
      Enterogastric inhibitory reflexes stimulated by – Distension of the duodenum, The presence of fats in the duodenum (by stimulating release of cholecystokinin), A fall in the pH of chyme in the duodenum, An increase in the osmolality of chyme in the duodenum, Irritation of the mucosal lining of the duodenum, Hormones: Cholecystokinin, Secretin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

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