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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period -if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following could be an indicator of possible language delay in an otherwise well child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A family history of hereditary deafness
Explanation:In the first few years of life the developing sensory inputs are important. Hearing is essential for speech and language development and may be delayed when a child cannot hear. Therefore any child with a family history of hereditary deafness should be screened. From about 4-6months babies are able to laugh and babble when excited or unhappy. By the age of 9 months the child should be able to bring together groups of same sound syllables and be able to say one or two words by the 1st birthday. If a child is unable to babble by 10-12 years, it may indicate hearing impairment. By the age of 2 a child should be able to speak in 1 or 2 word phrases and often repeats phrases used by others, known as Echolalia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding primitive reflexes in a 12-month-old infant?
Your Answer: The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex is present
Correct Answer: The Moro reflex is absent
Explanation:Primitive reflexes are central nervous system responses, many of which disappear as a child matures. Retention of these reflexes may point to atypical neurology such as in cerebral palsy or stroke. However, some persist into adulthood. The stepping reflex is present from birth and normally disappears by 6 weeks, while the moro reflex is present from birth to about 4 months. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex disappears by about 6 months. Reflexes that persist include the head righting reflex which develops at 6 months, and the parachute reflex which develops at 9 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following facts and figures is true regarding vitamin A?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Children with measles should receive additional vitamin A supplementation
Explanation:Vitamin A is a fat-soluble compound occurring in various forms. The RDA for 0-12 months old babies is 400-600micrograms/day. Most of the vitamin A is stored in the liver, making animal liver an excellent source of vitamin A.
Vitamin A deficiency is characterized by the deposits of keratin in the conjunctiva, known as Bitot’s spots, keratomalacia, night blindness, and anaemia.
Vitamin A toxicity or excess is characterized by hyperkeratosis, hypothyroidism, hypo/hyperpigmentation, etc.
According to WHO guidelines, children under two years of age who develop measles should be given two additional doses of vitamin A supplementation 24 hours apart, which is necessary for preventing eye damage, blindness, and reducing mortality by 50%. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of her breasts and light hair on the border of the labia majora. Her mother worries she might be having premature puberty. What is her Tanner stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: II
Explanation:Tanner stage two presents with the following: Downy hair, Breast bud palpable under areola (1st pubertal sign in females).
Stage 1 (prepubertal) – elevation of papilla only – no pubic hair
Stage 2 – breast bud forms – sparse, slightly pigmented hair on labia majora
Stage 3 – Breast begins to become elevated, extends beyond areola borders – hair becomes more coarse and curly
Stage 4 – increased size and elevation. Areola and papilla form secondary mound – adult like, but sparing medial thighs
Stage 5 – final size, areola returns but papilla remains projected – hair extends to medial thighs -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old pregnant female is brought to the emergency department with complaints of headache, blurred vision and abdominal pain. Her BP is recorded to be 160/110 mmHg and she is also found to have proteinuria. Which of the following findings will typically be found in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelets
Explanation:HELLP syndrome is a complication of pregnancy characterized by haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and a low platelet count. It usually begins during the last three months of pregnancy or shortly after childbirth. HELLP syndrome is a life-threatening condition that can potentially complicate pregnancy. It is named for 3 features of the condition: Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzyme levels, and Low Platelet levels. It typically occurs in the last 3 months of pregnancy (the third trimester) but can also start soon after delivery. A wide range of non-specific symptoms may be present in women with HELLP syndrome. Symptoms may include fatigue; malaise; fluid retention and excess weight gain; headache; nausea and vomiting; pain in the upper right or middle of the abdomen; blurry vision; and rarely, nosebleed or seizures. The cause of HELLP syndrome is not known, but certain risk factors have been associated with the condition. It is most common in women with preeclampsia or eclampsia. If not diagnosed and treated quickly, HELLP syndrome can lead to serious complications for the mother and baby. The main treatment is to deliver the baby as soon as possible, even if premature, if there is distress of the mother or the baby. Treatment may also include medications needed for the mother or baby, and blood transfusion for severe bleeding problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What proportion of salivary secretions is contributed by the submandibular glands?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:The submandibular glands provide the bulk of salivary secretions contributing close to 70%.
The sublingual glands provide 5% and the remainder from the parotid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 6 month old baby presents with a sausage-shaped abdominal mass and a history of green vomit a few hours earlier. The baby was born at 38 weeks of gestation and immigrated recently form the Philippines with his parents. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Intussusception is the invagination of one segment of the intestine within a more distal segment. It presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, and a palpable abdominal mass.
Intussusception usually affects infants between 6-18 months old. Boys are affected twice as often as girls -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents with bilaterally enlarged parotid glands for more than 9 months.
On examination, both parotid glands are firm and non-tender and are not warm to touch.
What is the most probable infectious cause for chronic parotitis in the given scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Explanation:The most probable cause for chronic parotitis in this patient would be HIV infection.
Rationale:
Chronic infectious parotitis is relatively uncommon in children.
While mycobacterial infection can result in chronic parotitis, HIV is a relatively more common cause. The presentation should always prompt an HIV test.Other options:
– While mumps is the most common cause of acute viral parotitis, the chronic nature of the boy’s presentation rules it out.
– Acute bacterial parotitis is usually unilateral and is warm and tender to touch. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 7-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She complains that the child is having episodes of non-bilious vomiting for the past 10 days.
She observed that the episodes typically occur directly after feeding and notes that the volume brought up varies, but that her baby does seem to be very hungry and has not gained much weight.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this infant?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.
Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (CHPS):
Pyloric stenosis should be ruled out in any baby who presents with a long-term history of vomiting and failure to thrive.
Infants typically present with projectile, non-bilious vomiting and are said to be hungry and wanting to feed despite poor weight gain. A blood gas would be helpful in this instance, although the diagnosis can be made more accurately by observing the stenosis during ultrasound.Many infants have symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease, although only a small minority are unable to gain weight adequately. A UTI in infants can present with non-specific symptoms, but they might have a fever and can show poor feeding. Malrotation will present with bilious vomiting.
The definitive surgical management is the Ramsteadt’s pyloromyotomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic accident.
His car seat was thrown forward into the front passenger seat. He has sustained multiple injuries, including a fractured pelvis and suspected skull fracture.
On initial assessment in the emergency department, the child was lying supine with c-spine immobilized. His eyes were closed, and he was motionless. He did not respond to voice commands.
He cried and produced weak vocal sounds to pain but did not open his eyes.
He tries to move away from the examining hand.
What is the Paediatric Glasgow Coma Scale score of this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:The Glasgow Coma Scale, being inappropriate for use in children (especially below the age of 5) as they are unable to elicit the verbal response as per the adult GCS.
Therefore, GCS for the paediatric age group was modified to Adelaide coma scale (ACS), which is stated as follows:Best Eye Response (as in adult scale):
Spontaneous – 4
To speech – 3
To pain – 2
No response – 1Best Verbal Response:
Oriented – 5
Words – 4
Vocal sounds – 3
Cries – 2
No response – 1Best Motor Response (as in adult scale):
Obeys commands – 5
Localises pain – 4
Flexion to pain – 3
Extension to pain – 2
No response – 1The described child scores:
Eye response – 1; Verbal response – 3; Motor response – 4
Thus, bringing the total ACS score to 8. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is not associated with Marfan's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance
Explanation:Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue in many parts of the body. Connective tissue provides strength and flexibility to structures such as bones, ligaments, muscles, blood vessels, and heart valves. The signs and symptoms of Marfan syndrome vary widely in severity, timing of onset, and rate of progression.
This condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder.
At least 25 percent of Marfan syndrome cases result from a new mutation in the FBN1 gene. These cases occur in people with no history of the disorder in their family.
The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and defects in the large blood vessel that distributes blood from the heart to the rest of the body (the aorta).
Associations include:
Tall stature
Learning disability (50%)
Lens subluxation (usually upwards)
Femoral hernia
Hemivertebrae
Cardiac problems (Aortic/mitral regurgitation, aneurysms)
Joint hypermobility
Arachnodactyly -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 8-month-old infant is presented to the paediatrics ward with a history of delayed developmental milestones since birth. On examination, he has poor muscle tone and balance, and a head circumference, which is greater than normal. Imaging of the patient's head revealed a diminished cerebellar vermis, a large fourth ventricle, and an enlarged posterior fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Dandy-Walker syndrome is characterised by symptoms of brain maldevelopment that are seen in this patient. A large cranium indicates hydrocephalus, and the hypotonia indicates poor limb development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 16-month-old infant presented to ER with multiple bruises on his right arm. According to his mom, he has been unable to move it since yesterday and is crying more than usual. A relative attended the child while his mother was on a night shift. X-ray revealed a fracture of the right humerus, which was put in a cast. What is the next step in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit under care of paediatrician
Explanation:Certain lesions present on x-ray are suggestive of child abuse including rib, humerus and skull fractures. It is the doctors responsibility to follow up on these cases to determine whether domestic abuse has occurred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male arrives at the clinic, 7 days after having unprotected intercourse with his girlfriend, and complains of dysuria and purulent urethral discharge. He is otherwise feeling well. Microscopic examination of the urethral swab shows gram negative diplococci. Which of the following drugs should be used in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:Effective treatment can cure gonorrhoea and help prevent long-term complications. CDC recommends a single dose of 250mg of intramuscular ceftriaxone AND 1g of oral azithromycin. It is important to take all of the medication prescribed to cure gonorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a risk factor for intrauterine growth restriction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foetal echogenic bowel
Explanation:Intrauterine growth restriction refers to the failure of the fetus to grow in accordance with the weeks of gestation. There are two types of growth restriction, symmetrical and asymmetrical. Causes include various genetic abnormalities, fetal infections, maternal health conditions, etc. Risk factors for the development of IUGR include fetal echogenic bowel, maternal age above 40 years, low PAPP-A levels, maternal smoking or cocaine use, etc. Fetal echogenic bowel implies a brighter than usual fetal intestines on ultrasonography. It is a marker associated with trisomy 21, which is a cause of IUGR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The mother of 6 months old girl tests positive for HIV. Doctors test her daughter as well and the results turn out to be positive for HIV, both by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and serology. The girl is clinically healthy and seems to attain normal developmental milestones. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start co-trimoxazole prophylaxis immediately and plan to start antiretrovirals once further work-up is complete
Explanation:Infants exposed to maternal HIV and with positive results require immediate management with co-trimoxazole prophylaxis, regardless of their CD4 levels. Antiretroviral treatment is necessary as well but it could wait until further work-up is complete.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What would you administer to a child with a clean wound that has never been immunized before, assuming there is no contraindication to immunization?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full course of diphtheria, tetanus, polio
Explanation:A not immunized patient with a clean wound requires an immediate vaccination against diphtheria, tetanus and polio, according to the Green Book of Immunisation against infectious disease. (The Green Book has the latest information on vaccines and vaccination procedures, for vaccine preventable infectious diseases in the UK.)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following would a 9-year old girl with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes not require annually?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinopathy screening
Explanation:Retinopathy screening need not be done on an annual basis for a 9-year-old child. Screening for diabetic retinopathy should begin at the age of 12.
Diabetes mellitus is an increasing problem in both developing and developed countries alike. Some of the risk factors include:
Obesity
Family history
Female sex
Asian and African races
Presence of acanthosis nigricans is seen with type 2 but not type 1 diabetesThe diagnosis is mostly incidental or subacute.
The treatment aims are good blood sugar control, maintenance of normal BMI, and reduction of complications. The treatment modality also includes lifestyle modifications and cessation of smoking. Even after all this, diabetic ketoacidosis can still occur.Management of diabetes mellitus – NICE guidelines (Updated, 2015):
– Standard release metformin should be offered from the moment of diagnosis.
– HBA1c should be measured every three months. The target HBA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower is ideal for minimising the risk of long term complications.
– Children should undergo an eye examination by an optician every two years.
– Annual immunisation against influenza and pneumococcal infections are essential.
– There is an increased risk of psychological and psychosocial difficulties if the child with type 1 diabetes is on insulin or oral hypoglycaemic medications. These include anxiety disorder, depression, behavioural and conduct disorders and family conflict.
– Annual monitoring to be done for:
Hypertension starting at diagnosis.
Dyslipidaemia starting at diagnosis.
Screening for microalbuminuria starting at diagnosis.
Diabetic retinopathy from 12 years of age. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A first-time mother is concerned about the development of her 2-month-old baby.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding developmental milestones at the age of 2 months?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The infant is not expected to mirror facial expressions like smiling
Explanation:Developmental milestones at the age of 2 months are as follows:
Social and Emotional:
– Begins to smile at people
– Can briefly calm herself (may bring hands to mouth and suck on hand)
– Tries to look at the parents
Language/Communication:
– Coos, makes gurgling sounds
– Turns head toward sounds
Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):
– Pays attention to faces
– Begins to follow things with eyes and recognize people at a distance
– Begins to act bored (cries, fussy) if an activity doesn’t change
Movement/Physical Development:
– Can hold head up and begins to push up when lying on tummy
– Makes smoother movements with arms and legs -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old autistic boy who has had learning difficulties is found to have large testes. Which condition does the child most likely have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition that causes a range of developmental problems including learning disabilities and cognitive impairment. Usually, males are more severely affected by this disorder than females.
Affected individuals usually have delayed development of speech and language by age 2. Most males with fragile X syndrome have mild to moderate intellectual disability, while about one-third of affected females are intellectually disabled. Children with fragile X syndrome may also have anxiety and hyperactive behaviour such as fidgeting or impulsive actions. They may have attention deficit disorder (ADD), which includes an impaired ability to maintain attention and difficulty focusing on specific tasks. About one-third of individuals with fragile X syndrome have features of autism spectrum disorder that affect communication and social interaction. Seizures occur in about 15 percent of males and about 5 percent of females with fragile X syndrome.
Most males and about half of females with fragile X syndrome have characteristic physical features that become more apparent with age. These features include a long and narrow face, large ears, a prominent jaw and forehead, unusually flexible fingers, flat feet, and in males, enlarged testicles (macroorchidism) after puberty. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular gland presents to the follow-up clinic with complaints of tongue weakness on the ipsilateral side.
What is the nerve that is most likely to be damaged?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve
Explanation:The presenting features and the surgical site provided in the clinical scenario are highly suggestive of ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve injury.
Note:
Three cranial nerves may be injured during submandibular gland excision.
– Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve
– Lingual nerve
– Hypoglossal nerveHypoglossal nerve damage may result in the paralysis of the ipsilateral aspect of the tongue. The nerve itself lies deep to the capsule surrounding the gland and should not be injured during an intracapsular dissection.
The lingual nerve is probably at higher risk of injury. However, the effects of lingual nerve injury are predominantly sensory rather than motor.
Thus, the most appropriate answer is the hypoglossal nerve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain.
Which of the following is the pain most likely linked to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meconium ileus equivalent syndrome
Explanation:Meconium ileus equivalent (MIE) can be defined as a clinical manifestation in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients caused by acute intestinal obstruction by putty-like faecal material in the cecum or terminal ileum. A broader definition includes a more chronic condition in CF patients with abdominal pain and a coecal mass which may eventually pass spontaneously. The condition occurs only in CF patients with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI). It has not been seen in other CF patients nor in non-CF patients with EPI. The frequency of these symptoms has been reported as 2.4%-25%.
The treatment should primarily be non-operative. Specific treatment with N-acetylcysteine, administrated orally and/or as an enema is recommended. Enemas with the water soluble contrast medium, meglucamine diatrizoate (Gastrografin), provide an alternative form for treatment and can also serve diagnostic purposes. It is important that the physician is familiar with this disease entity and the appropriate treatment with the above mentioned drugs. Non-operative treatment is often effective, and dangerous complications following surgery can thus be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 24
Incorrect
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During a routine developmental assessment, it is noted that an infant can transfer a cube from her left to her right hand. She gains much excitement when placed in a forward or downward parachute position.
In contrast to her last visit, she no longer has a rooting, grasp, or startle reflex. Her symmetrical Moro reflex has also disappeared. The infant continuously presents items to her mouth and sucks her fingers. She has a positive Babinski sign but a negative asymmetrical tonic neck reflex.
What is the developmental age of the child in question?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8 months
Explanation:Based on the presentation, the developmental age of the child is 8 months.
The primitive reflexes are indicators of functional integrity and maturity. The majority of reflexes do not persist beyond 6 months of age.
There are 13 reflexes of importance, including:
– Moro reflex
– Startle reflex
– Rooting reflex
– Sucking reflex
– Grasp reflex
– Voluntary palmar grasp reflex
– Voluntary reach reflex
– Stepping reflex
– Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)
– Parachute reflex
– Plantar reflex
– Tendon reflex
– ClonusIt is interesting to note that gastrocolic reflex is not a primitive reflex.
Ninety-five per cent of reflexes will have disappeared by the ages shown below:
– 6 weeks: Stepping
– 3-4 months: Palmar grasp and Moro
– 6 months: Sucking, rooting, and asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is most commonly seen in PANDAS (Paediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 4 year old boy presented in the sixth day of fever, with erythema of the palms and soles and maculopapular rash. His eyes and tongue were red. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kawasaki Disease
Explanation:Kawasaki disease is an acute febrile illness of early childhood characterized by vasculitis of the medium-sized arteries. Diagnostic criteria include fever of at least 5 days duration along with 4 or 5 of the principal clinical features – extremity changes, polymorphous rash, oropharyngeal changes, conjunctival injection and unilateral nonpurulent cervical lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency by his parents with worsening ataxia. They also mention that the boy's urine has a distinct sweet odour. Further investigations reveal the presence of leucine, isoleucine and valine in the urine. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maple Syrup Urine Disease
Explanation:Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder affecting branched-chain amino acids. It is one type of organic academia. The condition gets its name from the distinctive sweet odour of affected infants’ urine, particularly prior to diagnosis, and during times of acute illness. MSUD, also known as branched-chain ketoaciduria, is an aminoacidopathy due to an enzyme defect in the catabolic pathway of the branched-chain amino acids leucine, isoleucine, and valine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency department after having an episode of generalised tonic-clonic seizures. The seizures started at 10:55. The paramedics gave him buccal midazolam at 11:04 and waited for the seizures to end, until 11:06. Afterwards, they gave him oxygen via face mask and set up a venous line. His blood glucose at that moment was 5.2 mmol/L and he remained unconscious during the whole trip to the hospital. The paramedics arrived at the emergency department at 11:16 and you observe that he has a patent airway and a good air entry. His RR is 12 and his O2 saturation is 98% on 10L O2. His heart rate is 122 bpm and his CRT is 2 seconds. At 11:19, you observe that the child is not responsive to pain and he starts experiencing subtle but persistent jerking movements of his jaw and left upper limb. You notice that the child's pupils are deviated to the right and are bilaterally constricted. It's 11:20. What should you do next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer IV lorazepam now
Explanation:NICE guidelines suggest that at the premonitory stage (pre-hospital) the patient should receive Diazepam 10−20 mg given rectally, or midazolam 10 mg given buccally. If seizures continue, the patient should receive lorazepam IV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with complaints of vomiting, constipation and decreased serum potassium. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis: hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:In pyloric stenosis a new-born baby presents with a history of vomiting, constipation and deranged electrolytes. Excessive vomiting leads to hypokalaemia. Difficulty in food passing from the stomach to the small intestine causes constipation. Hypokalaemia also causes constipation. None of the other disorders mentioned present with the hypokalaemia, vomiting and constipation triad in a new-born.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 17 year old boy who was previously well and healthy presents to the physician after his teachers complained of his dropping grades. On clinical examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease. The ultrasound reveals cirrhosis and the blood ceruloplasmin levels are low. Wilsons disease is suspected. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present in addition to the above findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kayser-Fleischer rings
Explanation:A minority of affected individuals may experience severe liver failure. This happens most frequently in people with Wilson’s disease during adolescence and more commonly in women. These individuals may rapidly develop signs and symptoms of liver disease, often associated with anaemia due to breakdown of red blood cells (haemolysis) and mental confusion. In some patients, liver disease does not reveal itself, and the patient develops neurologic (brain-related) symptoms. Common neurological symptoms of Wilson disease that may appear and progress with time include tremor, involuntary movements, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking and poor articulation (dysarthria), lack of coordination, spasticity, dystonic postures, and muscle rigidity. Almost all affected individuals with the neurological symptoms of Wilson’s disease have Kayser-Fleischer rings in their eyes that can be identified by a slit lamp examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Female twins are born. They are noted by the midwife to be identical. They separated in the womb after implantation but before day 8.
What type of twin is this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monochorionic diamniotic
Explanation:A monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) twin pregnancy is a subtype of monozygotic twin pregnancy. An MCDA pregnancy results from a separation of a single zygote at ,4-8 days (blastocyst) following formation. These fetuses share a single chorionic sac but have two amniotic sacs and two yolk sacs.
It accounts for the vast majority (70-75%) of monozygotic twin pregnancies although only ,30% of all twin pregnancies. The estimated incidence is at ,1:400 pregnancies
The layman term is that the twins are identical – in reality, they are phenotypically similar, and of course of the same gender. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the emergency department with icterus. Although she's had a good appetite, and breast-feeding well, she hasn't gained any weight. Her mother noticed that her stools are pale while her urine is noticeably dark. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Biliary atresia is a rare condition that usually becomes symptomatic 2 to 8 weeks after birth. It can be congenital or acquired. Typical symptoms include jaundice, weight loss, dark urine and pale stools.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the case of a mother with HIV infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The risk of HIV vertical transmission is increased by concurrent maternal Hepatitis C infection
Explanation:To prevent mother to child transmission in the case of an HIV infected mother, guidelines have been put in place in the that guide practices. During pregnancy the risk of intrauterine transmission is quite low, as is the risk of transmission during vaginal delivery. As a result the number of women that choose to have caesarean sections have fallen, with vaginal births increasing by 40%. One factor that can however increase the risk of mother to child HIV transmission is concurrent Hepatitis C infection which double the risk of vertical transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency after being stabbed in the upper arm and the median nerve is transected. Impaired function can be demonstrated in which of the following muscle/s?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A hyperkinetic gait is most likely associated with which condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sydenham chorea
Explanation:Hyperkinetic Gait is seen with certain basal ganglia disorders including Sydenham’s chorea, Huntington’s Disease and other forms of chorea, athetosis or dystonia. The patient will display irregular, jerky, involuntary movements in all extremities. Walking may accentuate their baseline movement disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and unresponsive. He was born by emergency caesarean section. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage
Explanation:Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences. Although GM/IVH can occur in term infants, haemorrhage in this group of infants remains distinct from periventricular haemorrhage (PVH)/IVH of the preterm infant. Several acquired lesions of the central nervous system (CNS) specifically affect infants born prematurely and result in long-term disability, including GM/IVH, periventricular white matter injury (e.g., cystic periventricular leukomalacia [CPVL], periventricular haemorrhagic infarction [PVHI]), haemorrhage, and diffuse injury to the developing brain.
The physical examination is usually negative in germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Occasionally, severe GM/IVH may present with nonspecific systemic findings suggestive of cardiovascular collapse.One subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with the following:
– A sudden unexplained drop in haematocrit levels
– Possible physical findings related to anaemia (e.g., pallor, poor perfusion) or haemorrhagic shockAnother subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with extreme signs, including the following:
– A sudden and significant clinical deterioration associated with anaemia, metabolic acidosis, glucose instability, respiratory acidosis, apnoea, hypotonia, and stupor is present.Physical findings related to these signs include poor perfusion, pallor or an ashen colour, irregularities of respiratory pattern, signs of respiratory distress including retractions and tachypnoea, hypotonia, and altered mental status (e.g., decreased responsiveness, coma).
Additional neurologic signs, such as fullness of the fontanelles, seizures, and posturing, may also be observed. Progression can be rapid and may result in shock and death.
Extradural haemorrhage also known as an epidural hematoma, is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and outer layer of the dura, which is called the endosteal layer. They are usually associated with a history of head trauma and frequently associated skull fracture. The source of bleeding is usually arterial, most commonly from a torn middle meningeal artery.
A subdural haemorrhage (or hematoma) is a type of bleeding that often occurs outside the brain as a result of a severe head injury. It takes place when blood vessels burst between the brain and the leather-like membrane that wraps around the brain (the dura mater). The pooling blood creates pressure on the surface of the brain, causing a variety of problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of metformin used in Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases insulin production
Explanation:Metformin works by improving the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin, which results in a reduction of circulating insulin levels. Metformin inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis and it also increases the glucose uptake by peripheral tissues and reduces fatty acid oxidation. Metformin has a positive effect on the endothelium and adipose tissue independent of its action on insulin and glucose levels.
Metformin was the first insulin sensitising drug (ISD) to be used in PCOS to investigate the role of insulin resistance in the pathogenesis of the syndrome
Several effects have been reported as related to metformin in PCOS patients including restoring ovulation, reducing weight, reducing circulating androgen levels, reducing the risk of miscarriage and reducing the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). Other studies have reported that the addition of metformin to the ovarian stimulation regime in invitro fertilization (IVF) improves the pregnancy outcome. These effects will be addressed individually. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Primary amenorrhea is caused by all of the following EXCEPT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome
Explanation:Primary amenorrhea is defined as the total absence of menarche in a girl of 14 years of age if the secondary sexual characteristics are also absent or in a girl of 16 years of age in whom normal secondary sexual characteristics are present. There are multiple causes of primary amenorrhea, but the most common are constitutional delay, imperforate hymen, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, hypothalamic failure, and testicular feminization. Cushing’s syndrome leads to secondary amenorrhea, which is defined as the absence of a menstrual period for 6 consecutive cycles in a girl who has achieved menarche.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 40-week-old baby presented with a weak cry and failure to thrive. The mother gives a history of prolonged neonatal jaundice and says it is common in her family. On examination, a large tongue was noticed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital hypothyroidism
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with failure to thrive, macroglossia, prolonged jaundice of a new-born and constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A child is brought to the hospital by his mother, who complains that he has been running a fever and associated with a headache.
Which of the following clinical features, if present, is suggestive of raised intracranial pressure?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Among the options provided, bradycardia is a feature of raised intracranial pressure.
The features of raised intracranial pressure include relative bradycardia and hypertension, altered consciousness, focal neurology and seizures.
All other options are signs of shock but not raised intracranial pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 41
Incorrect
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An 11-month-old child was given breakfast cereal containing cashew nuts following which he suddenly developed stridor and is struggling to breathe.
The patient was brought to the emergency room tired and unable to cough. On examination, he is found to be conscious, and there is no rash. Auscultation did not reveal any abnormal breath sounds.
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Five back blows
Explanation:This clinical presentation is highly suggestive of choking. According to the BLS algorithm, the next step in managing a case of choking in a conscious child with an ineffective cough is five back blows.
Other options:
– Adrenaline intramuscularly: The history is similar to anaphylaxis, but the absence of a rash or oedema and the acute onset make choking more likely in this situation. Thus, adrenaline will not be of use in this patient.
– CPR at a ratio of 15:2: Since the child is conscious, it is not advised. If the child were unconscious, you would commence basic life support.
– Five abdominal thrusts: In the given scenario, the child is an infant. Abdominal thrusts are avoided in infants due to the risk of intra-abdominal injury. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy presents with facial puffiness, frothy urine, lethargy and oliguria for two weeks. Urine analysis reveals proteinuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:The presentation is suggestive of nephrotic syndrome. A trial of corticosteroids is the first step in treatment of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome. Diuretics are useful in managing symptomatic oedema. Cyclosporin and cyclophosphamide are indicated in frequently relapsing and steroid dependant disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure to thrive and a sputum culture positive for H.influenzea and S.pneumoniae. There is no history of congenital anomalies. He is most likely suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Explanation:Recurrent bacterial infections may be due to lack of B-cell function, consequently resulting in a lack of gamma globulins production. Once the maternal antibodies have depleted, the disease manifests with greater severity and is called x-linked agammaglobulinemia also known as ‘X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia’, ‘XLA’ or ‘Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia. it is a rare x linked genetic disorder that compromises the bodies ability to fight infections.
Acute leukaemia causes immunodeficiency but not so specific.
DiGeorge syndrome is due to lack of T cell function.
Aplastic anaemia and EBV infection does not cause immunodeficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents following amitriptyline overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pin point pupils
Explanation:Pupils are dilated in patients with amitriptyline overdose.
Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, and thus, small doses can be fatal in children. Deaths from tricyclics are more common than other antidepressants. Bimodal incidence with toddlers (accidental) and teenagers (deliberate) most commonly affected.
Symptoms: They occur within 6 hours of ingestion.
– Nausea, vomiting, and headache
– Elevated body temperature
– Agitation, sleepiness, confusion, coma
– Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention (anticholinergic)
– Dilated pupils
– Seizures
– Hypotension, tachycardia, conduction disorders, and cardiac arrest
– Respiratory depressionManagement:
Treatment focuses on supportive care. This includes airway protection, ventilation and oxygenation, intravenous fluids, and cardiac monitoring.
Other measures include:
– Activated charcoal within 2 hours
– Hypotension is treated with IV fluids and adrenaline
– Cardiac monitoring
– Sodium bicarbonate in acidosis or if there are wide QRS complex (> 100 ms)
– Convulsions may require diazepam or lorazepam. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 45
Incorrect
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In term babies with persistent jaundice, what is the time period over which one must consider biliary atresia as the probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 14 days
Explanation:After a period of 14 days, if jaundice persists in a term new-born, having ruled out the other possibilities, biliary atresia should be considered as a possible diagnosis.
Biliary atresia is a rare but serious condition. Symptoms include obstructive jaundice (dark urine and pale stool).
Management:
Surgery within 8 weeks is recommended.
Survival is around 90% using current treatment regimes.
Without treatment, children will survive to around 18 months. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions result in a port wine stain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sturge-Weber syndrome
Explanation:Various types of birthmarks are commonly seen in children of different age groups. Birthmarks can be broadly classified as pigmented and vascular birthmarks. Port-wine stain (nevus flammeus) is an example of a vascular birthmark, and is characterized by a reddish-purple discoloration of the skin due to abnormal underlying skin vasculature. Port-wine stain has also been associated with vascular diseases like Sturge-weber syndrome, which is a congenital neurocutaneous disorder. In Sturge-weber syndrome, the port-wine stain affects the skin around the ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain. Upon examination, his leg is externally rotated and is 2cm shorter. His ability to flex, abduct and medially rotate his leg is limited and when he flexes his hip, external rotation is increased. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis
Explanation:The clinical presentation is typical of a slipped femoral epiphysis, which refers to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), resulting in slippage of the overlying end of the femur. It is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. The range of motion in the hip is restricted in internal (medial) rotation, abduction, and flexion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29 weeks. His birth weight was recorded to be 1 kg. Due to his critical state, the baby was intubated and ventilated. Prior to his intubation, the baby was managed with CPAP, but he seemed to get exhausted. He is now on SiMV (spontaneous intermittent mechanical ventilation). The ventilator settings are as follows: targeted tidal volume 9 ml, maximum PIP 30, PEEP 5, rate 40/min, FiO2 0.3. Baby's oxygen saturations are 93%. Blood gas shows pH 7.41, CO2 3.9 kPa, BE -4.
Which of the following changes need to be made to the ventilator settings initially?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease targeted tidal volume
Explanation:Synchronized IMV (SIMV) with pressure support, used in the alert infant. SIMV guarantees a minimum minute volume while allowing the patient to trigger spontaneous
breaths at a rate and volume determined by the patient. Extra breaths are boosted with pressure support. Tidal Volume (Vt) is normally approximately 6-10 mL/kg and 4-6 ml/kg in the preterm.
Respiratory rate (RR) is usually 30-60 BPM. Tidal volume and respiratory rate are related
to respiratory minute volume as follows: Vm(mL/min) = Vt x RR .This baby is overventilated with a low CO2. Tidal volumes should generally be targeted at 4-6 ml/kg and this baby is being targeted at 9 ml/kg which exposes the baby to damage to the distal airways from this ventilation which can lead to bronchopulmonary dysplasia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. What is the most appropriate management for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age
Explanation:Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions does not typically display lesions of 20 cm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keratosis pilaris
Explanation:Keratosis pilaris most often affects the outer aspect of both upper arms. It may also occur on the thighs, buttocks and sides of the cheeks, and less often on the forearms and upper back. The distribution is symmetrical.
The scaly spots may appear skin coloured, red (keratosis pilaris rubra) or brown (hyperpigmented keratosis pilaris). They are not itchy or sore.Macules are flat, nonpalpable lesions usually < 10 mm in diameter.
Examples include freckles, flat moles, tattoos, and port-wine stains, and the rashes of rickettsial infections, rubella, measles (can also have papules and plaques), and some allergic drug eruptions.Papules are elevated lesions usually < 10 mm in diameter that can be felt or palpated. Examples include nevi, warts, lichen planus, insect bites, seborrheic keratoses, actinic keratoses, some lesions of acne, and skin cancers. Plaques are palpable lesions > 10 mm in diameter that are elevated or depressed compared to the skin surface. Plaques may be flat topped or rounded. Lesions of psoriasis and granuloma annulare commonly form plaques.
Nodules are firm papules or lesions that extend into the dermis or subcutaneous tissue. Examples include cysts, lipomas, and fibromas.
Vesicles are small, clear, fluid-filled blisters < 10 mm in diameter. Vesicles are characteristic of herpes infections, acute allergic contact dermatitis, and some autoimmune blistering disorders (e.g., dermatitis herpetiformis). Bullae are clear fluid-filled blisters > 10 mm in diameter. These may be caused by burns, bites, irritant contact dermatitis or allergic contact dermatitis, and drug reactions. Classic autoimmune bullous diseases include pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid. Bullae also may occur in inherited disorders of skin fragility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 37.2C and acute abdominal pain. He has previously undergone a splenectomy secondary to sickle cell disease. Clinically he is jaundiced. An ultrasound scan demonstrates a common bile duct diameter of 10mm.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impacted Gall Stone
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario provided, this patient most probably has impacted gall stones.
Gall stones in children can be caused by haematological diseases such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassemia.
Cholesterol stones are also becoming more prevalent. A dilated common bile duct (> 10mm in adults) suggests gall stone impaction.
The presence of pyrexia indicates cholecystitis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with a mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Which of the following statements regarding the breast is untrue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nipple retraction may occur as a result of tumour infiltration of the clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:Patients with breast cancer develop clinical symptoms rather late at advanced tumour stages. Typical signs may include:
Changes in breast size and/or shape; asymmetric breasts
Palpable mass: typically a single, nontender, firm mass with poorly defined margins, most commonly in the upper outer quadrant
Skin changes: Retractions or dimpling (due to tightening of the Cooper ligaments), Peau d’orange: skin resembling an orange peel (due to obstruction of the lymphatic channels): Redness, oedema, and pitting of the hair follicles
Nipple changes: inversion, blood-tinged discharge
Axillary lymphadenopathy: firm, enlarged lymph nodes (> 1 cm in size), that are fixed to the skin or surrounding tissue
In advanced stages: ulcerations -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A midwife calls you from the postnatal ward. A baby has been born to a mother who had not booked at the hospital. Her notes are not available and she does not speak English. However, her partner has managed to communicate that Zika virus had been confirmed in pregnancy. The midwife wants to know if it is safe for the mother to breastfeed the baby in the meantime.
What is the MOST appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Encourage breastfeeding
Explanation:Possible Zika virus infections have been identified in breastfeeding babies, but Zika virus transmission through breast milk has not been confirmed. Additionally, we do not yet know the long-term effects of Zika virus on young infants infected after birth. Because current evidence suggests that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of Zika virus spreading through breast milk, CDC continues to encourage mothers to breastfeed, even if they were infected or lived in or travelled to an area with risk of Zika.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presents with multiple non-healing ulcers, poor dentition, bleeding gums and pale conjunctivae. She also complains of easy fatiguability.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:The clinical scenario presented is highly suggestive of vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy).
Vitamin C is found in citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, Brussel sprouts, cauliflower, broccoli, cabbage and spinach.
Deficiency leads to impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue.
Scurvy is associated with severe malnutrition as well as drug and alcohol abuse, and those living in poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.Symptoms and signs include:
– Follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage
– Ecchymosis
– Gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums
– Sjogren’s syndrome
– Arthralgia
– Oedema
– Impaired wound healing
– Generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia and depression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 55
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breech presentation
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia (DDH) of the hip refers to patients who are born with a dislocated or unstable hip due to abnormal development of the hip. Female infants and first born infants are most likely to present with DDH. Other risk factors for DDH include, breech positioning, oligohydramnios, high birth weight or post date babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli are the most common cause of early sepsis
Explanation:Group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli are the most common cause of early sepsis. Group B Streptococcus (GBS), also known as Streptococcus agalactiae, is best known as a cause of postpartum infection and as the most common cause of neonatal sepsis.
The GBS organism colonizes the vagina, GI tract, and the upper respiratory tract of healthy humans. GBS infection is almost always associated with underlying abnormalities. In elderly persons aged 70 years or older, GBS infection is strongly linked with congestive heart failure and being bedridden.
Penicillin remains the drug of choice for group B streptococcal infection but resistance may occur. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 8 year old boy who had not wet his bed for the past 3 and half years, presented with bed wetting for 2 weeks. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:As this boy was dry for a considerable period, there is a high chance of a secondary cause for the bed wetting, such as bladder infections, constipation, diabetes, psychological stress and hormonal problems etc. These have to be excluded.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
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Question 58
Incorrect
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All of the following are features of tinea corporis EXCEPT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is less common on glabrous skin
Explanation:Tinea corporis is a type of dermatophytosis, caused by Trichophyton or Microsporum. The disease is highly contagious and rapidly spreads to all the areas of the body, including the glabrous skin. It produces an erythematous itchy skin rash with a central area of clearance surrounded by raised scaly borders. Lesions can appear as concentric circles that overlap, referred to as tinea imbricate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period -if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but is afebrile. Clinical examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen, however, the doctor does not detect any palpable masses. Which of the following should you exclude first?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Intussusception is an urgent condition that must be excluded first as it may lead to life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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Which of the following does the inferior mesenteric artery supply?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: From the splenic flexure to the first third of the rectum
Explanation:The coeliac axis supplies the liver and stomach and from the oesophagus to the first half of the duodenum.
The second half of the duodenum to the first two thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.
The inferior mesenteric supplies the last third of the transverse colon (approximately from the splenic flexure) to the first third of the rectum.
The last two thirds of the rectum are supplied by the middle rectal artery.
The greater curvature of the stomach is supplied by branches of the splenic artery, which itself comes from the coeliac axis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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Macrosomia is NOT commonly found in which of the following genetic abnormalities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Silver-Russell syndrome
Explanation:Macrosomia can be defined as either a birth weight greater than 4kg or birth weight greater than 90% for the gestational age. Risk factors for macrosomia include maternal diabetes, excessive gestational weight gain, pre-pregnancy obesity, male gender, ethnicity, and advanced gestational age. Genetic conditions associated with macrosomia are Bardet-Biedl syndrome, Perlman syndrome, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Silver-Russell syndrome is associated with intrauterine growth retardation and post-natal failure to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 8 year old girl with suspected patent foramen ovale, presented with her parents for the confirmation of the diagnosis. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transoesophageal Echocardiography
Explanation:A 3-dimensional transoesophageal echocardiography (3D TEE) provides direct visualization of the entire PFO anatomy and surrounding structures. It allows more accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A new-born infant deteriorates on the postnatal ward. The child is breathless with no murmurs, 3 cm liver edge, and poor femoral pulses. She is acidotic with elevated lactate. Mum did not attend the antenatal screening.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Coarctation of the aorta may be defined as a constricted aortic segment that comprises localized medial thickening, with some infolding of the medial and superimposed neointimal tissue.
The presence of associated defects and aortic arch anomalies, the extent of patency of the ductus arteriosus, the rapidity of the process of closure of the ductus arteriosus, and the level of pulmonary vascular resistance determine the timing of clinical presentation and the severity of symptoms. Young patients may present in the first few weeks of life with poor feeding, tachypnoea, and lethargy and progress to overt CHF and shock. These patients may have appeared well before hospital discharge, and deterioration coincides with closure of the patent ductus arteriosus. Presentation may be abrupt and acute with ductal closure.Neonates may be found to have tachypnoea, tachycardia, and increased work of breathing and may even be moribund with shock. Keys to the diagnosis include blood pressure (BP) discrepancies between the upper and lower extremities and reduced or absent lower extremity pulses to palpation. However, when the infant is in severe heart failure, all pulses are diminished.
The murmur associated with coarctation of the aorta may be nonspecific yet is usually a systolic murmur in the left infraclavicular area and under the left scapula. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 65
Incorrect
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Alexander is a developing and active 2 year old boy.
Which of the following commands would he be able to follow?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Point to three body parts
Explanation:A 2 year old child who is developing normally should be able to point to three body parts, identify familiar objects in his environment such as a crayon or a toy and follow simple instructions.
At 3 years old he should be able to copy a circle, jump up and down and name three colours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 1 week old baby boy is taken to the A&E department after a right sided groin swelling had been noticed. An examination is done and the testes are correctly located but there is a right sided inguinal hernia that is soft and easily reduced. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgery over the next few days
Explanation:Answer: Surgery over the next few days
Inguinal hernia is a type of ventral hernia that occurs when an intra-abdominal structure, such as bowel or omentum, protrudes through a defect in the abdominal wall. Inguinal hernias do not spontaneously heal and must be surgically repaired because of the ever-present risk of incarceration. Generally, a surgical consultation should be made at the time of diagnosis, and repair (on an elective basis) should be performed very soon after the diagnosis is confirmed.
The infant or child with an inguinal hernia generally presents with an obvious bulge at the internal or external ring or within the scrotum. The parents typically provide the history of a visible swelling or bulge, commonly intermittent, in the inguinoscrotal region in boys and inguinolabial region in girls.
The swelling may or may not be associated with any pain or discomfort. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presented with generalised excessive hair growth, especially on her limbs. Which one of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She is on phenytoin to control seizures
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are most likely due to phenytoin intake.
Note:
Hypertrichosis occurs in 5-12% of patients on phenytoin and is most prominent on the extremities.
Other options:
– Hypertrichosis is the excess hair growth, whereas hirsutism is the development of male-pattern-dependent hair growth, as seen in polycystic ovarian syndrome.
– A Becker’s naevus is associated with localised hypertrichosis in the naevus.
– Cyclosporine intake can typically lead to diffuse hair growth that begins within 2-4 weeks of starting the drug.
– Hereditary gingival fibromatosis is associated with variable hypertrichosis occurring on the eyebrows, face, limbs and mid-back. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 68
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is not associated with arachnodactyly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Tuner’s syndrome is not associated with arachnodactyly.
Arachnodactyly is seen in the following conditions:
– Marfan syndrome
– Homocystinuria
– Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
– Congenital contractural arachnodactylyOther rare syndromes include:
– Loeys-Dietz syndrome
– Antley-Bixler syndrome
– Marden-Walker syndrome
– Lujan-Frinz syndrome
– Haim-Munk syndrome
– Marden-Walker syndrome
– Spondylocostal dysostosis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 69
Incorrect
-
An 11-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after being assaulted with a baseball bat. The soft tissue around his left eye shows significant swelling that obstructs the child's vision. A CT scan shows a fracture at the floor of the left orbit. This injury will most likely lead to an abnormal communication between the orbit and which of the following areas of the face?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maxillary sinus
Explanation:The injury described in question leads to an abnormal communication between the orbit and the ipsilateral maxillary sinus – this is termed as a blow-out fracture of the orbit.
The maxillary sinuses are found in the maxillary bone, inferior to the orbit. They are the largest of the paranasal air sinuses. The maxillary bone forms the floor of the orbit. This layer of bone separates the orbit from the maxillary sinus. As such, fractures of the floor of the orbit can be associated with herniation of the orbital contents into the maxillary sinus.
Other options:
– The ethmoidal air cells are a collection of smaller air cells in the ethmoid bone. They lie lateral to the anterior superior nasal cavity. They are separated from the orbit by a very thin plate of ethmoid bone called the lamina papyracea, which is found on the medial wall of the orbit. The thin nature of this bone means it is commonly fractured in orbital trauma. However, this is the incorrect answer to the above question as a communication between the ethmoidal air cells, and the orbit is associated with fractures of the medial wall of the orbit, not the floor.
– The frontal sinuses are found in the frontal bones, above the orbits on each side of the head. A large portion of the roof of the orbit is composed of the frontal bone and separates the orbit from the frontal sinus. Fractures of the roof of the orbit can be associated with communication between the frontal sinus and orbit. The frontal bones are strong, and so fracture is associated with high-impact anterior trauma, such as a road traffic accident.
– The sphenoid sinuses are found in the posterior portion of the roof of the nasal cavity. The pituitary gland lies nestled within the hypophyseal fossa, with only a thin wall of bone separating it from the sphenoid sinus below. As such, neurosurgeons can gain access to the pituitary gland via the sphenoid sinus, in a procedure called transsphenoidal hypophysectomy.
– The nasal cavity extends from the nares to the nasopharynx. It is found more medial and inferior than the orbits. It does not lie adjacent to the orbit at any point and so is unlikely to be involved in an orbital fracture. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 70
Incorrect
-
A new treatment reduces blood pressure for hypertensive patients by 10 mmHg more than the current standard treatment (95% confidence interval minus 2 to 22).
Which of the following statements is most accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The difference is not statistically significant
Explanation:If the 95% confidence interval contains zero (more precisely, the parameter value specified in the null hypothesis), then the effect will not be significant at the 0.05 level.
If the 95% CI for the DIFFERENCE between the 2 groups contains the value 0, this means that the p-value will be greater than 0.05. Conversely, if the 95% CI does not contain the value 0, then the p-value will be strictly less than 0.05. The same applies when comparing groups using a ratio, such as an odds ratio or risk ratio. When using a RATIO instead of a DIFFERENCE, the situation of no difference between the 2 groups will be indicated by a value of 1 instead of 0. If the ratio equals to 1, the 2 groups are equal. Hence, if the 95% CI of the ratio contains the value 1, the p-value will be greater than 0.05. Alternatively, if the 95% CI does not contain the value 1, the p-value is strictly less than 0.05.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of malaise and inability to participate in physical activities due to exhaustion. His vitals, including the blood pressure are within the normal range and the labs are as follows:
sodium 145 mmol/l
potassium 2.8 mmol/l
bicarbonate 30 mmol/l
chloride 83 mmol/l (95-107)
magnesium 0.5 mmol/l (0.75-1.05)
glucose 5.0 mmol/l
renin 5.1 mmol/ml per h (3-4.3)
aldosterone 975 mmol/l (330-830)
urea 5.2 mmol/l.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gitelman's syndrome
Explanation:Gitelman syndrome is a kidney disorder that causes an imbalance of charged atoms (ions) in the body, including ions of potassium, magnesium, and calcium.
The signs and symptoms of Gitelman syndrome usually appear in late childhood or adolescence. Common features of this condition include painful muscle spasms (tetany), muscle weakness or cramping, dizziness, and salt craving. Also common is a tingling or prickly sensation in the skin (paraesthesia), most often affecting the face. Some individuals with Gitelman syndrome experience excessive tiredness (fatigue), low blood pressure, and a painful joint condition called chondrocalcinosis. Studies suggest that Gitelman syndrome may also increase the risk of a potentially dangerous abnormal heart rhythm called ventricular arrhythmia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 72
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother following complaints of fatigue. Considering a possible diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia, blood investigations, including a peripheral smear, were ordered. The reports confirmed iron deficiency anaemia. Which of the following abnormal red cell types is likely to be seen in the peripheral smear of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pencil cells
Explanation:A peripheral blood film in iron deficiency anaemia can reveal the following morphologically variant RBCs:
– Microcytic cells
– Hypochromic cells
– Pencil cells
– Target cells
Other options:
– Schistocytes can be caused by mechanical heart valves.
– Rouleaux can be seen in chronic liver disease and malignant lymphoma.
– Tear-drop poikilocytes can be seen in myelofibrosis.
– Acanthocytes can be seen in liver disease and McLeod blood group phenotype.Pathological red cell forms include:
– Target cells: Sickle-cell/thalassaemia, iron-deficiency anaemia, hyposplenism, and liver disease.
– Tear-drop poikilocytes: Myelofibrosis
– Spherocytes: Hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
– Basophilic stippling: Lead poisoning, thalassaemia, sideroblastic anaemia, and myelodysplasia
– Howell-Jolly bodies: Hyposplenism
– Heinz bodies: G6PD deficiency and alpha-thalassaemia
Schistocytes (‘helmet cells’): Intravascular haemolysis, mechanical heart valve, and disseminated intravascular coagulation
– Pencil poikilocytes: Iron deficiency anaemia
– Burr cells (echinocytes): Uraemia and pyruvate kinase deficiency
– Acanthocytes: Abetalipoproteinemia -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A term baby is born through thick meconium. The baby has not yet cried and is making no respiratory effort. The baby appears to be covered in thick particulate meconium.
What is the next most appropriate step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suction with wide-bore catheter under direct vision
Explanation:Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) refers to breathing problems that a new-born baby may have when:
– There are no other causes, and
– The baby has passed meconium (stool) into the amniotic fluid during labour or deliveryThe most recent guidelines are as follows:
– If the baby is vigorous (defined as having a normal respiratory effort and normal muscle tone), the baby may stay with the mother to receive the initial steps of new-born care. A bulb syringe can be used to gently clear secretions from the nose and mouth.– If the baby is not vigorous (defined as having a depressed respiratory effort or poor muscle tone), place the baby on a radiant warmer, clear the secretions with a bulb syringe, and proceed with the normal steps of new-born resuscitation (i.e., warming, repositioning the head, drying, and stimulating). If, after these initial steps are taken, the baby is still not breathing or the heart rate is below 100 beats per minute (bpm), administer positive pressure ventilation.
Resuscitation should follow the same principles for infants with meconium-stained fluid as for those with clear fluid
Continued care in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU):
Maintain an optimal thermal environment to minimize oxygen consumption.
Minimal handling is essential because these infants are easily agitated. Agitation can increase pulmonary hypertension and right-to-left shunting, leading to additional hypoxia and acidosis. Sedation may be necessary to reduce agitation.
An umbilical artery catheter should be inserted to monitor blood pH and blood gases without agitating the infant.
Continue respiratory care includes oxygen therapy via hood or positive pressure, and it is crucial in maintaining adequate arterial oxygenation. Mechanical ventilation is required by approximately 30% of infants with MAS. Make concerted efforts to minimize the mean airway pressure and to use as short an inspiratory time as possible. Oxygen saturations should be maintained at 90-95%.
Surfactant therapy is commonly used to replace displaced or inactivated surfactant and as a detergent to remove meconium. Although surfactant use does not appear to affect mortality rates, it may reduce the severity of disease, progression to extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) utilization, and decrease the length of hospital stay. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 74
Incorrect
-
Today was Jacob's birthday. This morning he woke up very excited and picked out a pair of shorts and t-shirt in his favourite colour, blue, with matching blue sandals. He brushed his teeth with supervision, and used the toilet by himself. He greeted each of his friends at the door with an excited jump. At the party he ran around and jumped on the small trampoline in the backyard with his friends. He tried to skip like some if his friends, but he wasn't able to do it as evenly.
How old is Jacob likely to be?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 years of age
Explanation:Jacob is likely to be four years old as demonstrated by his activities throughout the day. Most 4 year olds are able to run well, jump and hop, but find skipping a little more difficult. They are able to brush their teeth and dress themselves with supervision, and go to the toilet alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 75
Incorrect
-
The right testicular vein is the tributary of which of the following structures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The right testicular vein is a tributary of the inferior vena cava, while the left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein.
Note:
The testicular venous drainage begins in the septa and these veins together with those of the tunica vasculosa converge on the posterior border of the testis as the pampiniform plexus. The pampiniform plexus, in turn, drains to the testicular vein. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 76
Incorrect
-
A 5 month old boy presents with a history of one episode of green vomiting. Upon clinical examination, doctors notice an acutely swollen mass located in the groin, extending to the scrotum. What is the most probable diagnosis and what's the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia, analgesia, sedation and attempt to reduce
Explanation:An incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia presents with abdominal pain, bloating, nausea, vomiting, and intestinal obstruction. It is characterized by the appearance of a tender mass in the inguinal area. Manual reduction in children requires analgesia and sedation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 77
Incorrect
-
Which of the following movements will most likely be lost following an injury to the spinal part of the accessory nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Upward rotation of the scapula
Explanation:Cranial nerve XI is also known as the accessory nerve. The accessory nerve innervates the trapezius muscle which retracts the scapula. The upper and lower fibres act together to also upwardly rotate it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 78
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache, which is mostly frontal in location and occasionally associated with nausea.
He has been taking paracetamol 3 g daily, aspirin 300 mg thrice daily, and codeine 40 mg thrice daily, all of which have had only a temporary effect. He has a two year history of depression treated with paroxetine. No abnormalities were found on examination.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Analgesic misuse headache
Explanation:Because of the patient’s history of chronic analgesic use of daily paracetamol intake, the most likely diagnosis of this case is Analgesic misuse headache. In these cases, the headache is only temporarily relieved by analgesics. Treatment involves gradual withdrawal of analgesics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 79
Incorrect
-
The blood supply to which of the following structures is NOT compromised due to an occlusion in the anterior cerebral artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brocas area
Explanation:Broca’s area is usually supplied by branches from the middle cerebral artery and thus will be spared when the anterior cerebral artery is occluded.
Note:
The two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries form an anastomosis known as the Circle of Willis on the inferior surface of the brain. Each half of the circle is formed by:
1. Anterior communicating artery
2. Anterior cerebral artery
3. Internal carotid artery
4. Posterior communicating artery
5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon and midbrain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 80
Incorrect
-
A term baby is admitted to NICU from the postnatal ward following a large green vomit. The baby was born by forceps delivery following non-reassuring CTG trace. There was meconium-stained liquor just before delivery. Respiratory rate is 60/min, heart rate is 180/min and oxygen saturations are 94% in room air. On examination baby appears quiet with mild nasal flaring. There are no other signs of increased work of breathing. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Femoral pulses are palpable bilaterally. CRT is <2 seconds centrally and baby feels warm peripherally. Abdomen is slightly distended and baby desaturates to 80% on abdominal palpation.
What is the most important diagnostic test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Upper GI contrast study
Explanation:Bilious (green) gastric aspirate or emesis indicates that the intestines are obstructed below the ampulla of Vater.
Gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is actually considered an essential diagnostic and therapeutic technique. Upper GI endoscopy in neonatal age allows for exploration of the oesophagus, stomach and duodenum; instead lower GI endoscopy easily reaches the sigmoid-colon junction. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 81
Incorrect
-
A pregnant woman that already has a son with haemophilia A, wants to know the chances of her next unborn child having the same condition.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Haemophilia A has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that is a 50% chance of having a son with haemophilia and 50% chance of the daughters being carriers of the haemophilia gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 82
Incorrect
-
The parents of a 5 year old child with cystic fibrosis present at the clinic with concerns over having another child.
Neither of them have cystic fibrosis, and they would like to know what the chances are of their next child being a carrier of the cystic fibrosis gene.
What is the probability of this occurring?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder that affects the lungs or the pancreas. In the case of an affected child whose parents do not have the disorder but carry one copy of the mutated gene, each sibling has a 50% chance of being a carrier of the disease. They can inherit one copy of the gene from each parent. There is a 25 % chance that the child may inherit both mutated genes and be homozygous for the trait.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 83
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash appeared a few days after an upper respiratory infection and was associated with persistent haematuria. Renal biopsy revealed immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits are seen more commonly in HSP compared to IgA nephropathy.
The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP).
It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.
It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls.
Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection A.
A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 84
Incorrect
-
One of the main disadvantages of case control studies is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The potential for recall bias
Explanation:Case control studies are observational studies which retrospectively determine whether a patient might have been exposed to a risk factor for a certain disease, as compared to a control group from the general population. They can be used for a range of outcomes as well as rare diseases. One of the biggest problems with this type of study is recall bias. Research subjects may selectively remember factors that are more predictive of the disease outcome when compared to the control group. All studies should have prior power calculations before the study commences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 85
Incorrect
-
Neurofibromatosis is characterised by which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scoliosis
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis (aka Von Recklinghausen’s disease) includes: neurofibrosarcomas, pheochromocytoma, optic nerve tumours, scoliosis and acoustic neuromas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 86
Incorrect
-
What is embryological origin of the pulmonary artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sixth pharyngeal arch
Explanation:There are 6 pharyngeal arches, the fifth does not contribute any useful structures and often fuses with the sixth arch. The structures arising from the aortic arches are as follows:
First aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part that gives rise to the maxillary artery.
Second aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part giving rise to the stapedial artery.
Third aortic arch: This arch is the source of the common carotid artery and the proximal part of the internal carotid artery, and the external carotid which arises as a bud from this arch.
Right Fourth aortic arch: Is the genesis of the proximal part of the right subclavian artery.
Left Fourth aortic arch: Gives rise to the medial portion of the arch of the aorta.
Fifth aortic arch: The fifth aortic arch regresses completely and very early in the development.
Sixth aortic arch: Either of the sixth aortic arches divides into ventral and dorsal segments, and therefore, their derivatives also divide into these two segments.
Right Sixth Arch:
Ventral: Gives rise to the right pulmonary artery.
Dorsal: It degenerates completely and loses its connection with the dorsal aorta.
Left Sixth Arch
Ventral: It gives rise to the left pulmonary artery that goes to the left pulmonary bud.
Dorsal: It forms a vital connection during intrauterine life between the left pulmonary artery and the arch of the aorta. This structure is called ductus arteriosus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 87
Incorrect
-
What are the chances of offspring developing cystic fibrosis if one of the parents, more specifically the mother, is suffering from the disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depends on genetic makeup of partner
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that a person might be a carrier of the disease without developing it. If the unaffected partner is a carrier, then there is a 50% chance of inheritance and another 50% chance of having a child who is a carrier. However, if the partner is not a carrier, the offspring will not develop the disease but the possibility of being a carrier raises up to 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
A young male sustains a skull-base fracture at the middle cranial fossa which injures his right abducent (VI) nerve.
Which signs are most likely to be present on clinical examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient is unable to deviate his right eye laterally
Explanation:Cranial nerve VI, also known as the abducent nerve, innervates the ipsilateral lateral rectus (LR), which functions to abduct the ipsilateral eye.
Patients usually present with an isolated abduction deficit, binocular horizontal diplopia, worse in the distance, and esotropia in primary gaze. Patients also may present with a head-turn to maintain binocularity and binocular fusion and to minimize diplopia
Examination for a sixth nerve palsy involves documenting the presence or absence of papilledema, examining the ocular motility, evaluating the eyelids and pupils, and excluding involvement of other cranial nerves (e.g., V, VII, VIII). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 89
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions are most commonly associated with pruritus:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Itchy skin conditions include:
Allergy & anaphylaxis
Athletes foot
Atopic dermatitis
Contact dermatitis
Drug allergy
Erythema multiforme
Folliculitis
Impetigo
Insect bites, stings, infestations
Kawasaki disease
Lichen planus
Nummular eczema
Pityriasis rosea
Psoriasis
Scabies
Tinea corporis
Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Urticaria
Varicella
Viral exanthem
Note: Miliaria rubra is itchy, miliaria profunda usually isn’t. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 90
Incorrect
-
Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur
Explanation:ASD is an acyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by the failure of the interatrial septum to form completely, which results in the mixing of left and right-sided blood. There are various types of ASD, some of them are ostium primum septal defect and patent foramen ovale. Clinical findings associated with ASD are a systolic ejection murmur, fixed splitting of second heart sound, prolonged PR interval, both left and right axis deviation (primum and secundum ASD, respectively). The most common finding is an incomplete right bundle branch block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 91
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl presents with symptoms of diabetes mellitus and a borderline fasting blood glucose. Her HBA1c was found to be 31 mmol/mol (5.0%).
What is the most probable co-existing condition that can lead to these unusual HBA1c levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Explanation:HbA1c stands for glycated haemoglobin. In patients with haemolytic diseases associated with a shortened RBC survival, HbA1c levels can be unusually low despite controlled diabetes mellitus.
These haemolytic diseases can include glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency and sickle cell anaemia.HbA1c:
It is a measure of non-enzymatic glycation which occurs due to haemoglobin’s exposure to plasma glucose. As plasma glucose increases so does HbA1c.
The level of HbA1c quantitively assesses the control of diabetes mellitus over the last 120 days (as this is the life span of a red blood cell).Haemoglobin type A is separated on cation exchange chromatography
Other subsections include HbA1O, HbA1a, HbA1b.According to the updated NICE recommendations (2015):
The target level of HbA1c in children with T1DM is 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower. It is monitored every three months. Better control is associated with fewer long term complications -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 92
Incorrect
-
A 5-month-old baby was brought by the mother for assessment. The baby can sit with support but not on his own. On examination, there is palmar grasp. How is the current development of this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal
Explanation:All the given development milestones are compatible with the given age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest examination reveals reduced breath sounds on one side. Radiological examination shows occlusion of the airway by an aspirated foreign body. The foreign body is most likely lodged in which of the following locations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right mainstem bronchus
Explanation:Foreign body aspiration (FBA) commonly occurs in children aged 1-3 years. FBA typically presents with sudden onset of coughing and choking, followed by stridor and dyspnoea. Obstruction of the larynx or trachea is a potentially life-threatening situation that causes severe respiratory distress, cyanosis, and suffocation. Most commonly, the foreign body (FB) becomes lodged in the main and intermediate bronchi; approx. 60% of FB are located in the right main bronchus due to the more vertical orientation compared to the left main bronchus.
Reduced breath sounds on the one side only would not be explained by a tracheal obstruction as it would cause reduced breath sounds bilaterally and a more severe clinical picture. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
Persistent pulmonary hypertension is NOT a recognized complication of which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duct dependent congenital heart disease
Explanation:Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born is secondary to the failure of normal circulatory transition at birth, leading to an abnormally high pulmonary vascular resistance. This elevated resistance causes right-to-left shunting of blood and hypoxemia. It can be caused by parenchymal lung diseases (meconium aspiration syndrome, pneumonia or ARDS), lung hypoplasia (like occurring in oligohydramnios or diaphragmatic hernia), or it can be idiopathic. Other possible causes include maternal indomethacin use, group B streptococcal septicaemia, and high-pressure ventilation. Duct dependent congenital heart disease does not lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
A 5-month-old baby is referred with a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows diffuse eczema on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scabies
Explanation:Scabies infection in neonates typically manifests as nodular eruptions involving the face, neck, scalp, palms, and soles in contrast to the predominant involvement of the hands, wrists, elbows, and ankles in adults. Differential diagnoses for the nodular eruption in neonates are broad, and scabies often is misdiagnosed as Langerhans cell histiocytosis, urticaria pigmentosa, or another pruritic, bullous, or lymphoproliferative dermatosis. Histopathology of the reactive nodules usually is not diagnostic, because scabetic organisms are often unidentified and histologic findings are nonspecific. Furthermore, because of the atypical presentation, scabies in children is often missed until persons in close contact with the child present with similar symptoms. Thus, a thorough history and close follow-up are crucial to avoid misdiagnosis and unnecessary aggressive treatment. Moreover, synchronized treatment of patients and their close contacts is needed to ensure the success of therapy, considering that relapse is 2-3 times more frequent in children and infants
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 6 month old female is brought by her parents who are concerned regarding her development. Which of the following is expected of developmental milestones at this age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They enjoy playing with their parents
Explanation:6 month old babies that go through normal developmental milestones, should enjoy playing with others and especially their parents.
The other milestones are expected of a 9-month-old. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 97
Incorrect
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Which of the following maternal factors is associated with oligohydramnios?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maternal thrombotic disorder
Explanation:Oligohydramnios is a deficiency in the amniotic fluid volume, measured via ultrasound. Maternal factors associated with oligohydramnios include conditions where there is placental insufficiency such as chronic hypertension, preeclampsia or a thrombotic disorder, post-term pregnancy, premature rupture of membranes, certain chromosomal abnormalities, and obstructions of the foetal urinary tract. On the other hand conditions that are associated with polyhydramnios (excess amniotic fluid) include maternal diabetes, multiple gestations, Rh incompatibility and pulmonary abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 6 year old girl with a history of polyuria and polydipsia undergoes a water deprivation test. Previous urine dipstick results were negative for blood, glucose, or protein. The test is started and once the girl loses 3% of her body weight, her serum osmolarity is more than 300 whereas her urine osmolarity is less than 300. Doctors administer desmopressin but osmolarity levels do not change. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
Explanation:Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus is an acquired or hereditary condition that affects the water balance. It presents with polyuria and polydipsia, leading commonly to dehydration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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Question 100
Incorrect
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In X linked dominant inheritance, what is the chance of an affected father's daughter inheriting the condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100%
Explanation:In the pattern of mendelian inheritance, X- linked dominant inheritance means that all who inherit the X chromosome will present with the condition. In the case of maternal x-linked inheritance sons and daughters have an equal chance of inheriting the condition as there is a 50% chance of inheriting the defective X chromosome from their mother as opposed to a non affected X chromosome from their father. However in paternal X-linked dominant inheritance, sons will be unaffected as they inherit a Y chromosome from their father while daughters are sure to inherit the defective X-chromosome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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