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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old child who is undergoing assisted ventilation following traumatic brain injury develops new-onset bradycardia and hypertension.
Which of the following can improve his current condition?Your Answer: 0.9% saline infusion
Correct Answer: Mannitol 20%
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following does NOT cause benign intracranial hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:Benign intracranial hypertension is characterized by an elevation of the CSF pressure that is not caused by hydrocephalus or any space-occupying lesion. The cause is most likely the decreased absorption of CSF into the dural sinuses. The main symptoms are headache and visual abnormalities. It can lead to blindness if not managed on time. The most important risk factors for BIH are female gender and obesity. The causes of BIH include iron deficiency anaemia, sarcoidosis, Lyme disease, SLE, polycythaemia vera, chronic kidney disease, meningitis, and sleep apnoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 3
Incorrect
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As the junior doctor on duty you are called to see a 4 year old boy who is has been experiencing intermittent temperature spikes of 38.7C throughout the night. He underwent a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated appendix four days ago, and has opened his bowels with diarrhoea. His chest is clear on examination.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his condition?Your Answer: Lower lobe pneumonia
Correct Answer: Intra-abdominal collection
Explanation:Perforated appendices are common in children as it is more difficult to surgically assess an unwell child due to poor localisation of abdominal pain, and their inability to express discomfort. They are therefore prone to a greater risk of post operative complications including would infections, intra abdominal fluid collections, and chest infections. In the above scenario the spiking temperature points to an abscess, which characteristically presents with a swinging temperature. The fever is unlikely due to bacterial resistance as blood tests performed post surgery would have indicated any resistance, and a UTI is also unlikely since the child is already on antibiotics. As his chest is clinically clear, a severe chest infection may be ruled out, leaving intra-abdominal collection as the most likely explanation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Food
Explanation:In children, food-induced anaphylaxis is the most common trigger and accounts for 37 %-85 % of cases, whereas insect bites/stings account for 5 %-13 % and medications account for 5 %-12 %
Despite differences between studies, food allergy is clearly the most common cause of anaphylaxis in children -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 37.2C and acute abdominal pain. He has previously undergone a splenectomy secondary to sickle cell disease. Clinically he is jaundiced. An ultrasound scan demonstrates a common bile duct diameter of 10mm.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impacted Gall Stone
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario provided, this patient most probably has impacted gall stones.
Gall stones in children can be caused by haematological diseases such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassemia.
Cholesterol stones are also becoming more prevalent. A dilated common bile duct (> 10mm in adults) suggests gall stone impaction.
The presence of pyrexia indicates cholecystitis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the main mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:The progesterone is primarily responsible for preventing pregnancy. The main mechanism of action is the prevention of ovulation; they inhibit follicular development and prevent ovulation. Progestogen negative feedback works at the hypothalamus to decreases the pulse frequency of gonadotropin-releasing hormone. This, in turn, will decrease the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and decreases the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH). If the follicle isn’t developing, then there is no increase in the oestradiol levels (the follicle makes oestradiol). The progestogen negative feedback and lack of oestrogen positive feedback on LH secretion stop the mid-cycle LH surge. With no follicle developed and no LH surge to release the follicle, there is the prevention of ovulation. Oestrogen has some effect with inhibiting follicular development because of its negative feedback on the anterior pituitary with slows FSH secretion; it’s just not as prominent as the progesterone’s effect. Another primary mechanism of action is progesterone’s ability to inhibit sperm from penetrating through the cervix and upper genital tract by making the cervical mucous unfriendly. Progesterone induced endometrial atrophy should deter implantation, but there is no proof that this occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 3 year old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to burning micturition, frequency and urgency. She is also experiencing some suprapubic tenderness. Which of the following investigations should be done initially?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clean catch of urine for Culture &Sensitivity
Explanation:Urine culture and sensitivity is used to diagnose a urinary tract infection (UTI). A mid-stream clean catch urine sample is the most common type of sample collected. It is important to follow the clean catch process to have accurate results from an uncontaminated sample. Urine cultures can also check for infections of the bladder or kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 1-week history of headaches, nasal congestion, and facial pain which becomes worse upon leaning forward. Assuming that she's suffering from sinusitis, which sinus is most commonly the site of infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maxillary
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is maxillary sinusitis.
The maxillary sinus drains from its superior aspect, leaving it prone to infections. It is the most commonly affected sinus in sinusitis.
Common symptoms of maxillary sinusitis include postnasal discharge, pain, headache and toothache.
Radiological imaging may show a fluid level in the antrum.
Common organisms causing maxillary sinusitis include Haemophilus influenzae or Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Treatment with antral lavage may facilitate diagnosis and relieve symptoms. Antimicrobial therapy has to be continued for long periods. Antrostomy may be needed.Other options:
– Frontal sinusitis more commonly causes intracranial complications, but it is still less frequent than maxillary sinusitis.
– The petrosal sinus is not a cavity within bone; rather, it is a venous structure located beneath the brain.
– Frontoethmoidal sinusitis: It usually presents with frontal headache, nasal obstruction and altered sense of smell. Inflammation may progress to involve periorbital tissues. Ocular symptoms may occur, and secondary CNS involvement brought about by infection entering via emissary veins. CT scanning is the imaging modality of choice. Early cases may be managed with antibiotics. More severe cases usually require surgical drainage. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An infant of 2 months is diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect. This congenital anomaly is most likely due to a developmental failure of which embryological structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endocardial cushions
Explanation:The heart is the first organ to form and become functional, emphasizing the importance of transport of material to and from the developing infant. It originates about day 18 or 19 from the mesoderm and begins beating and pumping blood about day 21 or 22. It forms from the cardiogenic region near the head and is visible as a prominent heart bulge on the surface of the embryo. Originally, it consists of a pair of strands called cardiogenic cords that quickly form a hollow lumen and are referred to as endocardial tubes. These then fuse into a single heart tube and differentiate into the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive ventricle, primitive atrium, and sinus venosus, starting about day 22. The primitive heart begins to form an S shape within the pericardium between days 23 and 28. The internal septa begin to form about day 28, separating the heart into the atria and ventricles, although the foramen ovale persists until shortly after birth. Between weeks five and eight, the atrioventricular valves form. The semilunar valves form between weeks five and nine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl was accompanied by her mother to the hospital due to a change in speech, which is now an indistinct nasal speech. She is always tired by day, has restless sleep and even snores at night. What is the best management strategy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT surgeon
Explanation:Adenoid tissue sometimes swell as a result of fighting off the infection as germs are trapped in the adenoids. Adenoid enlargement is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the risk of an affected mother's son inheriting the disease condition in an X-liked dominant condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:In the pattern of mendelian inheritance, X- linked dominant inheritance means that all who inherit the X chromosome will present with the condition. In the case of maternal x-linked inheritance, sons and daughters have an equal chance of inheriting the condition as there is a 50% chance of inheriting the defective X chromosome from their mother as opposed to a non affected X chromosome from their father. However, in paternal X-linked dominant inheritance, sons will be unaffected as they inherit a Y chromosome from their father while daughters are sure to inherit the defective X-chromosome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A woman gives birth to a baby at 36 weeks of gestation through spontaneous, vaginal delivery. She had rupture of membranes 30 hours before birth, however looked healthy and did not receive antibiotics. On admission, doctors obtained a vaginal swab.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management for the baby?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results
Explanation:Doctors must perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results to prevent neonatal sepsis. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of the membranes.
Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of membranes greater than 12-24 hours, intrapartum maternal pyrexia (> 38°C), fetal tachycardia, chorioamnionitis, pre-term birth and maternal colonisation with group B Streptococcus. In this case there are two risk factors: prolonged rupture of membranes, and pre-term birth. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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All of the given options are examples of neonatal cyanotic congenital heart disease EXCEPT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome
Explanation:Cyanotic congenital heart disease (CCHD) is a common cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality. They can be classified as CCHD due to:
– Right-to-left shunt, associated with the decreased pulmonary flow, e.g., tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), pulmonary atresia, right-sided hypoplastic heart,
– Right-to-left shunt, associated with the decreased aortic flow, e.g., left-sided hypoplastic heart, interrupted arch, severe coarctation;
– Bidirectional shunt, e.g., TGA, DORV, TA, etc.
Eisenmenger syndrome is not a neonatal CCHD; rather it develops later in young adulthood secondary to various CHD. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is embryological origin of the pulmonary artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sixth pharyngeal arch
Explanation:There are 6 pharyngeal arches, the fifth does not contribute any useful structures and often fuses with the sixth arch. The structures arising from the aortic arches are as follows:
First aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part that gives rise to the maxillary artery.
Second aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part giving rise to the stapedial artery.
Third aortic arch: This arch is the source of the common carotid artery and the proximal part of the internal carotid artery, and the external carotid which arises as a bud from this arch.
Right Fourth aortic arch: Is the genesis of the proximal part of the right subclavian artery.
Left Fourth aortic arch: Gives rise to the medial portion of the arch of the aorta.
Fifth aortic arch: The fifth aortic arch regresses completely and very early in the development.
Sixth aortic arch: Either of the sixth aortic arches divides into ventral and dorsal segments, and therefore, their derivatives also divide into these two segments.
Right Sixth Arch:
Ventral: Gives rise to the right pulmonary artery.
Dorsal: It degenerates completely and loses its connection with the dorsal aorta.
Left Sixth Arch
Ventral: It gives rise to the left pulmonary artery that goes to the left pulmonary bud.
Dorsal: It forms a vital connection during intrauterine life between the left pulmonary artery and the arch of the aorta. This structure is called ductus arteriosus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 15
Incorrect
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When sampling patients for a clinical trial the most important thing is that:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They are a random and representative sample
Explanation:The selection process is based on five requirements and essentially aims to select a random representative cohort through:
1.Isolating a group for which there is a greater or lesser chance of detecting a possible difference between the treatments compared;
2.Establishing a homogeneous group in order to reduce the variability of response, thus making statistical comparison more sensitive and decreasing the risk of bias due to the constitution of non-homogeneous groups;
3.Obtaining representative samples of the affection studied;
4.Defining the rules corresponding to realistic recruitment;
5.Respecting ethical obligations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema and a new vaccine for yellow fever. What is the usual outcome measure in a case-control study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Odds ratio
Explanation:A case-control study (also known as case-referent study) is a type of observational study in which two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some supposed causal attribute. Case-control studies are often used to identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have that condition/disease (the cases) with patients who do not have the condition/disease but are otherwise similar (the controls).
An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. The odds ratio is defined as the ratio of the odds of A in the presence of B and the odds of A in the absence of B or vice versa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their child has growth and pubertal delay. His father also had a similar pattern of growth and is as short as a teenager. Currently, he is on the 2nd centile for height, with delayed adrenarche and gonadarche. in order to confirm the most likely diagnosis, which of the following investigations would be the most useful?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wrist X-ray for bone age
Explanation:A bone age study helps doctors estimate the maturity of a child’s skeletal system. It’s usually done by taking a single X-ray of the left wrist, hand, and fingers. It is a safe and painless procedure that uses a small amount of radiation. The bones on the X-ray image are compared with X-rays images in a standard atlas of bone development, which is based on data from large numbers of other kids of the same gender and age. The bone age is measured in years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the most common presenting feature of Wilms tumour?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal mass
Explanation:The most common manifestation of Wilms tumour is an asymptomatic abdominal mass; an abdominal mass occurs in 80% of children at presentation. Abdominal pain or haematuria occurs in 25%. Urinary tract infection and varicocele are less common findings than these. Hypertension, gross haematuria, and fever are observed in 5-30% of patients. A few patients with haemorrhage into their tumour may present with hypotension, anaemia, and fever. Rarely, patients with advanced disease may present with respiratory symptoms related to lung metastases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of multiple red lesions, elevated temperature and pain in multiple joints all over the body. Her symptoms started after her return from a school summer camp. On examination, she was found to have features of facial nerve injury.
Her mother observes that the rash was initially small but later transformed into a ring-like lesion. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for the child's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:The presentation of the patient and the characteristic ring-like (Bull’s eye) rash are highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. The spirochete is transmitted by Ixodid ticks.
The initial presentation of this infection includes an erythema migrans rash that starts from the site of tick bite and gradually expands. Other features supporting the diagnosis are the history of camping, fever, joint pain, and the neurological symptoms presenting as facial nerve palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Two boys were playing when one of them brought the forearm of the other behind his back. This resulted in a stretching of the lateral rotator of the arm. Which of the following muscles was most likely to have been involved?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infraspinatus
Explanation:There are two lateral rotators of the arm, the infraspinatus and the teres minor muscles. The infraspinatus muscle receives nerve supply from C5 and C6 via the suprascapular nerve, whilst the teres minor is supplied by C5 via the axillary nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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The following is true of power calculations for comparison of a numerical measurement between the two groups:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Should be performed before the study commences
Explanation:Power calculations are a important step in study design and preparation, but do not directly help with the interpretation of the results. They are used to determine how many subjects are needed in order to avoid errors in accepting or rejecting the null hypothesis. These calculations are not usually complex and for the best results, the power of the test should be set to above 80%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A young male sustains a skull-base fracture at the middle cranial fossa which injures his right abducent (VI) nerve.
Which signs are most likely to be present on clinical examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient is unable to deviate his right eye laterally
Explanation:Cranial nerve VI, also known as the abducent nerve, innervates the ipsilateral lateral rectus (LR), which functions to abduct the ipsilateral eye.
Patients usually present with an isolated abduction deficit, binocular horizontal diplopia, worse in the distance, and esotropia in primary gaze. Patients also may present with a head-turn to maintain binocularity and binocular fusion and to minimize diplopia
Examination for a sixth nerve palsy involves documenting the presence or absence of papilledema, examining the ocular motility, evaluating the eyelids and pupils, and excluding involvement of other cranial nerves (e.g., V, VII, VIII). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is a potentially blinding disease if not managed adequately.
Which of the following is a complication of ROP in an infant?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Retinopathy of prematurity affects infants born early, and is due to the abnormal growth of retinal vasculature as opposed to vascular occlusion often see in adults. Though most babies with ROP can see normally, the most significant complication of ROP Is retinal detachment which can lead to blindness. Other structures in the eye such as the optic nerve or the fovea however, are not affected. Children may develop nystagmus as a result of poor sight in the affected eye(s).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a gonadal or sexual differentiation disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: XXX (Triple X Syndrome)
Explanation:The correct answer is triple X syndrome with a genotype of XXX and an almost normal female phenotype. The extra X chromosome is inactive.
The final phenotype of an individual is determined after normal sexual and gonadal differentiation, a process that involves several genes located on chromosomes X and Y. Disorders of sexual differentiation result in cases of ambiguous genitalia and are caused by a number of genetic abnormalities. Among these disorders is the turner syndrome with a genotype of 45X0, characterized by gonadal dysgenesis and ovarian failure.
DAX-1 gene mutation leads to congenital adrenal hypoplasia and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, which results in virilization of female external genitalia.
Campomelic dysplasia results from mutation of the SOX-9 gene, leading to 46XY sex reversal.
Danys-Drash syndrome is characterized by disordered sexual development in affected males due to the mutated WT-1 gene, which also causes Wilm’s tumour. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A study done on a group of epileptics records the numbers of seizures in the weeks before and after a dietary intervention.
The decrease in seizures is on average 20. (95% CI=15 to 25; P=0.0024)
Which of the following options is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: This is a before and after study with no control group and so the results should be viewed with great caution
Explanation:While the results of this before and after study can provide some preliminary insight into the effects of the dietary intervention, the results should be viewed with great caution as they may be considered merely anecdotal. The lack of a control group contributes to confounding the data. Therefore, while the difference may be statistically significant and the confidence interval is compatible with a fall in the number of seizures after therapy, the results cannot be introduced as the standard without a control group to compare with.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right leg. He is otherwise well with no fever or history of trauma. Clinical examination reveals limited limb motion due to the pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Perthes’ disease is a disease of the hip in children. It presents with pain that is typically located in the groin area. The pain is often present only during physical activity. Most children seek medical attention because of limping.
Osgood-Schlatter disease is pain caused by inflammation of the patella tendon at the tibial insertion.
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis occurs classically in adolescence (M:F = 3:2)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct for distal renal tubular acidosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Children can present with nephrocalcinosis
Explanation:Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes Ca and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria, thus precipitating calcium compounds in the kidney. Other consequences of the dRTA in children include rickets, hypokalaemia, and polyuria. While dRTA can occur as a result of various pathologies including autoimmune disease, proximal renal tubular acidosis often presents as part of Fanconi’s syndrome. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA offering the child an acid load will decrease the urinary ph whereas in distal disease the pH will be unaffected due to impairment in hydrogen ion secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy hit his head on a pole on the school playground. His friends noted that he lost consciousness for a few seconds. The school nurse sent him to the Emergency Department as he had a small nasal bleed that stopped spontaneously. In the intervening two hours, he has noticed a watery discharge from his nose. On examination, there is considerable bruising on his nose and forehead, he was complaining of a headache. Which is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Basilar skull fracture
Explanation:Orbital bone fracture: The child has sustained a head injury and subsequently describes a CSF rhinorrhoea (indicating a cerebro-spinal fluid leak). CSF rhinorrhoea can occur in skull or nasal bone fractures. Given the symptoms of loss of consciousness and headache, this child is more at risk of having suffered a skull fracture requiring emergency CT head investigation and specialist neurosurgical management. An ethmoid bone fracture may also present this way. A skull x ray would help to determine an air fluid level and indeed allow some visualisation of the nasal bones, though in children the nasal bones do not visualise well due to lack of fusion. Either way this child would need assessment in the nearest Emergency Department and the school would be expected to follow a ‘head injury’ protocol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with a mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Which of the following statements regarding the breast is untrue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nipple retraction may occur as a result of tumour infiltration of the clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:Patients with breast cancer develop clinical symptoms rather late at advanced tumour stages. Typical signs may include:
Changes in breast size and/or shape; asymmetric breasts
Palpable mass: typically a single, nontender, firm mass with poorly defined margins, most commonly in the upper outer quadrant
Skin changes: Retractions or dimpling (due to tightening of the Cooper ligaments), Peau d’orange: skin resembling an orange peel (due to obstruction of the lymphatic channels): Redness, oedema, and pitting of the hair follicles
Nipple changes: inversion, blood-tinged discharge
Axillary lymphadenopathy: firm, enlarged lymph nodes (> 1 cm in size), that are fixed to the skin or surrounding tissue
In advanced stages: ulcerations -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child presents with a history of headache and a tonic-clonic seizure that lasted for three minutes. The doctor measures the blood pressure in all four limbs which is 180 mmHg. His creatinine is 60 μmol/l and he looks dehydrated. The kidneys look small and echogenic on ultrasound. Which of the following steps is most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ophthalmology assessment is indicated
Explanation:The child requires frequent BP evaluation every 15 to 30 minutes. Normalisation of his BP should be achieved in a 48h interval. An ophthalmology assessment is indicated to check for acute injury of the blood vessels in the eye due to the elevated blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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In an age and sex matched case control study, 30 adolescents with high blood pressure were compared to 30 controls from the same clinic. The mean birth weights of the two groups were compared using a paired t-test. The results indicated that the control group was 150 g heavier with a standard error of 100 g.
Which one of these is the most appropriate conclusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:In case control studies, observational studies are made to compare two groups, individuals with a certain condition, to those without the condition, with all other factors being equal. In the situation presented by the question, the study was to determine whether a prior risk factor, a low birth weight, was associated with later developing adolescent hypertension, using a paired t-test to statistically determine whether there was indeed a significant association between the two conditions. Case control studies only help to draw associations between two groups and therefore cannot indicate causation. In this scenario we are also not given the p value to determine whether the association is statistically significant. Therefore there is not enough evidence to conclude whether or not birthweight affects the development of adolescent hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 32
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old teenager is undergoing a thoracoscopic sympathectomy for axillary hyperhidrosis.
Which one of the following structures is divided to access the sympathetic trunk?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parietal pleura
Explanation:The sympathetic chain lies posterior to the parietal pleura. During a thorascopic sympathectomy, this structure will have to be divided.
The intercostal vessels lie posteriorly. They may be damaged with troublesome bleeding but otherwise are best left alone as the deliberate division will not improve surgical access.The sympathetic nervous system:
The cell bodies of the preganglionic efferent neurones lie in the lateral horn of the grey matter of the spinal cord in the thoracolumbar regions.
The preganglionic efferents leave the spinal cord at levels T1-L2. These pass to the sympathetic chain.
Lateral branches of the sympathetic chain connect it to every spinal nerve. These postganglionic nerves will pass to structures that receive sympathetic innervation at the periphery.
Sympathetic chains:
These lie on the vertebral column and run from the base of the skull to the coccyx.Clinical correlation:
Interruption of the head and neck supply of the sympathetic nerves will result in an ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome.
For the treatment of hyperhidrosis, the sympathetic denervation can be achieved by removing the second and third thoracic ganglia with their rami.
Removal of T1 will cause a Horner’s syndrome and is therefore not performed.
In patients with vascular disease of the lower limbs, lumbar sympathectomy may be performed, either radiologically or (more rarely now) surgically. The ganglia of L2 and below are disrupted.
Care should be taken to preserve the L1 ganglion. If it is removed in male patients, ejaculation may be compromised. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals
Explanation:Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy suffers a blow to the right side of his head with a hammer. On arrival at the emergency department, he is pronounced dead. Post-mortem findings will show which of the following features?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laceration of the middle meningeal artery
Explanation:An epidural hematoma occurs when there is bleeding between the dura mater (a tough fibrous layer of tissue between the brain and skull) and the skull bone. These occur when arteries are torn as a result of a blow to the head, and injury in the temple area is a common cause. Although the pattern of a lucid interval followed by later neurological symptoms is characteristic, only a minority of patients display this pattern of symptoms. Reported death rates from epidural hematoma vary widely, ranging from 5% to over 40%. Middle meningeal artery is frequently involved in such incidents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 35
Incorrect
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The parents of a 5 year old child with cystic fibrosis present at the clinic with concerns over having another child.
Neither of them have cystic fibrosis, and they would like to know what the chances are of their next child being a carrier of the cystic fibrosis gene.
What is the probability of this occurring?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder that affects the lungs or the pancreas. In the case of an affected child whose parents do not have the disorder but carry one copy of the mutated gene, each sibling has a 50% chance of being a carrier of the disease. They can inherit one copy of the gene from each parent. There is a 25 % chance that the child may inherit both mutated genes and be homozygous for the trait.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. Which of following is the best term which can describe the above?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Standard deviation (root mean square deviation)
Explanation:Standard deviation is defined as the measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. It measures the absolute variability of a distribution; the higher the dispersion or variability, the greater is the standard deviation and greater will be the magnitude of the deviation of the value from their mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 37
Incorrect
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From the options provided, which statement would most likely points towards Munchausen's syndrome by proxy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is a cause of sudden infant death
Explanation:Munchausen syndrome by proxy is a mental illness and a form of child abuse. The caretaker of a child, most often a mother or a father, either makes up fake symptoms or causes real symptoms to make it look like the child is sick. The person with MSP gains attention by seeking medical help for exaggerated or made-up symptoms of a child in his or her care. As health care providers strive to identify what’s causing the child’s symptoms, the deliberate actions of the mother or caretaker can often make the symptoms worse.
The person with MSP does not seem to be motivated by a desire for any type of material gain. People with MSP may create or exaggerate a child’s symptoms in several ways. They may simply lie about symptoms, alter tests (such as contaminating a urine sample), falsify medical records, or they may actually induce symptoms through various means, such as poisoning, suffocating, starving, and causing infection. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Which of the given clinical features is found in multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 1?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoid tumours
Explanation:Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 is a rare, autosomal dominant disorder characterized by a higher propensity to develop various endocrine and nonendocrine tumours. The primary endocrine tumours that are a part of this disorder include carcinoid tumours and tumours of parathyroid, enteropancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin. Carcinoid tumours encountered in MEN type 1 are mostly of the foregut region. Non-endocrine tumours found in MEN type 1 include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas. The pathogenesis of MEN type 1 is the inactivating mutation of the tumour suppressor gene MEN 1, which encodes the protein menin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presents with multiple non-healing ulcers, poor dentition, bleeding gums and pale conjunctivae. She also complains of easy fatiguability.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:The clinical scenario presented is highly suggestive of vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy).
Vitamin C is found in citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, Brussel sprouts, cauliflower, broccoli, cabbage and spinach.
Deficiency leads to impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue.
Scurvy is associated with severe malnutrition as well as drug and alcohol abuse, and those living in poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.Symptoms and signs include:
– Follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage
– Ecchymosis
– Gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums
– Sjogren’s syndrome
– Arthralgia
– Oedema
– Impaired wound healing
– Generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia and depression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Which of the following vaccinations is contraindicated in patients with malignancy undergoing chemotherapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:MMR vaccine is a live vaccine. It contains measles, mumps and rubella. These vaccines should be avoided during chemotherapy and for 6 months after.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 9 year old boy was admitted with gastroenteritis. The boy's symptoms started two days ago with profound diarrhoea and emesis. Blood exams show the following: Sodium=148mmol/l, Potassium=2.2mmol/l, Urea=20mmol/l, Glucose=4.3mmol/l. What would be the best management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: V normal saline and potassium supplement
Explanation:The boy needs re-hydration and hydro-electrolytic re-balancing due to fluid losses from the gastroenteritis and subsequent dehydration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Erythema multiforme is NOT triggered by which of the given infectious diseases?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Norovirus
Explanation:Certain infections and medications cause characteristic skin lesions, which are the result of hypersensitivity reactions to these agents. A skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like circular lesions is referred to as erythema multiforme. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting with a propensity for distal extremities. The most common infectious cause is the infection with herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Other notable infectious causes of erythema multiforme include Mycoplasma pneumoniae, cytomegalovirus, HIV, hepatitis c virus, varicella zoster virus, adenovirus, and some fungal infections. Norovirus infection has not been implicated in the aetiology of erythema multiforme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 21-day old infant is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother with complaints of fever, lethargy and a reduction in feeds. On examination, the infant is hypotonic, tachypnoeic and has a CRT of 4 seconds, with the femoral pulse being barely palpable. Venous access is obtained with difficulty by inserting an interosseous needle and blood sugar level is 13. His saturation is found to be 98%. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sepsis
Explanation:Sepsis is a medical emergency that describes the body’s systemic immunological response to an infectious process that can lead to end-stage organ dysfunction and death. The fever, alongside the clinical presentation, make sepsis the likely diagnosis. A temperature >38 degrees in an infant <3months of age warrants investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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An 11-month-old child was given breakfast cereal containing cashew nuts following which he suddenly developed stridor and is struggling to breathe.
The patient was brought to the emergency room tired and unable to cough. On examination, he is found to be conscious, and there is no rash. Auscultation did not reveal any abnormal breath sounds.
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Five back blows
Explanation:This clinical presentation is highly suggestive of choking. According to the BLS algorithm, the next step in managing a case of choking in a conscious child with an ineffective cough is five back blows.
Other options:
– Adrenaline intramuscularly: The history is similar to anaphylaxis, but the absence of a rash or oedema and the acute onset make choking more likely in this situation. Thus, adrenaline will not be of use in this patient.
– CPR at a ratio of 15:2: Since the child is conscious, it is not advised. If the child were unconscious, you would commence basic life support.
– Five abdominal thrusts: In the given scenario, the child is an infant. Abdominal thrusts are avoided in infants due to the risk of intra-abdominal injury. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A male child presents with pallor and bruising. He is deaf and his thumbs are dysplastic. Clinical and paraclinical exams suggest an acute myeloid leukaemia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fanconi anaemia
Explanation:Fanconi anaemia, a rare autosomal recessive condition, presents with congenital abnormalities and defective hemopoiesis. Clinical signs include pallor and bruising. Hypoplasia of the thumbs and radial hypoplasia are two of the most common congenital abnormalities. Conductive deafness is also common. Those with Fanconi anaemia have a higher risk for developing acute myeloid leukaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show:
Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 3.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 2.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Urine sodium 2 mmol/L
Urine osmolality 750 mosmol/kg (350-1000)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:The patient is most likely to have Bulimia nervosa. A young girl with a low body mass contributes to the low urea. Hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia are due to vomiting. Her urine sodium is also low.
– In Addison’s diseases, there are low levels of sodium and high levels of potassium in the blood. In acute adrenal crisis: The most consistent finding is elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Urinary and sweat sodium also may be elevated.
– In Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH) there is hyponatremia with corresponding hypo-osmolality, continued renal excretion of sodium, urine less than maximally dilute and absence of clinical evidence of volume depletion. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with a history of fainting. Physical examination shows a male habitus, height above 75th percentile, weight and occipitofrontal circumference both below 50th percentile. Pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum can be seen. Hand joints are markedly flexible, and fingers show arachnodactyly. His palate is high arched. ophthalmoscopic examination reveals ectopia lentis. On auscultation, a 2/6 soft, systolic ejection murmur can be heard at the upper right 2nd intercostal space which radiates to the carotids. BP is normal, and so are the respiratory, abdominal and neurological examinations. investigations show a dilated aorta. HIs cerebral MRI scan, magnetic resonance angiography, ECG and blood tests are unremarkable. From the information provided, the boy most likely has which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Marfan syndrome
Explanation:Individuals with Marfan syndrome are usually tall and slender, have elongated fingers and toes (arachnodactyly), loose joints, and have an arm span that exceeds their body height. Other common features include a long and narrow face, crowded teeth, an abnormal curvature of the spine (scoliosis or kyphosis), stretch marks (striae) not related to weight gain or loss, and either a sunken chest (pectus excavatum) or a protruding chest (pectus carinatum). Some individuals develop an abnormal accumulation of air in the chest cavity that can result in the collapse of a lung (spontaneous pneumothorax). A membrane called the dura, which surrounds the brain and spinal cord, can be abnormally enlarged (dural ectasia) in people with Marfan syndrome. Dural ectasia can cause pain in the back, abdomen, legs, or head. Most individuals with Marfan syndrome have some degree of near-sightedness (myopia). Clouding of the lens (cataract) may occur in mid-adulthood, and increased pressure within the eye (glaucoma) occurs more frequently in people with Marfan syndrome than in those without the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces following a sore throat. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) rashes are commonly found on the legs, feet, and buttocks while Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) rashes manifest predominantly on the lower legs. HSP happens following a sore throat while ITP usually happens following an URTI or Flu. HSP is an inflammation of a blood vessel (vasculitis) while ITP is immune mediated insufficiency of platelets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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Which of the following ages should a child be expected to draw a line and start cutting with scissors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2- 2 1/2 years
Explanation:Fine motor development involves greater use of the hands to perform more precise tasks. By 6 -12 months children should be able to reach for small objects and pass an object from one hand to the other. From 1 -2 years they can perform more complex tasks such a building a tower of blocks, feeding themselves, and turning knobs. In terms of pencil skills, they should be able to imitate scribbles and then spontaneously scribble. By the age of 2 years they can draw a line, and by three they can draw a circle. From the age of 3.5 they can draw a cross, 4.5 – a square, 5 – a triangle, and 6 a diamond.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positive mineral oil mount is diagnostic
Explanation:The diagnosis of scabies can often be made clinically in patients with a pruritic rash and characteristic linear burrows. Definitive testing relies on the identification of mites or their eggs, eggshell fragments, or scybala. This is best undertaken by placing a drop of mineral oil directly over the burrow on the skin and then superficially scraping longitudinally and laterally across the skin with a scalpel blade. (Avoid causing bleeding.) Scraping 15 or more burrows often produces only 1 or 2 eggs or mites, except in a case of crusted scabies, in which many mites will be present.
The sample is placed on a microscope slide and examined under low and high power. Potassium hydroxide should not be used, since it can dissolve mite pellets. Failure to find mites is common and does not rule out the diagnosis of scabies. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy was admitted by the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) team. He was brought to the hospital with symptoms of psychosis.
He now complains of abdominal pain with abdominal examination revealing hepatomegaly. Which of the following investigations will most likely confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum ceruloplasmin
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis is Wilson’s disease. Elevated serum ceruloplasmin levels can confirm the diagnosis.
Serum ceruloplasmin
Wilson’s disease causes reduced binding of copper to ceruloplasmin, which is the body’s primary copper carrying protein. As a result, copper cannot be excreted into the bile. Copper, therefore, builds up in the liver, causing toxicity and is secreted into the bloodstream unbound to ceruloplasmin. This free copper is deposited around the body, especially the brain, eyes and kidneys. The genetic defect means that ceruloplasmin is not released into the bloodstream; therefore, ceruloplasmin is low in Wilson’s disease.Other options:
– Microscopic evaluation of the hair is performed in Menke’s disease, which is a disease of copper absorption leading to copper deficiency. This causes kinky hair, failure to thrive and neurological symptoms (such as hypotonia).
– Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the brain: An MRI brain may show features of Wilson’s disease (especially in the basal ganglia), but it is not diagnostic.
– Serum ferritin: Serum ferritin becomes high in haemochromatosis. This classically causes cirrhosis, bronzing of the skin, cardiomyopathy and diabetes.
– Ultrasound scan of the abdomen: While it is useful in any case of hepatomegaly; it is not going to provide the diagnosis in this case. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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What is most likely to occur in lead poisoning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delayed developmental milestones
Explanation:Lead can be found in material used for mining, leaded paints and gasoline, glassware, toys, and even cosmetics. Lead poisoning is rare nowadays as the use of lead has been banned from many products. Lead is toxic and in certain concentrations can cause irreversible damage. Children are especially vulnerable as they absorb 4 times as much ingested lead as adults. The typical features of lead poisoning include developmental delay and behavioural disorders, microcytic anaemia, constipation and vomiting. Pulmonary fibrosis, Osteomalacia and cardiomyopathy are not known features of lead poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29 weeks. His birth weight was recorded to be 1 kg. Due to his critical state, the baby was intubated and ventilated. Prior to his intubation, the baby was managed with CPAP, but he seemed to get exhausted. He is now on SiMV (spontaneous intermittent mechanical ventilation). The ventilator settings are as follows: targeted tidal volume 9 ml, maximum PIP 30, PEEP 5, rate 40/min, FiO2 0.3. Baby's oxygen saturations are 93%. Blood gas shows pH 7.41, CO2 3.9 kPa, BE -4.
Which of the following changes need to be made to the ventilator settings initially?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease targeted tidal volume
Explanation:Synchronized IMV (SIMV) with pressure support, used in the alert infant. SIMV guarantees a minimum minute volume while allowing the patient to trigger spontaneous
breaths at a rate and volume determined by the patient. Extra breaths are boosted with pressure support. Tidal Volume (Vt) is normally approximately 6-10 mL/kg and 4-6 ml/kg in the preterm.
Respiratory rate (RR) is usually 30-60 BPM. Tidal volume and respiratory rate are related
to respiratory minute volume as follows: Vm(mL/min) = Vt x RR .This baby is overventilated with a low CO2. Tidal volumes should generally be targeted at 4-6 ml/kg and this baby is being targeted at 9 ml/kg which exposes the baby to damage to the distal airways from this ventilation which can lead to bronchopulmonary dysplasia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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Which of the following changes can be seen on a blood film post-splenectomy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Target cells
Explanation:The diagnosis of a post-splenectomy/hyposplenism blood picture can be made reliably by identifying Howell Jolly bodies in routine Wright-Giemsa stained blood and target cells. These are round basophilic bodies in red blood cells that represent residual nuclear material from marrow nucleated red cell precursors that are usually culled out by the spleen.
These do not occur in individuals with normally functioning splenic tissue and their presence indicates either 1) an asplenic state or 2) hypofunctioning splenic tissue as might be seen in a patient with late-stage sickle cell anaemia. Their presence in an individual with splenomegaly leads to a narrow differential diagnosis and their absence in a splenectomised individual indicates accessory splenic Heinz bodies and poikilocytosis typically increase in a splenectomised individual and care must be taken not to overdiagnose haemolysis in such an individual. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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Question 56
Incorrect
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Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following diseases?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Advanced paternal age is associated with poor quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility along with an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, Marfan’s syndrome, neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor. Turner syndrome is not found to be caused by advanced paternal age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular gland presents to the follow-up clinic with complaints of tongue weakness on the ipsilateral side.
What is the nerve that is most likely to be damaged?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve
Explanation:The presenting features and the surgical site provided in the clinical scenario are highly suggestive of ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve injury.
Note:
Three cranial nerves may be injured during submandibular gland excision.
– Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve
– Lingual nerve
– Hypoglossal nerveHypoglossal nerve damage may result in the paralysis of the ipsilateral aspect of the tongue. The nerve itself lies deep to the capsule surrounding the gland and should not be injured during an intracapsular dissection.
The lingual nerve is probably at higher risk of injury. However, the effects of lingual nerve injury are predominantly sensory rather than motor.
Thus, the most appropriate answer is the hypoglossal nerve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl experienced nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps 4 h after eating a hamburger in a local restaurant. Watery diarrhoea began a few hours later.
The most likely organism causing her disease is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Food poisoning is defined as an illness caused by the consumption of food or water contaminated with bacteria and/or their toxins, or with parasites, viruses, or chemicals. The most common pathogens are Norovirus, Escherichia coli, Salmonella, Clostridium perfringens, Campylobacter, and Staphylococcus aureus.
The following are some of the salient features of food poisoning:
Acute diarrhoea in food poisoning usually lasts less than 2 weeks. Diarrhoea lasting 2-4 weeks is classified as persistent. Chronic diarrhoea is defined by duration of more than 4 weeks.
The presence of fever suggests an invasive disease. However, sometimes fever and diarrhoea may result from infection outside the GI tract, as in malaria.
A stool with blood or mucus indicates invasion of the intestinal or colonic mucosa.
Reactive arthritis can be seen with Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, and Yersinia infections.
A profuse rice-water stool suggests cholera or a similar process.
Abdominal pain is most severe in inflammatory processes. Painful abdominal cramps suggest underlying electrolyte loss, as in severe cholera.
A history of bloating should raise the suspicion of giardiasis.
Yersinia enterocolitis may mimic the symptoms of appendicitis.
Proctitis syndrome, seen with shigellosis, is characterized by frequent painful bowel movements containing blood, pus, and mucus. Tenesmus and rectal discomfort are prominent features.
Consumption of undercooked meat/poultry is suspicious for Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shiga toxin E coli, and C perfringens.
Consumption of raw seafood is suspicious for Norwalk-like virus, Vibrioorganism, or hepatitis A.
Consumption of homemade canned foods is associated with C botulinum.
Consumption of unpasteurized soft cheeses is associated with Listeria, Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shiga toxin E coli, and Yersinia.
Consumption of deli meats notoriously is responsible for listeriosis.
Consumption of unpasteurized milk or juice is suspicious for Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shiga toxin E coli, and Yersinia.
Salmonella has been associated with consumption of raw eggs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant mother?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valves
Explanation:Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a plasma protein produced by the embryonic yolk sac and the fetal liver. AFP levels in serum, amniotic fluid, and urine functions as a screening test for congenital disabilities, chromosomal abnormalities, as well as some other adult occurring tumours and pathologies.
Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels are elevated in:
– Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly)
– Omphalocele
– Gastroschisis
– posterior urethral valves
– nephrosis
– GI obstruction
– teratomas -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A nursery teacher has expressed concern to the parents of an 18-month-old girl about her language development.
Which feature would NOT be associated with language delay in an 18-month-old child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lack of imitative gesture
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A young female presents with vaginal discharge and itching. She is diagnosed with prepubertal atrophic vaginitis. What is the pathophysiology behind prepubertal atrophic vaginitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lack of vaginal oestrogen causing infection-prone alkaline environment
Explanation:Prepubertal atrophic vaginitis is due to a lack of vaginal oestrogen. The pathophysiology behind prepubertal atrophic vaginitis:
1.The proximity of the vagina to the anus
2.Lack of oestrogen – leads to thinning of the vaginal mucosa
3.Lack of pubic hair to protect the area
4.Lack of labial fat pads -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 62
Incorrect
-
Use of ipecac in patients with eating disorders is associated with which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Ipecac, or syrup of ipecac (SOI), is a medication once used to induce vomiting. Its medical use has virtually vanished, and it is no longer recommended for routine use in toxic ingestion. The abuse of SOI as a purgative in eating disorders, however, is increasing.
Ipecac has a high safety profile. Common side effects include prolonged vomiting (greater than 1 hour), lethargy, somnolence, diarrhoea, fever, irritability. More severe complications can consist of aspiration pneumonia, Mallory-Weiss tears, pneumomediastinum, and gastric rupture.
The abuse of syrup of ipecac by patients with major eating disorders have been shown to have toxic effects on the skeletal and cardiac muscle. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 63
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent early morning non-ketotic hyperglycaemia. Which of the following statements regarding the phenomenon described is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can be seen after a hypoglycaemic fit
Explanation:The child has experienced the Somogyi phenomenon.
It is a phenomenon where there’s a morning rise in blood sugar. Often it occurs as posthypoglycemic hyperglycaemia and follows nocturnal hypoglycaemia. The mechanism is the production of counter-regulatory hormones like glucagon, cortisol and adrenaline, which increase glucose.
She can be managed by reducing her evening insulin dosage and increasing complex carbohydrates for supper (evening meal).Type I diabetes mellitus:
It is a chronic illness that is characterised by the inability to produce insulin. It is caused by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas and often presents with ketoacidosis.
The patient can present with symptoms suggestive of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. There can be periods of islet cell regeneration in these patients, which leads to a ‘honeymoon period’ of remission.
Symptoms occur when there is < 20% of islet cell activity left.
Insulin therapy is required in almost all children with type 1 diabetes.
Most children require multiple insulin injections throughout the day via subcutaneous insulin pumps.
Target HbA1c in these patients is 48 mmol/mol according to the updated NICE guidelines. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
What are the chances of offspring developing cystic fibrosis if one of the parents, more specifically the mother, is suffering from the disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depends on genetic makeup of partner
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that a person might be a carrier of the disease without developing it. If the unaffected partner is a carrier, then there is a 50% chance of inheritance and another 50% chance of having a child who is a carrier. However, if the partner is not a carrier, the offspring will not develop the disease but the possibility of being a carrier raises up to 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A child is brought to the hospital by his mother, who complains that he has been running a fever and associated with a headache.
Which of the following clinical features, if present, is suggestive of raised intracranial pressure?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Among the options provided, bradycardia is a feature of raised intracranial pressure.
The features of raised intracranial pressure include relative bradycardia and hypertension, altered consciousness, focal neurology and seizures.
All other options are signs of shock but not raised intracranial pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period -if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 67
Incorrect
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An 11-year-old boy was brought by his mother because she noticed that his blood sugar level was high this morning.
The boy was diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 6, following which his sugars have been under control with insulin. His mother insists that his mental, social, and physical development were all normal for his age.
His is currently on a basal-bolus regime, where he takes insulin glargine at 9 pm every evening. What is the most likely explanation for the pattern shown by the boy's blood sugars?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dawn phenomenon
Explanation:The patient’s sugar levels typically show the Dawn phenomenon.
Dawn phenomenon:
This is an early morning rise in blood glucose levels secondary to a rise in hormones that increase blood glucose levels. The question suggests that he is undergoing a pubertal growth spurt, suggesting that an increase in these hormones is what has led to the higher morning glucose levels.Other options:
– Inactivity at night-time: It is expected, and insulin dose should be adequate despite inactivity during the night.
– Inadequate bedtime insulin: It is possible that this is a contributing factor. However, inadequate background insulin is also likely to result in high blood glucose in the day, which the question does not suggest.
– Somogyi effect: There are no features suggestive of nocturnal hypoglycaemia that can cause the Somogyi effect.
– Nocturnal glycogenesis: Glycogenesis would result in hypoglycaemia, not hyperglycaemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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Which of the following disorders are NOT associated with hypertrichosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:Among the given options, psoriasis is not associated with hypertrichosis.
The causes of hypertrichosis include:
– Drugs: minoxidil, ciclosporin, and diazoxide.
– Congenital hypertrichosis lanuginosa and congenital hypertrichosis terminalis.
– Porphyria cutanea tarda
– Anorexia nervosa -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg presents to the clinic with jaundice. He is being breastfed and his current weight is 4.5kg. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the baby's jaundice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast Milk Jaundice
Explanation:Breast milk jaundice is associated with breast-feeding. It typically occurs one week after birth and can sometimes last up to 12 weeks, but it rarely causes complications in healthy, breast-fed infants. The exact cause of breast milk jaundice isn’t known. However, it may be linked to a substance in the breast milk that prevents certain proteins in the infant’s liver from breaking down bilirubin. The condition may also run in families. Breast milk jaundice is rare, affecting less than 3 percent of infants. When it does occur, it usually doesn’t cause any problems and eventually goes away on its own. It is safe to continue breast-feeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child is admitted with generalised oedema, albuminuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidaemia. The renal biopsy is normal. What would you expect to see on electron microscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells
Explanation:The child has nephrotic syndrome which is most commonly caused by minimal change nephropathy in this age group. The condition presents with fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells under the microscope.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has an above average incidence in babies with a meningomyelocele
Explanation:The commonest time for bacterial meningitis is in the 1st month of life and group B Streptococcus is the commonest organism. The anterior fontanelle is full, but does not bulge with normal flexion. Neurological manifestations include seizures, irritability, poor tone, lethargy and tremors, however no findings of sensorineural deafness have been noted. One of the risk factors for introduction of meningeal infection is Meningomyelocele.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 73
Incorrect
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According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk of severe hyperbilirubinemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History of a previous sibling requiring phototherapy for jaundice
Explanation:Identify babies as being more likely to develop significant hyperbilirubinemia if they have any of the following factors:
– gestational age under 38 weeks
– a previous sibling with neonatal jaundice requiring phototherapy
– mother’s intention to breastfeed exclusively
– visible jaundice in the first 24 hours of life. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 16 year old dies in a road traffic accident. What is the mortality proportion attributed to accidents in this age group?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40-50%
Explanation:Deaths by age group:
60% <1 year - due mainly to congenital, neonatal, and infection related problems.
10% 1-4 years – due to accident (15%), cancer (15%), or congenital problems (14%)
18% 15-19 years – accidental (42%) accidents reflect increased risk taking -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A young boy presents with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. He has a history of neglect and poor dental hygiene.
Which organism is likely to have caused his endocarditis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococci viridans
Explanation:Infective endocarditis occurs when microorganisms enter the bloodstream and infect damaged endocardium or endothelial tissue. It most commonly involves the heart valves (either native or prosthetic), but it may also occur at the site of a septal defect, on the chordae tendineae, or on the mural endocardium. The prototypic lesion is at the site of the infection; the vegetation is a mass of platelets, fibrin, microcolonies of microorganisms, and scant inflammatory cells. Endocarditis is classified as acute or subacute, which applies to the features and the progression of infection until diagnosis.
The oral cavity, the skin, and the upper respiratory tract are the primary portals for Streptococcus viridans; Staphylococcus species; and Haemophilus aphrophilus, Aggregatibacter (formerly Actinobacillus) actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, and Kingella kingae (HACEK) organisms. Streptococcal and staphylococcal organisms are responsible for more than 80% of cases of bacterial IE.
Streptococcus viridans accounts for approximately 50-60% of cases of subacute disease.
While S aureus infection is the most common cause of IE, including Prosthetic valve endocarditis, acute IE, and IV Drug Abusers IE
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 76
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions result in a rash involving the palms and soles of the extremities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tinea corporis
Explanation:Tinea corporis is a type of dermatophytosis, caused by Trichophyton or Microsporum. The disease is highly contagious and rapidly spreads to all the areas of the body. It produces an itchy rash with a central area of clearance surrounded by raised scaly borders. Diagnosis can be made by skin examination. All other mentioned conditions do not affect the palms and soles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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Which of the following is responsible for the closure of the ductus arteriosus at birth?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced level of prostaglandins
Explanation:The ductus arteriosus is normally patent during fetal life; it is an important structure in fetal development as it contributes to the flow of blood to the rest of the fetal organs and structure. From the 6th week of fetal life onwards, the ductus is responsible for most of the right ventricular outflow, and it contributes to 60% of the total cardiac output throughout fetal life. Only about 5-10% of its outflow passes through the lungs.
This patency is promoted by continual production of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) by the ductus.
In the foetus, the oxygen tension is relatively low, because the pulmonary system is non-functional. Coupled with high levels of circulating prostaglandins, this acts to keep the ductus open. The high levels of prostaglandins result from the little amount of pulmonary circulation and the high levels of production in the placenta.
At birth, the placenta is removed, eliminating a major source of prostaglandin production, and the lungs expand, activating the organ in which most prostaglandins are metabolized. In addition, with the onset of normal respiration, oxygen tension in the blood markedly increases. Pulmonary vascular resistance decreases with this activity.
Normally, functional closure of the ductus arteriosus occurs by about 15 hours of life in healthy infants born at term. This occurs by abrupt contraction of the muscular wall of the ductus arteriosus, which is associated with increases in the partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) coincident with the first breath. A preferential shift of blood flow occurs; the blood moves away from the ductus and directly from the right ventricle into the lungs. Until functional closure is complete and PVR is lower than SVR, some residual left-to-right flow occurs from the aorta through the ductus and into the pulmonary arteries
A balance of factors that cause relaxation and contraction determine the vascular tone of the ductus. Major factors causing relaxation are the high prostaglandin levels, hypoxemia, and nitric oxide production in the ductus. Factors resulting in contraction include decreased prostaglandin levels, increased PO2, increased endothelin-1, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, bradykinin, and decreased PGE receptors. Increased prostaglandin sensitivity, in conjunction with pulmonary immaturity leading to hypoxia, contributes to the increased frequency of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in premature neonates.
Although functional closure usually occurs in the first few hours of life, true anatomic closure, in which the ductus loses the ability to reopen, may take several weeks. The second stage of closure related to the fibrous proliferation of the intima is complete in 2-3 weeks. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old child, who is not very active, presented with bruises on the back as well as on the chest. X-ray showed a radiolucent area around the ribs indicating callus formation. Which of the following is the most important investigation in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Skeletal survey
Explanation:Because the initial chest X-ray returned an anomaly, a skeletal survey is the best option. Also known as a bone survey, the skeletal survey is a series of X-rays that will help analyse the structure of all the bones in the body. Because the child is not very active yet presents with bruising, the child protection register should also be checked but only after a skeletal survey has been conducted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents to the neurology clinic with complaints of unsteady gait and dysarthria.
On examination, he is found to have ataxia, absent tendon reflexes, and nystagmus. His intelligence is well preserved.
Additionally, distal muscle weakness was noted in hands and feet. He is also diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be Friedreich’s ataxia.
Friedreich’s ataxia is also called spinocerebellar degeneration. It is an autosomal recessive condition. The onset of ataxia is around ten years of age. Intelligence is preserved.
Cerebellar impairment, distal muscle weakness, pes cavus, hammer-toes and progressive kyphoscoliosis are present. Deep tendon reflexes are absent, particularly the ankle jerk. Loss of vibration and position sense occurs because of degeneration of the posterior columns. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can occur with progression to congestive cardiac failure.Other options:
– Ataxia Telangiectasia: ataxia develops earlier, around two years of age, with loss of ambulation by adolescence. Nystagmus is present. Telangiectasia becomes evident by mid-childhood and is found on bulbar conjunctiva, over the bridge of the nose and on the ears. These children have an increased risk of developing lymphoreticular malignancies.– Abetalipoproteinemia: begins in childhood with steatorrhea and failure to thrive. Neurological symptoms appear in late childhood. These include ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa, peripheral neuritis, abnormalities in position and vibration sense, muscle weakness and mental retardation. Vitamin E is undetectable in serum in these patients.
– Acute cerebellar ataxia: occurs in children of 1-3 years of age and is a diagnosis of exclusion. It often follows acute viral infections like varicella, coxsackievirus or echovirus by 2-3 weeks. It is an autoimmune response to a viral agent affecting the cerebellum. Prognosis is excellent with complete recovery present. Very small numbers have long term sequelae like ataxia, incoordination, speech disorder and behavioural problems.
– Acute labyrinthitis: It is difficult to differentiate acute labyrinthitis from acute cerebellar ataxia in a toddler. It is associated with middle ear infections, vertigo and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 80
Incorrect
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All of the following are disorders of the supra-renal glands except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Di-George syndrome
Explanation:Among the given options, Di-George syndrome is not associated with adrenal gland disorders.
Di-George syndrome is characterised by distinct facial features (micrognathia, cleft palate, short philtrum, and low-set ears), hypocalcaemia, mental retardation, cardiac defects (especially tetralogy of Fallot), and immune deficiencies.
A useful memory aid is CATCH-22:
– Cardiac defects
– Abnormal facial features
– Thymic aplasia/hypoplasia
– Cleft palate
– Hypocalcaemia/Hypoparathyroidism
– 22 – Due to 22q11 deletionOther options:
– Addison’s disease is a result of adrenal hypofunction and may present with collapse secondary to a salt-losing crisis.
– Congenital adrenal hyperplasia: CAH is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme (classically 21-hydroxylase deficiency) in the biosynthetic pathway in the adrenal cortex, leading to insufficient production of cortisol and aldosterone, and a build-up of 17-hydroxyprogesterone.
– Cushing’s syndrome is a syndrome of cortisol excess. An adrenal tumour is a primary cause.
– Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine releasing tumour of the adrenal gland/s. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen.
Which of the following medications can cause this side effect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zidovudine
Explanation:Among the options provided, zidovudine causes lipoatrophy as a side effect.
Zidovudine: Although both hypertrophy and atrophy are described related to HIV medications, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTIs) such as zidovudine and stavudine are closely associated with fat loss.
Other options:
– Enfuvirtide is an HIV-fusion inhibitor. Lipoatrophy is not commonly associated with this drug.
– Efavirenz is an NNRTI, which is not associated with lipoatrophy. Common side effects include neuropsychiatric effects, rash and nausea.
– Ganciclovir is not an anti-HIV medication and is used for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections.
– Raltegravir is an integrase inhibitor and is associated with fat gain. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ewing's sarcoma
Explanation:Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic by his parents who say that he has had frequent breath holding spells which occur almost 4 times per week. Which of the following nutritional deficiency most often results in the breath holding spells like the ones experienced by this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron
Explanation:Breath-holding spells are usually caused by either a change in the child’s breathing or a slowing of the heart rate. In some children, breath-holding spells may be related to iron deficiency anaemia, a condition in which the body doesn’t produce a normal number of red blood cells.
Conclusion: Not only Iron deficiency anaemia but also iron deficiency alone without anaemia is associated with a risk of high-frequency cyanotic breath holding spells. Iron therapy results in reduction in spells’ frequency which was correlated with increasing ferritin and iron levels. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 84
Incorrect
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Which is true regarding the histopathology of psoriasis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Histological features seen in psoriasis include acanthosis and parakeratosis
Explanation:Histology of psoriasis is characterised by parakeratosis (cell nuclei within stratum corneum) and thickened projections of the prickle cell layer of keratinocytes (psoriasiform hyperplasia or acanthosis).
Orthokeratosis refers to the formation of a pathological anuclear keratin layer in the skin.
The stratum granulosum is actually thinned or absent in patients with psoriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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An 8 year old male who is unable to retract his previously retractile foreskin has been treated with 1% hydrocortisone for 3 months. He presents with a white and thickened foreskin. What would you do next to manage his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Circumcision with urethral calibration
Explanation:The boy suffers from balanitis xerotica obliterans (BXO) which is surgically treated with circumcision and urethral calibration. In fact, the condition is the only true medical indication for circumcision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years
Explanation:Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years.
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common adenomatous polyposis syndrome. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the early onset of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps throughout the colon. If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. In addition, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.
Most patients with FAP are asymptomatic until they develop cancer. As a result, diagnosing presymptomatic patients is essential.Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.
Nonspecific symptoms, such as unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia), diarrhoea, or abdominal pain, in young patients may be suggestive of FAP.
In a minority of FAP families a mutation cannot be identified and so annual flexible sigmoidoscopy should be offered to at risk family members from age 13-15 years until age 30, and at three to five year intervals thereafter until age 60 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference was above the 90th percentile.
The next best step is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranial ultrasound
Explanation:The baby may have hydrocephalus and no surgery can be done until it is excluded.
Cranial sonography is an important part of neonatal care in general, and high-risk and unstable premature infants, in particular. It allows rapid evaluation of infants in the intensive care units without the need for sedation and with virtually no risk. Expectedly, sonography represents an ideal imaging modality in neonates due to its portability, lower cost, speed, and lack of ionizing radiations. Although there are numerous indications for cranial sonography, it appears to be most useful for detection and follow-up of intracranial haemorrhage, hydrocephalus, and periventricular leukomalacia (PVL). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 4 year old boy diagnosed for the first time with nephrotic syndrome presents with oedema, low serum albumin and proteinuria. In which of the following circumstances is albumin infusion indicated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Capillary refill time of 5 seconds
Explanation:In nephrotic syndrome, one of the main pathological processes is the excretion of protein by the kidneys. The resultant signs including; low serum albumin, oedema and hypovolemia all occur as a result of fluid escaping into the extracellular space due to a low oncotic pressure. While an albumin infusion may help to increase oncotic pressure, its indications specifically include hypovolemia, which is assessed by a capillary refill time more than 5 seconds, an elevated haematocrit, or severe symptomatic oedema, such as scrotal oedema. Hypertension not an indication for an infusion, and most patients needing an albumin infusion have oliguria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old baby girl is admitted with poor feeding and irritability for 2 days. She is lethargic and persistently crying. Urine dipstick showed leucocytes. What is the single most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine for C&S
Explanation:The clinical presentation and leucocytes on the urine dipstick is suggestive of a urinary tract infection. To confirm the diagnosis, urine should be sent for culture and sensitivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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Congenital cytomegalovirus infection is characterized by which of the following statements?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Periventricular cerebral calcifications are an associated feature
Explanation:One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. The infection is even commoner than the other widely known diseases like down’s syndrome and spina bifida. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5 and is diagnosed using PCR of saliva. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness. Cytomegalic inclusion disease is diagnosed at birth with marked neurological disability, resulting from microcephaly, intracerebral calcifications, and cerebral atrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 5 week old boy presents for developmental assessment. Clinical examination reveals a bluish, well-circumscribed lesion located on the bridge of the nose. It measures 5 mm in diameter and feels firm to the touch. Parents admit that the mass was not present at birth. They have noticed that the lesion gets bigger when the baby cries and then it gets back to its initial size. Doctors suspect a capillary haemangioma. What would you advise the parents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange follow-up for the child in the outpatient clinic to monitor the growth of the lesion over the coming weeks
Explanation:Capillary haemangiomas (strawberry naevi) are very common benign tumours that may appear in infancy. This particular case requires a close follow-up to monitor the naevus’ size and make sure it doesn’t expand or gets bigger, affecting the baby’s visual field.
It is more common in preterm babies and girls are 3x more commonly affected than boys. It presents at birth in 30%, and is a focal and solitary in 80% of cases, most commonly found on the head and neck (60%), followed by the trunk (25%) and extremities (15%).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A thin 16-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the dorsum of her hand. What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging. This patient has swollen parotid glands. The glands swell in order to increase saliva production so that the saliva lost in the vomiting is compensated. This patient also has thickened calluses on the back of her hand. This is known as Russell’s sign. This occurs because of putting fingers in the mouth again and again to induce the gag reflex and vomit. The knuckles get inflamed in the process after coming in contact with the teeth multiple times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents to the hospital with a body mass index (BMI) of 13.
On examination, she was found to have cold peripheries. Her vitals were:
Pulse rate: 130 bpm
Temperature: 37°C
Capillary blood glucose: 1.8 mmol/L
After drawing blood for a full blood panel, you immediately give a bolus of glucose at a dose of 2 ml/kg. Her sugar levels improve to 4 mmol/L.
What is the next step in the management of this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal saline fluid bolus; send blood culture, lactate and C-reactive protein
Explanation:The next step in the management of this patient is starting a normal saline fluid bolus, following which we should send samples for blood culture, lactate and C-reactive protein. The patient is probably a case of anorexia nervosa (AN).
Note:
Children with AN are at higher risk of developing infections, and this needs to be considered in this case. Patients with AN may not respond in the usual fashion to sepsis as they may not mount a fever in response to infection.
Hypoglycaemia (especially when severe or persistent despite correction) should raise the alarm for an infection as should tachycardia and cool peripheries. Children with severe AN are more likely to be bradycardic. Therefore, a tachycardia should cause the clinician to consider that another process is going on.Other options:
– Correcting electrolyte abnormalities is, of course, very important. However, while these are awaited, one needs to consider that this patient is septic and managed accordingly. Children with anorexia nervosa (AN) may have a whole host of electrolyte abnormalities, some of which can be treated with oral or nutritional supplementation although sometimes intravenous correction is required.
Electrolytes need to be checked frequently during admission because of the risk of refeeding syndrome, and dietetic input is required to advise on appropriate starting intake.
– While maintenance fluids like dextrose are likely to be needed in this case, consideration needs to be given to the underlying cause of the hypoglycaemia. As the sugar has come up following a glucose bolus, a 10% dextrose infusion would be excessive.
– An ECG should form a part of any assessment of a child with AN. In this case, it would not be the first thing; however, as part of the acute management of this child, cardiac monitoring should be commenced. One would usually expect a child with AN to be bradycardic so a tachycardia should raise suspicion that another process is going on.
– Dietary input will be vital for this child’s ongoing management. However, their acute issues take precedence in this case. Nevertheless, a dietician should be informed and involved from an early stage. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 94
Incorrect
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What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gives rise to the sphenomandibular ligament
Explanation:The first brachial arch (mandibular) gives rise to the mandibular and maxillary processes. Muscles and bones of this process originate within the arch’s mesoderm. The first arch cartilage (Meckel’s) ossifies to form the incus and malleus of the middle ear. Its perichondrium gives rise to he sphenomandibular ligament and through intermembraneous ossification after the mandible forms, the rest of the cartilage disappears. Muscles of the first arch include: mylohyoid, tensor tympany and palati, temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids and the anterior belly of the epigastric. This first arch is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata of the adrenal
Explanation:Zona fasciculata of the adrenal produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body.
Functions of cortisol:
– Increases blood pressure: permits normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles.
– Inhibits bone formation: decreases osteoblasts, type 1 collagen and absorption of calcium from the gut, and increases osteoclastic activity.
– Increases insulin resistance.
– Increases gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis.
– Inhibits inflammatory and immune responses.
– Maintains function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.An excess of corticosteroids in the body causes various symptoms that are a part of Cushing’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shunt reversal
Explanation:A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old girl was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection.
Which of the following is NOT a requirement to perform imaging studies in this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: E.coli UTI
Explanation:E. coli accounts for the majority of UTI’s in children. If this child responds well to treatment and has no recurrence of his symptoms, then no form of imaging is required, as per NICE advice for children aged 6 months to 3 years. Had the child been less than 6 months of age, then a USS at 6 weeks would be necessary.
Other options:
– Pseudomonas causes atypical UTI. This warrants ultrasonography within the acute illness phase as it may reflect an underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.
– Recurrent UTI is defined as two or more episodes of pyelonephritis OR 1 pyelonephritis and one cystitis OR 3 or more cystitis. It requires USS at six weeks and DMSA at 4-6 months.
– Septicaemia is a sign of an atypical UTI. This requires USS within the acute illness as it may reflect an underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.
– Unwell 48hrs post antibiotics is a sign of an atypical UTI. This requires USS within the acute illness as may reflect underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old boy was brought to the emergency department with bilateral watery discharge from both eyes with occasional mucoid discharge.
The presentation is highly suggestive of a nasolacrimal duct dysfunction.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice to be given to the boy's parents?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The most appropriate management would be to reassure the parents, as nasolacrimal duct dysfunction in most infants tends to resolve spontaneously.
Note:
Nasolacrimal duct blockage occurs in up to 5% of new-borns. 90% of these babies spontaneously resolve in the first year of life.
They do not require urgent ophthalmological review, as often advice and reassurance for parents suffice for up to the age of 18 months old or so.
A lump can often be seen in the nasolacrimal region following the accumulation of mucous. This does not need to be treated with antibiotics unless there are signs of acute infection.Other options:
– The child does not require urgent ophthalmology review as there are no signs of severe infection. Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is a common non-worrying sign.
– A course of topical antibiotics: Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is distinct from pus discharge.
Unnecessary topical antibiotics can cause secondary red eyes as well as give parents false expectations for the resolution of the symptoms and signs.
– A course of topical and oral antibiotics: Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is distinct from pus discharge. Unnecessary topical and oral antibiotics can cause secondary red eyes as well as give parents false expectations for the resolution of the symptoms and signs.
– Reassurance is necessary. However, the advice that the child most likely will need a surgical procedure to resolve this is incorrect. Reassurance, but include advice that the child most likely will need a surgical procedure to resolve this is incorrect as 90% of infants that have these symptoms and signs resolve within the first year of life. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy is diagnosed with aplastic anaemia after presenting with fatigue, dyspnoea and headaches. He lives on a farm and would usually play hide and seek with his siblings in the barn where the family store pesticides and other chemicals. Lab investigations reveal a significant leukopenia.
Aplastic anaemia results due to failure of hematopoietic stem cells that give rise to progenitors of immune cells.
In which area of the body are these cells primarily located?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bone marrow
Explanation:Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are a rare population of cells residing in the bone marrow (BM) and continuously replenish all mature blood cells throughout their life span.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary amenorrhea.
Which of the following hormones is most important for long term replacement?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oestrogen
Explanation:This girl most probably has Turner’s syndrome, which is caused by the absence of one set of genes from the short arm of one X chromosome.
Turner syndrome is a lifelong condition and needs lifelong oestrogen replacement therapy. Oestrogen is usually started at age 12-15 years. Treatment can be started with continuous low-dose oestrogens. These can be cycled in a 3-weeks on, 1-week off regimen after 6-18 months; progestin can be added later.In childhood, growth hormone therapy is standard to prevent short stature as an adult.
Fetal ovarian development seems to be normal in Turner syndrome, with degeneration occurring in most cases around the time of birth so pulsatile GnRH and luteinising hormone would be of no use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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