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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old smoker with testicular cancer presents with exertional dyspnoea, wheezing, and persistent non-productive cough. He completed a course of chemotherapy comprising of cisplatin, bleomycin, and etoposide three months ago. On examination, there are fine bilateral basal crackles.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Bleomycin toxicity
Explanation:The cytotoxic drug bleomycin can cause bleomycin-induced pneumonitis (BIP). It usually occurs during chemotherapy but can also occur up to six months post-therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack
Explanation:Initiation of allopurinol treatment during an attack can exacerbate and prolong the episode. Thus treatment should be delayed until the attack resolves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old woman has been diagnosed with human papillomavirus infection. What is the most significant long-term risk following this infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervical cancer
Explanation:Human-papilloma virus (HPV) can lead to cervical cancer. There are many different types, but the types associated with cervical cancer most commonly are 16, 18, 31, 33, and 35. The vaccination against HPV protects against the most common types of HPV that are seen in cervical cancer and is recommended for children/young teens. Cervical cancer has a clear association with HPV, making this the best answer over all of the other answer choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old man with previous history of myocardial infarction and hypertension presented with severe retrosternal chest pain for the past 2 hours. During initial management he collapsed and pulseless ventricular tachycardia was detected. The external defibrillator arrived in 3 minutes. From the following answers, what is the most appropriate immediate management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should be given a precordial thump
Explanation:A precordial thumb is not routinely recommended because of its very low success rate for cardioversion of a shockable rhythm. It’s only recommended when there is a delay in getting the defibrillator.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following nail changes are present in ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Clubbing of the fingers can be present in many clinical conditions like CLD, bronchiectasis, lung abscess, Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s Disease. Koilonychia or spoon shaped nails are a typical finding in iron deficiency anaemia. Splinter haemorrhages are pin point haemorrhages found in infective endocarditis and secondary to trauma. Yellow nails are present in pulmonary and renal diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Choose the most important stimulator of the central chemoreceptors:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease in pH
Explanation:Central chemoreception refers to the detection of changes in CO2/H+ within the brain and the associated effects on breathing. In the conscious animal the response of ventilation to changes in the brain’s interstitial fluid (ISF) pH is very sensitive. Note that a small change in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pH from 7.30 to 7.25 is associated with a doubling of alveolar ventilation; it is a very sensitive reflex response. Note also that the relationship of alveolar ventilation to ISF pH is essentially the same for both types of stimulation, metabolic acid-base disorders and primary CO2 stimulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old retired firefighter with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents due to the sensation of light flashes in his right eye. These symptoms have been present for the past 2 days and seem to occur more at the peripheral part of vision.
There is no redness or pain in the affected eye. Corrected visual acuity is measured as 6/9 in both eyes.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitreous detachment
Explanation:Flashes and floaters are symptoms of vitreous detachment. The patient is at risk of retinal detachment and should be referred urgently to an ophthalmologist.
The most common causes of a sudden painless loss of vision are as follows:
– Ischaemic optic neuropathy (e.g. temporal arteritis or atherosclerosis)
– Occlusion of central retinal vein
– Occlusion of central retinal artery
– Vitreous haemorrhage
– Retinal detachment -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old man presented with difficulty in breathing. On examination he was severely dyspnoeic and tachycardic. What is the clinical sign that would favour the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade over constrictive pericarditis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus
Explanation:Pulsus paradoxus is defined as the exaggerated fall in systolic blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mmHg. Cardiac tamponade is the classic cause of pulsus paradoxus. Kussmaul’s sign (a rise in the jugular venous pressure on inspiration) is mostly seen in constrictive pericarditis. Hypotension, muffled heart sounds and raised JVP can be seen in both conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which one of the following paraneoplastic features is less likely to be seen in patients with squamous cell lung cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lambert-Eaton syndrome
Explanation:Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is a rare presynaptic disorder of neuromuscular transmission in which release of acetylcholine (ACh) is impaired, causing a unique set of clinical characteristics, which include proximal muscle weakness, depressed tendon reflexes, post-tetanic potentiation, and autonomic changes.
In 40% of patients with LEMS, cancer is present when the weakness begins or is found later. This is usually a small cell lung cancer (SCLC). However, LEMS has also been associated with non-SCLC, lymphosarcoma, malignant thymoma, or carcinoma of the breast, stomach, colon, prostate, bladder, kidney, or gallbladder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 26 year old woman visits the clinic with an acute asthma attack. Which lung function abnormality is she most likely to have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased residual volume
Explanation:Asthma is a condition characterized by airway hyperresponsiveness, which results in reversible increases in bronchial smooth muscle tone, and variable amounts of inflammation of the bronchial mucosa.
During an acute asthma attack, the already inflamed airways narrow further due to bronchospasm, which leads to increased airway resistance. Because of the increased smooth muscle tone during an asthma attack, the airways also tend to close at abnormally high lung volumes, trapping air behind occluded or narrowed small airways. Thus the acute asthmatic will breathe at high lung volumes, his functional residual capacity will be elevated, and he will inspire close to total lung capacity. The accessory muscles of respiration are often used to maintain the lungs in a hyperinflated state.During episodes of acute asthma, pulmonary function tests reveal an obstructive pattern. This includes a decrease in the rate of maximal expiratory air flow (a decrease in FEV1 and the FEV1/FVC ratio) due to the increased resistance, and a reduction in forced vital capacity (FVC) correlating with the level of hyperinflation of the lungs. Because these patients breathe at such high lung volumes (near the top of the pressure-volume curve, where lung compliance greatly decreases), they must exert significant effort to create an extremely negative pleural pressure, and consequently fatigue easily. Overinflation also reduces the curvature of the diaphragm, making it less efficient in generating further negative pleural pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male patient presents with central chest pain and associated flushing. He claims the pain is crushing in character. ECG reveals T wave inversion in II, III and AVF. Blood exams are as follows: Troponin T = 0.9 ng/ml. Which substance does troponin bind to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tropomyosin
Explanation:Troponin T is a 37 ku protein that binds to tropomyosin, thereby attaching the troponin complex to the thin filament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman presents with anxiety and weight loss with increased appetite.
Thyrotoxicosis is suspected and various investigations are performed.
Which of the following findings is most consistent with Graves’ disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High titre of thyroid peroxidase autoantibodies
Explanation:Free T4 levels or the free T4 index is usually elevated, as is the free T3 level or free T3 index
– Assays for thyrotropin-receptor antibodies (particularly TSIs) almost always are positive.
– Detection of TSIs is diagnostic for Graves disease.
– Other markers of thyroid autoimmunity, such as antithyroglobulin antibodies or antithyroid peroxidase antibodies, are usually present.
– Other autoantibodies that may be present include thyrotropin receptor-blocking antibodies and anti–sodium-iodide symporter antibody.
The presence of these antibodies supports the diagnosis of autoimmune thyroid disease.
– The radioactive iodine uptake is increased and the uptake is diffusely distributed over the entire gland. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina, hypertension and type 2 diabetes.
Which one of the following drugs that he takes is a contraindication to him being able to receive sildenafil?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Sildenafil administration to patients who are using organic nitrates, either regularly and/or intermittently, in any form is contraindicated.
Organic nitrates and nitric oxide (NO) donors exert their therapeutic effects on blood pressure and vascular smooth muscle by the same mechanism as endogenous NO via increasing cGMP concentrations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows:
Temp: 38.5
BP: 125/75mmHg
Pulse: 100/min
On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dL,
White cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/L,
Platelets 380 × 109/L,
Sodium 145 mmol/L,
Potassium 4.8 mmol/L,
Creatinine 89 μmol/L,
Rheumatoid factor: Negative,
Antinuclear antibody: Negative,
Anti-dsDNA: Negative,
ASO titre: Not detected.
Electrocardiogram (ECG): Sinus rhythm.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic Still’s disease
Explanation:People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.
In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following is caused by vitamin D?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased plasma phosphate
Explanation:Intestinal phosphate absorption is mediated by both transcellular and paracellular routes. The 1,25(OH)2D increases intestinal transcellular phosphate absorption at least in part by enhancing expression of type 2b sodium–phosphate cotransporter, thus increasing plasma phosphate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 42 yr. old man presented with palpitations and shortness of breath on exertion. On examination his lungs were clear and heart sounds were normal. There was a left sided parasternal heave. His electrocardiogram (ECG) revealed atrial fibrillation with right axis deviation. Echocardiography showed dilated right heart chambers. Left and right heart catheterisation study revealed the following:
Inferior vena cava Oxygen saturations 63 %,
Superior vena cava Oxygen saturations 59 %,
Right atrium Oxygen saturations 77 %,
Right ventricle Oxygen saturations 78 %,
Pulmonary artery Oxygen saturations 82 %,
Arterial saturation Oxygen saturations 98 %.
What is the most likely diagnosis from the following answers?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Right ventricular volume overload is indicated by a parasternal heave and right axis deviation. Oxygen saturation in right atrium is higher than oxygen saturation of the inferior and superior vena cavae. So the most probable diagnosis is atrial septal defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The average weight of 64 patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus was 81 kg, with a standard deviation of 12 kg. What is the standard error of the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.5
Explanation:The SEM is dependent on the variation in the population and the number of the extracted samples. A large variation in the population causes a large difference in the sample means, ultimately resulting in a larger SEM. However, as more samples are extracted from the population, the sample means move closer to the population mean, which results in a smaller SEM. In short, the SEM is an indicator of how close the sample mean is to the population mean. Standard error of the mean = standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
The standard error of the mean is calculated by the standard deviation / square root (number of patients)= 12 / square root (64) = 12 / 8 = 1.5
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being reviewed six months after she had a mastectomy following the diagnosis.
Which of the following tumour markers is the most useful in monitoring her disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CA 15-3
Explanation:Tumour marker CA 15-3 is mostly associated with breast cancer.
Tumour markers can be divided into:
1. Monoclonal antibodies
CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3: Breast cancer2. Tumour specific antigens
Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer3. Enzymes
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Neuron specific enolase (NSE)4. Hormones
Calcitonin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Sensorineural deafness is strongly associated with which one of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:Primary rubella infection during pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester, can affect several organs and cause birth defects that are responsible for congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). The most common defects of CRS are hearing impairment (unilateral or bilateral sensorineural), eye defects (e.g., cataracts, congenital glaucoma, or pigmentary retinopathy), and cardiac defects (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus or peripheral pulmonic stenosis). Congenital hearing loss is the most common sequela, occurring in approximately 60% of cases, especially when infection occurs in the 4th month of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B2-microglobulin
Explanation:B2-microglobulin is a useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma (MM). Raised levels imply a poorer prognosis. Low levels of albumin are also associated with a poor prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed puberty.
While examining the patient which of the following features is most likely to indicate that pubertal change may have commenced?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase in testicular volume
Explanation:In boys, the first manifestation of puberty is testicular enlargement; the normal age for initial signs of puberty is 9 to 14 years in males. Pubic hair in boys generally appears 18 to 24 months after the onset of testicular growth and is often conceived as the initial marker of sexual maturation by male adolescents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female has a strong family history of cancer. Out of the following, which cancer is least likely to be inherited?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric cancer
Explanation:Of all the listed options, gastric cancer is least likely to be inherited.
The above mentioned tumours are ruled out as explained below:
1. Breast and Ovarian cancers: Between 5%–10% of all breast cancers are thought to be hereditary. Mutation in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes also increase the risk of ovarian cancer.2. Colorectal and Endometrial cancers: About 5% of cases of colorectal cancer are caused by hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC) and 1% are due to familial adenomatous polyposis. Women who have HNPCC also have a markedly increased risk of developing endometrial cancer—around 5% of endometrial cancers occur in women with this risk factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old talented violinist is brought by her parents as they are concerned that she had a stroke as she is reporting weakness on her right side. Neurological examination is inconsistent with the provided history, suspecting a non-organic cause for her symptoms her GP provides reassurance. Despite it, the girl remains unable to move her right arm. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conversion disorder
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is conversion disorder.
There may be underlying tension regarding her musical career which could be manifesting as apparent limb weakness.
Conversion disorder typically involves loss of motor or sensory function. The patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms (factitious disorder) or seek material gain (malingering). Patients may be indifferent to their apparent disorder – la belle indifference – although this has not been backed up by studies.
Other options:
Unexplained symptoms
There are a wide variety of psychiatric terms for patients who have symptoms for which no organic cause can be found:Somatization disorder
Multiple physical symptoms present for at least 2 years
the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test resultsHypochondriacal disorder
The persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, e.g. cancer.
The patient again refuses to accept reassurance or negative test resultsDissociative disorder
Dissociation is a process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness
Unlike conversion disorder, it involves psychiatric symptoms e.g. amnesia, fugue, stupor
Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the new term for multiple personality disorder as is the most severe form of dissociative disorderMunchausen’s syndrome
Also known as factitious disorder
The intentional production of physical or psychological symptomsMalingering
Fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or another gain. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased levels are seen in type 2 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Choose the part of the antibody to which immune cells bind:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fc region
Explanation:Fc Receptors include the IgG receptors (FcγR), high-affinity IgE receptor (FcεRI), IgA and IgA/IgM receptors, and neonatal Fc receptor for IgG (FcRn). In particular, the FcγRs have been well known to play an important role in many biologic processes including those associated with the response to infection and cancer as well as in the pathogenesis of immune-mediated diseases. Fc receptors, the receptors for the Fc region of immunoglobulins, play an essential role in antibody-dependent immune responses. Fc receptors are detected on many types of hematopoietic cells including macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, and NK cells. Plasma cells produce five classes of antibodies, IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG and IgM. Fc receptors with an Ig superfamily related structure exist that correspond to each of these classes of immunoglobulins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman has missed her last two periods and has been lactating. Upon anamnesis, she claims she's lost weight and she's been suffering from vaginal dryness. The endocrinologist suggests that she checks her prolactin levels. Which of the following inhibits prolactin release from the hypophysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) holds a predominant role in the regulation of prolactin (PRL) secretion. Through a direct effect on anterior pituitary lactotrophs, DA inhibits the basally high-secretory tone of the cell. It accomplishes this by binding to D2 receptors expressed on the cell membrane of the lactotroph, activation of which results in a reduction of PRL exocytosis and gene expression by a variety of intracellular signalling mechanisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment of DNA. Which molecular technique is he using?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
Explanation:PCR is a simple, yet elegant, enzymatic assay, which allows for the amplification of a specific DNA fragment from a complex pool of DNA. PCR can be performed using source DNA from a variety of tissues and organisms, including peripheral blood, skin, hair, saliva, and microbes. Only trace amounts of DNA are needed for PCR to generate enough copies to be analysed using conventional laboratory methods. For this reason, PCR is a sensitive assay. Each PCR assay requires the presence of template DNA, primers, nucleotides, and DNA polymerase. The DNA polymerase is the key enzyme that links individual nucleotides together to form the PCR product. The above mentioned components are mixed in a test tube or 96-well plate and then placed in a machine that allows repeated cycles of DNA amplification to occur in three basic steps. The machine is essentially a thermal cycler. It has a thermal block with holes, into which the test tubes or plates holding the PCR reaction mixture are inserted. The machine raises and lowers the temperature of the block in discrete, precise and pre-programmed steps. The reaction solution is first heated above the melting point of the two complementary DNA strands of the target DNA, which allows the strands to separate, a process called denaturation. The temperature is then lowered to allow the specific primers to bind to the target DNA segments, a process known as hybridization or annealing. Annealing between primers and the target DNA occurs only if they are complementary in sequence (e.g. A binding to G). The temperature is raised again, at which time the DNA polymerase is able to extend the primers by adding nucleotides to the developing DNA strand. With each repetition of these three steps, the number of copied DNA molecules doubles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Café-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia
Explanation:Café-au-lait spots is hyperpigmented lesions that vary in colour from light brown to dark brown, with borders that may be smooth or irregular. Causes include:
Neurofibromatosis type I
McCune–Albright syndrome
Legius syndrome
Tuberous sclerosis
Fanconi anaemia
Idiopathic
Ataxia-telangiectasia
Basal cell nevus syndrome
Benign congenital skin lesion
Bloom syndrome
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
Congenital nevus
Gaucher disease
Hunter syndrome
Maffucci syndrome
Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome
Noonan syndrome
Pulmonary Stenosis
Silver–Russell syndrome
Watson syndrome
Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman who presented with headache and neck stiffness was started on IV ceftriaxone after undergoing a lumber puncture. The CSF culture shows listeria monocytogenes. What is the treatment of choice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Change to IV amoxicillin + gentamicin
Explanation:The best option would be the combination of ampicillin and gentamycin. Changing to IV amoxicillin+gentamycin is however the best among the given choices here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman attends for review. She has a past history of a perianal abscess but nothing else of note. During the past few months she has twice presented to A&E complaining of grumbling abdominal pain. In addition, she has suffered intermittent episodes of bloody diarrhoea.
Microcytic anaemia is found on blood testing and she has mild hypokalaemia. Albumin is reduced but other liver function tests are unremarkable. Barium imaging reveals a small bowel stricture with evidence of mucosal ulceration extending into the colon, interspersed with normal looking mucosa ‘skipping’.
Given this clinical picture, which is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:The correct answer based on the clinical scenario is Crohn’s disease. Associated with this disease are abscesses and fistulas in the anorectal region, skip lesions, cobble stoning, stricturing, granulomas, and crypt distortion. The other answer choices are not correct. How to rule out ulcerative colitis: it only involves ileocolorectal regions, and this is above that level. You will not see crypt distortion and cobble stoning; it is a more superficial process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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