Extravasation is the process by which any liquid (fluid or drug) accidentally leaks into the surrounding tissue. In terms of cancer therapy, extravasation refers to the inadvertent infiltration of chemotherapy into the subcutaneous or subdermal tissues surrounding the intravenous or intra-arterial administration site.
Extravasated drugs are classified according to their potential for causing damage as ‘vesicant’, ‘irritant’ and ‘non-vesicant’.
Doxorubicin is one of the vesicant drugs.
Regardless of the chemotherapy drug, early initiation of treatment is considered mandatory. In this context, patient education is crucial for prompt identification of the extravasation.
Step 1: Stop the infusion and leave the needle in place
Step 2: Identify the extravasated agent
Step 3: Leave the cannula in place, gently aspirate the agent and avoid manual compression, then remove the cannula
Step 4: Use a pen to outline the extravasated area
Step 5: Start Specific measures
Step 5A: For Anthracyclines (Doxorubicin), Apply cold compressions for 20 minutes, 4 times daily for 1-2 days.
Step 5B: Using Specific Antidotes as Topical Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) or Dexrazoxane

Active, serious haemorrhage due to Warfarin should be treated with four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC), if available.
While costly, an essential advantage FFP confers to emergency care is that, in contrast to FFP, it results in a more rapid reversal of coagulopathy and does not require thawing or blood group typing. Additionally, it has a reduced risk of volume overload, transfusion-related acute lung injury, transfusion reactions, and infectious disease transmission. Despite these advantages, no mortality benefit has been proven for PCC compared with FFP.
Alternatively, recombinant factor VIIa (rFVIIa) has been reported to be effective in rapidly lowering INR due to warfarin toxicity and may be considered if PCC is not available. FFP is effective at lowering the INR and was historically first-line therapy for warfarin toxicity with serious or life-threatening bleeding, although it has now been superseded by PCC, which lowers the INR more rapidly. If PCC or rFVIIa is not available, 4 units of FFP may be administered instead.
Administer vitamin K1, 10 mg, by slow IV infusion,

Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assay

Beta-2-transferrin is a protein found only in CSF and perilymph. Since 1979, beta-2-transferrin has been used extensively by otolaryngologists in the diagnosis of CSF rhinorrhoea and skull-base cerebrospinal fluid fistulas. With sensitivity of 94% – 100%, and specificity of 98% – 100%, this assay has become the gold standard in detection of CSF leakage. CSF rhinorrhoea is characterized by clear or xanthochromic watery rhinorrhoea that may not become apparent until nasal packing is removed.

Answer: Curling’s ulcers

Curling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The most common mode of presentation of stress ulcer is the onset of acute upper GI bleed like hematemesis or melena in a patient with the acute critical illness.

A similar condition involving elevated intracranial pressure is known as Cushing’s ulcer. Cushing’s ulcer is a gastro-duodenal ulcer produced by elevated intracranial pressure caused by an intracranial tumour, head injury or other space-occupying lesions. The ulcer, usually single and deep, may involve the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Increased intracranial pressure may affect different areas of the hypothalamic nuclei or brainstem leading to overstimulation of the vagus nerve or paralysis of the sympathetic system. Both of these circumstances increase secretion of gastric acid and the likelihood of ulceration of gastro-duodenal mucosa.

Mallory-Weiss syndrome is characterized by upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to longitudinal mucosal lacerations (known as Mallory-Weiss tears) at the gastroesophageal junction or gastric cardia. However, Mallory-Weiss syndrome may occur after any event that provokes a sudden rise in the intragastric pressure or gastric prolapse into the oesophagus, including antecedent transoesophageal echocardiography. Precipitating factors include retching, vomiting, straining, hiccupping, coughing, primal scream therapy, blunt abdominal trauma, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In a few cases, no apparent precipitating factor can be identified. One study reported that 25% of patients had no identifiable risk factors.

Patients with a Quinsy or peritonsillar abscess (PTA) typically present with a history of acute pharyngitis accompanied by tonsillitis and worsening unilateral pharyngeal discomfort. Patients also may experience malaise, fatigue, and headaches. They often present with a fever and asymmetric throat fullness. Associated halitosis, odynophagia, dysphagia, and a hot potato–sounding voice occurs.
The presentation may range from acute tonsillitis with unilateral pharyngeal asymmetry to dehydration and sepsis. Most patients have severe pain. Examination of the oral cavity reveals marked erythema, asymmetry of the soft palate, tonsillar exudation, and contralateral displacement of the uvula.
Indications for considering the diagnosis of a PTA include the following:
Unilateral swelling of the peritonsillar area
Unilateral swelling of the soft palate, with anterior displacement of the ipsilateral tonsil
Nonresolution of acute tonsillitis, with persistent unilateral tonsillar enlargement
A PTA ordinarily is unilateral and located at the superior pole of the affected tonsil, in the supratonsillar fossa. At the level of the supratonsillar fold, the mucosa may appear pale and even show a small pimple. Palpation of the soft palate often reveals an area of fluctuance. Flexible nasopharyngoscopy and laryngoscopy are recommended in patients experiencing airway distress. The laryngoscopy is key to ruling out epiglottitis and supraglottitis, as well as vocal cord pathology.

A midline incision is the most commonly used route of access to the abdominal cavity.
Peritoneal closure
A number of randomized, controlled trials have shown no benefit to peritoneal closure; thus, refraining from closing the peritoneum is a commonly accepted practice. Some surgeons believe that closure of the peritoneum reduces adhesions between the abdominal contents and the suture line; however, at this time, there is only limited scientific evidence for this belief.
Fascial closure
The technique of fascial closure is highly variable among surgeons; however, the various approaches may be grouped into two primary methods as follows:
Layered closure
Mass closure
Layered closure is the sequential closure of each fascial layer individually. The primary advantage of this method is that multiple suture strands exist so that if a suture breaks, the incision is held intact by the remaining sutures.
Mass closure is continuous fascial closure with a single suture. This method allows even distribution of tension across the entire length of the suture, resulting in minimization of tissue strangulation. The goal is an approximation of tissue edges to allow scar formation. Excessive tension leads to tissue necrosis and eventual failure of the closure.
The theoretical disadvantage of mass closure is that a single suture is responsible for maintaining the integrity of the closure. The benefits of mass closure include decreased cost and decreased operating time. There is no evidence that mass closure is associated with an increased incidence of hernia formation or wound dehiscence.
When rectus muscle is incorporated, using absorbable suture and a loose closure in order to decrease postoperative pain and tissue necrosis is important. The assistant following the continuous closure should apply sufficient tension to approximate the tissue without strangulating it. The suture is run in 1-cm intervals (maximally), with at least a 1-cm bite of fascia in each throw.
The two primary methods of skin closure are with suture or staples. Suture closure is generally performed with 3-0 or 4-0 absorbable suture in a running subcuticular fashion or with nylon running or interrupted transdermal suture. Staple closure is a viable alternative to suturing the skin. In a study comparing scar cosmesis at 6 months, no difference in appearance existed in patients with suture versus staple skin closure
What is Jenkins Rule?
It is a rule for closure of the abdominal wound. It states that for a continuous suture, the length of suture used should be at least four times the length of the wound with sutures 1cm apart and with 1cm bites of the wound edge

The wound of this patient should be packed with alginate dressing. Abscess wounds should not undergo primary closure. Moreover, use of gauze is inappropriate and would be difficult to redress.

Alginate dressings are absorbent wound care products that contain sodium and calcium fibres derived from seaweed. An individual dressing is able to absorb up to 20 times its own weight. These dressings, which are easy to use, mold themselves to the shape of the wound, which helps ensure that they absorb wound drainage properly. In abscesses requiring incision and drainage, alginate dressings are well-tolerated and their removal causes minimal pain.

In adults 50% of the cases of brain death follow severe head injury, 30% are due to subarachnoid haemorrhage and 20% are due to a severe hypoxic-ischaemic event. Thus supra-tentorial catastrophes lead to pressure effect which cause the irretrievable death of the brain-stem.

The Criteria for Diagnosis of Brain-Stem Death

All the pre-conditions must be satisfied and
there should be demonstrably no pharmacological or
metabolic reason for the coma before formally testing the
integrity of the brain-stem reflexes.

Pre Conditions
1. The patient is comatose and mechanically ventilated
for apnoea.
2. The diagnosis of structural brain damage has been
established or the immediate cause of coma is known.
3. A period of observation is essential.

Exclusions
1. Drugs are not the cause of coma e.g. barbiturates.
Neuromuscular blockade has been demonstrably reversed.
2. Hypothermia does not exist.
3. There is no endocrine or metabolic disturbance.

Testing for Brain-Stem Death
Reflexes involving brain-stem function.
1. No pupillary response to light.
2. No corneal reflex.
3. No vestibulo ocular reflex (Caloric test).
4. Doll’s eye reflex
5. No motor response to pain – in the Vth nerve distribution.
6. No gag reflex in response to suction through endotracheal tube or tracheostomy.
7. Apnoea persists despite a rise in PaCO2 to greater than 50 mmHg (6.6kPa) against a background of a normal PaO2.

Diagnosis is to be made by two doctors who have been registered for more than five years and are competent in the procedure. At least one should be a consultant. Testing should be undertaken by the doctors together and must always be performed completely and successfully on two occasions in total.

An acute dystonic reaction is characterized by involuntary contractions of muscles of the extremities, face, neck, abdomen, pelvis, or larynx in either sustained or intermittent patterns that lead to abnormal movements or postures. The symptoms may be reversible or irreversible and can occur after taking any dopamine receptor-blocking agents.
The aetiology of acute dystonic reaction is thought to be due to a dopaminergic-cholinergic imbalance in the basal ganglia. Reactions usually occur shortly after initiation of an offending agent or an increased dose of a possible offending agent.
Anticholinergic agents and benzodiazepines, procyclidine are the most commonly used agents to reverse or reduce symptoms in acute dystonic reaction. Acute dystonic reactions are often transient but can cause significant distress to the patient. Although rare, laryngeal dystonia can cause life-threatening airway obstruction.

Complications related to stapled anastomoses include bleeding, device failure, and anastomotic failure, which include stricture or leak.
Stricture: Patient discomfort, need for additional procedures
Bleeding: Hemodynamic implications, difficult intraoperative visualization
Anastomotic leak: Increase in local recurrence, decreased overall survival, sepsis, need for diverting ostomy, increased hospital cost, increased use of hospital resources, decreased quality of life.
Anastomotic bleeding is a common complication of stapled anastomoses, and it can lead to hemodynamic instability and anaemia, sometimes requiring transfusion or additional procedures. To this end, there are efforts aimed at reducing staple line haemorrhage by using buttressing techniques.

Answer: They should be placed first on the operating list whenever possible

Patients with diet controlled diabetes are all
suitable for day case surgery if the procedure itself
is suitable for day surgery and all other criteria are
fulfilled.
People with diabetes controlled by oral or injected
medication are suitable for day case surgery if:
• They fulfil all day case criteria
• They can be first / early on a morning or afternoon
list.
Prioritise patients with diabetes on the list. This reduces the starvation time and hence the likelihood of the patient requiring a VRIII.

Insulin should never be stopped in people with Type 1 diabetes because this will lead to ketoacidosis. If the starvation period is expected to require omission of more than one meal, a variable rate intravenous insulin infusion (VRIII) with concomitant glucose and electrolyte infusion will be required. Insulin requirements are increased by:
• Obesity
• Prolonged or major surgery
• Infection
• Glucocorticoid treatment.
When a VRIII is used, insulin and substrate should be infused continuously. If the infusion is stopped, there will be no insulin present in the circulation after 3-5 minutes leading to immediate catabolism.

Extradural haematoma (EDH) is defined as an acute bleed between the dura mater and the inner surface of the skull. This then causes increased intracranial pressure, which puts vital brain structures at risk. The question asks for the least likely cause, and extradural hematoma would be acute in onset.

The clinical symptoms of Superior Orbital Fissure Syndrome can be explained by the nerve involvement on an anatomic basis.
External ophthalmoplegia is secondary to impairment of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves.
Ptosis develops because of lost tension and function of the levator palpebrae superior muscle involving the superior branch of the oculomotor nerve, and loss of tone in Muller’s muscle involving the sympathetic fibre arising from the cavernous sinus.
Proptosis is caused by a decreased tension of the extraocular muscles, which normally are globe retractors, thereby allowing forward movement of the globe.
The fixed dilated pupil with loss of accommodation arises from disruption of the parasympathetic fibres coursing with the oculomotor nerve.
Compromise of the lacrimal and frontal nerves of the ophthalmic branches of the trigeminal nerve results in anaesthesia of the forehead and upper eyelid, lacrimal hyposecretion, and possibly in retro-orbital pain and neuralgia along the path of the nerve.
Because of the disruption of the sensory nasociliary nerve, there may be anaesthesia of the cornea and the bridge of the nose with loss of the corneal reflex. When the disruption is partial, the corneal reflex remains intact.
If the optic nerve is also involved including the above-mentioned symptoms, it is known as the orbital apex syndrome.

Airway obstruction: In the first 24 hours it is most likely from a compressive hematoma. After 24 hours consider laryngeal dysfunction secondary to hypocalcaemia.
In this patient, the most likely cause is a haematoma.
Definitive therapy is opening the surgical incision to evacuate the hematoma. Re-intubation may be lifesaving for persistent airway obstruction. Consider awake fibreoptic intubation.

Reversal of the central effects of midazolam by intravenous flumazenil after general anaesthesia. Since many benzodiazepines have longer half lives than flumazenil patients still require close monitoring after receiving the drug. Other drugs provided in the options would not characteristically be used for the reversal of midazolam.

The role of surgery for bone metastasis can be divided into (i) prophylactic fixation to prevent impending pathological fractures, (ii) stabilization of a pathological fractures, (iii) segmental resection of tumours, and (iv) arthroplasty for replacing joints that have been destroyed by a tumour. To this end, orthopaedic surgeons have a vast array of surgical devices and implants in their surgical armamentarium at their disposal. These include plates and screws, intramedullary fixation devices, and tumour endoprostheses.
Even with surgical fixation only 30% of pathological fractures unite.

This patient has presented with a classical picture of cardiac tamponade, suggested by Beck’s triad: hypotension, raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), and muffled heart sounds.

Cardiac tamponade is a clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space, resulting in reduced ventricular filling and subsequent haemodynamic compromise. This condition is a medical emergency, the complications of which include pulmonary oedema, shock, and death.

Patients with cardiac tamponade have a collection of three medical signs known as Beck’s triad. These are low arterial blood pressure, distended neck veins, and distant, muffled heart sounds. The diagnosis may be further supported by specific ECG changes, chest X-ray, or an ultrasound of the heart. If fluid increases slowly, the pericardial sac can expand to contain more than 2 L; however, if the increase is rapid, as little as 200 mL can result in tamponade.

Management options may include pericardiocentesis, surgery to create a pericardial window, or a pericardiectomy.

Absence of comorbidities and a small procedure with no likelihood of systemic compromise will equate to an ASA score of 1.

The ASA physical status classification system is a system for assessing the fitness of patients before surgery. It has six grades, as described below:

ASA 1: No physiological, biochemical, or psychiatric disturbance. The surgical pathology is localised and has not invoked systemic disturbance.

ASA 2: Mild or moderate systemic disruption caused either by the surgical disease process or through an underlying pre-existing disease.

ASA 3: Severe systemic disruption, not life-threatening, caused either by the surgical pathology or a pre-existing disease.

ASA 4: Patient has severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.

ASA 5: Patient is moribund and will not survive without surgery.

ASA 6: A brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed with the intention of transplanting them into another patient.

The goal of fluid management in major burn injuries is to maintain the tissue perfusion in the early phase of burn shock, in which hypovolemia finally occurs due to steady fluid extravasation from the intravascular compartment.

Burn injuries of less than 20% are associated with minimal fluid shifts and can generally be resuscitated with oral hydration, except in cases of facial, hand and genital burns, as well as burns in children and the elderly. As the total body surface area (TBSA) involved in the burn approaches 15–20%, the systemic inflammatory response syndrome is initiated and massive fluid shifts, which result in burn oedema and burn shock, can be expected.

The ideal burn resuscitation is the one that effectively restores plasma volume, with no adverse effects. Isotonic crystalloids, hypertonic solutions and colloids have been used for this purpose, but every solution has its advantages and disadvantages. None of them is ideal, and none is superior to any of the others.
Crystalloids are readily available and cheaper than some of the other alternatives. RL solution, Hartmann solution (a solution similar to RL solution) and normal saline are commonly used. There are some adverse effects of the crystalloids: high volume administration of normal saline produces hyperchloremic acidosis, RL increases the neutrophil activation after resuscitation for haemorrhage or after infusion without haemorrhage. d-lactate in RL solution containing a racemic mixture of the d-lactate and l-lactate isomers has been found to be responsible for increased production of ROS. RL used in the majority of hospitals contains this mixture. Another adverse effect that has been demonstrated is that crystalloids have a substantial influence on coagulation. Recent studies have demonstrated that in vivo dilution with crystalloids (independent of the type of the crystalloid) resulted in a hypercoagulable state.
Despite these adverse effects, the most commonly used fluid for burn resuscitation in the UK and Ireland is Hartmann’s solution (adult units 76%, paediatric units 75%). Another study has revealed that RL is the most popular type of fluid in burn units located in USA and Canada.

Streptococci may be divided into alpha and beta haemolytic types

Alpha haemolytic streptococci

The most important alpha haemolytic streptococcus is Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus). Pneumococcus is a common cause of pneumonia, meningitis and otitis media. Another clinical example is Streptococcus viridans

Beta haemolytic streptococci

These can be subdivided into group A and B

Group A

most important organism is Streptococcus pyogenes
responsible for erysipelas, impetigo, cellulitis, type 2 necrotizing fasciitis and pharyngitis/tonsillitis
immunological reactions can cause rheumatic fever or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
erythrogenic toxins cause scarlet fever

Group B

Streptococcus agalactiae may lead to neonatal meningitis and septicaemia

Dukes staging and 5 year survival:
Dukes A – Tumour confined to the bowel but not extending beyond it, without nodal metastasis (95%)
Dukes B – Tumour invading bowel wall, but without nodal metastasis (75%)
Dukes C – Lymph node metastases (50%)
Dukes D – Distant metastases (6%)

Extradural haematoma is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptomology. The middle meningeal artery is prone to damage when the temporal side of the head is hit.

Patients who suffer head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. Inadequate cardiac output compromises the CNS perfusion, irrespective of the nature of cranial injury.

An extradural haematoma is a collection of blood in the space between the skull and the dura mater. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of extradural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. There is often loss of consciousness following a head injury, a brief regaining of consciousness, and then loss of consciousness again—lucid interval. Other symptoms may include headache, confusion, vomiting, and an inability to move parts of the body. Diagnosis is typically by a CT scan or MRI, and treatment is generally by urgent surgery in the form of a craniotomy or burr hole.

Aortic transection was the underlying cause of death in this patient.

Aortic transection, or traumatic aortic rupture, is typically the result of a blunt aortic injury in the context of rapid deceleration. This condition is commonly fatal as blood in the aorta is under great pressure and can quickly escape the vessel through a tear, resulting in rapid haemorrhagic shock and death. A temporary haematoma may prevent the immediate death. Injury to the aorta during a sudden deceleration commonly originates near the terminal section of the aortic arch, also known as the isthmus. This portion lies just distal to the take-off of the left subclavian artery at the intersection of the mobile and fixed portions of the aorta. As many as 80% of the patients with aortic transection die at the scene before reaching a trauma centre for treatment.

A widened mediastinum may be seen on the X-ray of a person with aortic rupture.

Other types of thoracic trauma include:
1. Tension pneumothorax and pneumothorax
2. Haemothorax
3. Flail chest
4. Cardiac tamponade
5. Blunt cardiac injury
6. Pulmonary contusion
7. Diaphragm disruption
8. Mediastinal traversing wounds

The complications of central vein catheterization (CVC) include infection, thrombosis, occlusion, and, in particular, mechanical complications which usually occur during insertion and are closely related to the anatomic location of the central veins. Infectious complications are reported to occur in 5% to 26% of patients, mechanical complications in 5% to 19%, and thrombotic complications in 2% to 26%. Mechanical complications associated with the insertion of central lines include arterial puncture, hematoma, haemothorax, pneumothorax, arterial-venous fistula, venous air embolism, nerve injury, thoracic duct injury (left side only), intraluminal dissection, and puncture of the aorta
Pneumothorax is one of the most common CVC insertion complications, reportedly representing up to 30% of all mechanical adverse events of CVC insertion.
Clinician-performed bedside US allows the diagnosis of pneumothorax to be made immediately, with a high degree of sensitivity and with better accuracy than supine chest films and equal to that of CT scan.
Tension pneumothorax is classically characterized by hypotension and hypoxia. On examination, breath sounds are absent on the affected haemothorax and the trachea deviates away from the affected side. The thorax may also be hyper resonant; jugular venous distention and tachycardia may be present.
If a pneumothorax is diagnosed the treatment strategy should be determined by the following factors: (I) size; (II) symptoms; (III) spontaneous breathing or use of mechanical ventilation; (IV) clinical diagnosis of a tension pneumothorax.

Treatment consisted of: (I) observation; (II) outpatient insertion of a Heimlich valve; (III) inpatient tube thoracostomy.

Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infection

The Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.
EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:
fever,
fatigue,
swollen tonsils,
headache, and
sweats,
sore throat,
swollen lymph nodes in the neck, and
sometimes an enlarged spleen.
Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.
Petechiae on the palate are characteristic of streptococcal pharyngitis but also can be seen in Epstein–Barr virus infection, Arcanobacterium haemolyticum pharyngitis, rubella, roseola, viral haemorrhagic fevers, thrombocytopenia, and palatal trauma.

Answer: 6

Eye Opening Response
Spontaneous–open with blinking at baseline – 4 points
Opens to verbal command, speech, or shout – 3 points
Opens to pain, not applied to face – 2 point
None – 1 point

Verbal Response
Oriented – 5 points
Confused conversation, but able to answer questions – 4 points
Inappropriate responses, words discernible – 3 points
Incomprehensible speech – 2 points
None – 1 point

Motor Response
Obeys commands for movement – 6 points
Purposeful movement to painful stimulus – 5 points
Withdraws from pain – 4 points
Abnormal (spastic) flexion, decorticate posture – 3 points
Extensor (rigid) response, decerebrate posture – 2 points
None – 1 point

He opens his eyes to pain and groans or grunts. He extends his hands at the elbow on application of painful stimulus. This gives him a Glasgow score of 6: eye opening response of 2, verbal response 2 and motor response 2.

Early ECG changes of hyperkalaemia, typically seen at a serum potassium levels of 5.5-6.5 mEq/L, include the following:
– Tall, peaked T waves with a narrow base (best seen in precordial leads)
– Shortened QT interval
– ST-segment depression

Sjogren syndrome (SS) is a long-term autoimmune disease that affects the body’s moisture-producing glands. Primary symptoms are a dry mouth and dry eyes. Other symptoms can include dry skin, vaginal dryness, a chronic cough, numbness in the arms and legs, feeling tired, muscle and joint pains, and thyroid problems. Those affected are at an increased risk (5%) of lymphoma. It primarily affects women in their peri and post-menopausal years of life.

Answer: Serum phosphate

Refeeding syndrome can be defined as the potentially fatal shifts in fluids and electrolytes that may occur in malnourished patients receiving artificial refeeding (whether enterally or parenterally. These shifts result from hormonal and metabolic changes and may cause serious clinical complications. The hallmark biochemical feature of refeeding syndrome is hypophosphatemia. However, the syndrome is complex and may also feature abnormal sodium and fluid balance; changes in glucose, protein, and fat metabolism; thiamine deficiency; hypokalaemia; and hypomagnesaemia.
During refeeding, glycaemia leads to increased insulin and decreased secretion of glucagon. Insulin stimulates glycogen, fat, and protein synthesis. This process requires minerals such as phosphate and magnesium and cofactors such as thiamine. Insulin stimulates the absorption of potassium into the cells through the sodium-potassium ATPase symporter, which also transports glucose into the cells. Magnesium and phosphate are also taken up into the cells. Water follows by osmosis. These processes result in a decrease in the serum levels of phosphate, potassium, and magnesium, all of which are already depleted. The clinical features of the refeeding syndrome occur as a result of the functional deficits of these electrolytes and the rapid change in basal metabolic rate.

Symptoms of hypophosphatemia include:

confusion or hesitation
seizures
muscle breakdown
neuromuscular problems
acute heart failure

Deficiency in thiamine can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome (retrograde and anterograde amnesia, confabulation) and Wernicke’s encephalopathy (ocular abnormalities, ataxia, confusional state, hypothermia, coma). These symptoms are not present in the patient so Thiamine deficiency can be ruled out and there is no need to do tests for Serum vitamin B.

The hoarseness of voice implies vocal cord paralysis denoting the spread of malignancy which is a contraindication to surgery.

Summary of Guidelines on the selection of patients with lung cancer for surgery (Related to this case)

PART I: FITNESS FOR SURGERY
Age:
1. Perioperative morbidity increases with advancing age. Elderly patients undergoing lung resection are more likely to require intensive perioperative support. Preoperatively, a careful assessment of co-morbidity needs to be made.
2. Surgery for clinically stage I and II disease can be as effective in patients over 70 years as in younger patients. Such patients should be considered for surgical treatment regardless of age.
3. Age over 80 alone is not a contraindication to lobectomy or wedge resection for clinical stage I disease.
4. Pneumonectomy is associated with higher mortality risk in the elderly. Age should be a factor in deciding suitability for pneumonectomy.

Pulmonary function:
There should be a formal liaison in borderline cases between the referring chest physician and the thoracic surgical team.
2.No further respiratory function tests are required for a lobectomy if the post-bronchodilator FEV1 is >1.5 litres and for a pneumonectomy, if the post-bronchodilator FEV1 is >2.0 litres, provided that there is no evidence of interstitial lung disease or unexpected disability due to shortness of breath.
STEP 1
3.All patients not clearly operable on the basis of spirometry should have: (a) full pulmonary function tests including estimation of transfer factor (TLCO); (b) measurement of oxygen saturation on air at rest; and (c) a quantitative isotope perfusion scan if a pneumonectomy is being considered.
4.These data should be used to calculate estimated postoperative FEV1 expressed as % predicted and the estimated postoperative TLCO expressed as % predicted, using either the lung scan for pneumonectomy or an anatomical equation for lobectomy, taking account of whether the segments to be removed are ventilated or obstructed.
STEP 2
5.(a) Estimated postoperative FEV1 >40% predicted and estimated postoperative TLCO >40% predicted and oxygen saturation (SaO 2) >90% on air: average risk.
(b)Estimated postoperative FEV1 <40% predicted and estimated postoperative TLCO <40% predicted: high risk.
(c)All other combinations: consider exercise testing.
6.Patients for whom the risk of resection is still unclear after step 2 tests should be referred for exercise testing.
STEP 3
7.(a) The best distance on two shuttle walk tests of <25 shuttles (250 m) or desaturation during the test of more than 4% SaO 2 indicates a patient is a high risk for surgery.
(b)Other patients should be referred for a formal cardiopulmonary exercise test. For cardiopulmonary exercise testing peak oxygen consumption (V˙O 2peak) of more than 15 ml/kg/min indicates that a patient is an average risk for surgery.
(c)A V˙O 2peak of <15 ml/kg/min indicates that a patient is a high risk for surgery. PART II: OPERABILITY
Diagnosis and staging
1.All patients being considered for surgery should have a plain chest radiograph and a computed tomographic (CT) scan of the thorax including the liver and adrenal glands.
2.Confirmatory diagnostic percutaneous needle biopsy in patients presenting with peripheral lesions is not mandatory in patients who are otherwise fit, particularly if there are previous chest radiographs showing no evidence of a lesion.
3.Patients with mediastinal nodes greater than 1 cm in short-axis diameter on the CT scan should undergo biopsy by staging mediastinoscopy, anterior mediastinotomy, or needle biopsy as appropriate.
Operability and adjuvant therapy
1.The proportion of patients found to be inoperable at operation should be 5–10%.
2.Patients with stage I (cT1N0 and cT2N0) and stage II (cT1N1, cT2N1 and cT3N0) tumours should be considered operable.
3.Patients with stage I tumours have a high chance and those with stage II tumours a reasonable chance of being cured by surgery alone.
4.Patients who are known preoperatively to have stage IIIA (cT3N1 and cT1–3N2) tumours have a low chance of being cured by surgery alone but might be considered operable in the context of a trial of surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy.
5.Participation in prospective trials of multimodality treatment for locally advanced disease is strongly recommended.
6.Some small individual studies indicate a place for surgery in T4N0 and T4N1 tumours within stage IIIB, few long term data are available. Generally, stage IIIB tumours with node involvement and stage IV tumours should be considered inoperable.
7.There is no place for postoperative radiotherapy following complete primary tumour resection.