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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age.
On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Correct Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone; however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-Mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors.
The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following cranial nerve reflexes is most likely to be affected if there is a lesion in the vagus nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gag reflex
Explanation:Vagus nerve lesions will affect the gag reflex since the pharyngeal muscles are innervated by it.
The vagal nerve (10th cranial nerve ) is a mixed nerve carrying motor efferents and sensory afferents. The nerve conducts five distinct qualities, which are carried along general visceral efferent fibres (parasympathetic innervation of pharyngeal, laryngeal, bronchial, and gastrointestinal mucosa), general visceral afferent fibres (sensory information from the thoracic and abdominal viscera, the aortic body, aortic arch), special visceral afferent fibres (carry the taste of the epiglottal region), general somatic afferent fibres (carry sensation from the external auditory meatus, outer tympanic membrane, back of the ear, part of meninges, pharynx), and along special visceral efferent fibres, which innervate skeletal muscles of the pharynx and larynx.Skeletal muscles innervated by the vagal nerve include the cricothyroid, levator veli palatini, salpingopharyngeus, palatoglossal, palatopharyngeus pharyngeal constrictor, and the laryngeal muscles (except cricothyroid). Innervation of these muscles is involved during speech or opening of the larynx during breathing.
Efferent parasympathetic fibres control heart rate, peristalsis, and sweating. Stimulation of the efferent parasympathetic fibres lowers heart rate or blood pressure. 80-90% of the vagal fibres are afferent, only 10-20% are efferent fibres
Physical exam of the 10th cranial nerve includes eliciting the gag reflex (The gag reflex involves a brisk and brief elevation of the soft palate and bilateral contraction of pharyngeal muscles evoked by touching the posterior pharyngeal wall.), to look if the uvula is deviated from the side of the lesion, if there is failure of palate elevation upon phonation, and evaluation of speech impairment.
In case of bilateral vagal nerve lesions, heart rate and breath rate may be increased. The somatic sensory function can be assessed by testing the sensibility of the external auditory meatus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 1-year old infant is brought to the emergency by her parents with difficulty breathing. Examination reveals stridor from an oedematous airway, bilateral wheezing and low blood pressure. Which of the following medications would result in the reversal of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: Adrenaline
Explanation:Adrenaline (epinephrine) narrows blood vessels and opens airways in the lungs. These effects can reverse severe low blood pressure, wheezing, severe skin itching, hives, and other symptoms of an allergic reaction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is struck on the left eye by a tennis ball. Following the event, he immediately complains of eye discomfort and dimming of vision in the affected eye.
Three hours later, in the emergency department, the assessment of his visual acuity revealed that he can see 6/24 on a Snellen chart.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of this boy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyphaema
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be hyphaema.
The acuity has varied because the blood has been settling in the anterior chamber of the eye, thus allowing a reasonable level of visual acuity.
The size of the tennis ball (which is not as harmful as a squash ball in the eye) and the fact that it was struck from a distance would cause a moderately significant injury due to pressure to the globe.Other options:
– The absence of severe pain makes a large corneal abrasion less likely.
– Vitreous haemorrhage would lead to very poor acuity, more likely ‘hand movements only’.
– A retinal detachment or traumatic cataract would not produce such immediate symptoms, and if they did occur it would probably be in the presence of more extensive eye trauma and pain, with additional signs of both hyphaema and vitreous haemorrhage. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his parents with complaints of pain in his legs when walking.
Musculoskeletal and neurological examination is unremarkable. The blood pressure in his right arm is 160/90. His femoral pulses are present but were harder to feel than normal.
On auscultation, you find an ejection click at the base, accompanied by an ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge, but audible also at the mid-left sternal edge and back.
His ECG has findings suggestive of left ventricular hypertrophy, but his chest X-ray is normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Coarctation of Aorta (CoA).
Infants with CoA present within the first few weeks of life with signs suggestive of congestive cardiac failure and general circulatory shock. In these patients, the aorta is supplied by the right ventricle, via the ductus arteriosus.
Pathophysiology:
When the left ventricle supplies the aorta via the aortic isthmus, children are usually asymptomatic or may present with occasional complaints of leg pain.
Associated cardiac anomalies are uncommon but for a bicuspid aortic valve, which is present in approximately 50% of cases.
Good collateral circulation usually develops in these patients, which in the long term, causes notching of ribs.Clinical Presentation:
Clinically, there may be hypertension in the upper limbs (or higher BP readings than in the lower limbs), and leg pulses are absent, or weak and delayed. A systolic click and aortic ejection systolic murmur are heard, caused by the bicuspid aortic valve.Management:
The primary medical management is to treat hypertension. After stabilization, the patient can undergo definitive surgical repair.Transcatheter balloon angioplasty of the coarctation is controversial, but ballooning +/- stenting of re-coarctation following surgery is commonly performed.
Systemic hypertension may occur following repair, even in the absence of re-coarctation necessitating the re-initiation/continuation of antihypertensive therapy in these patients. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints of recurrent urinary tract infections.
As part of the diagnostic work-up, he was noted to have abnormal renal function.
An ultrasound scan is performed and shows bilateral hydronephrosis.
What is the most probable underlying condition giving rise to the child's symptoms and bilateral hydronephrosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urethral valves
Explanation:The most probable cause for the child’s presenting symptoms and the findings in ultrasound would be the presence of an abnormal posterior urethral valve.
A posterior urethral valve is a developmental anomaly that usually affects male infants (incidence 1 in 8000) leading to obstructive uropathy.
Diagnostic features include bladder wall hypertrophy, hydronephrosis and bladder diverticula.Note:
Posterior urethral valves are the most common cause of infra-vesical outflow obstruction in males. They can be diagnosed on antenatal ultrasonography.
Due to the necessity of the fetal bladder to develop high emptying pressures in utero secondary to this anomaly, the child may develop renal parenchymal damage. This leads to renal impairment noted in 70% of boys at the time of presentation.
Management:
The immediate treatment would be to place a bladder catheter to relieve the acutely retained urine.
The definitive treatment of choice would be an endoscopic valvotomy with a cystoscopic and renal follow up. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy presents with a purpuric rash on his legs and buttocks, and coffee ground emesis. The joints of his body are also painful. Blood testing reveals mild eosinophilia and a small rise in IgA levels. Urine testing reveals microscopic haematuria. Which of the following fits best with this clinical scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Explanation:Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP), also known as IgA vasculitis, is a disease of the skin, mucous membranes, and sometimes other organs that most commonly affects children. In the skin, the disease causes palpable purpura (small, raised areas of bleeding underneath the skin), often with joint pain and abdominal pain. It is an acute immunoglobulin A (IgA)-mediated disorder. The tetrad of purpura, arthritis, kidney inflammation, and abdominal pain is often observed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy was brought to the ED in an unconscious and apnoeic state. What is your immediate management of this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secure airway
Explanation:ABC : Airway, breathing, circulation is the order of assessment in any patient that is unconscious and apnoeic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A pathologist examines a histological section and identifies a clump of Reed Sternberg cells.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma
Explanation:Reed-Sternberg cells are classically associated with Hodgkin lymphoma.
Classical diagnostic Reed-Sternberg cells are large (15 to 45 micrometres), have abundant slightly basophilic or amphophilic cytoplasm and have at least two nuclear lobes or nuclei. Diagnostic Reed-Sternberg cells must have at least two nucleoli in two separate nuclear lobes. The nuclei are large and often rounded in contour with a prominent, often irregular nuclear membrane, pale chromatin and usually one prominent eosinophilic nucleolus, with perinuclear clearing (halo), resembling a viral inclusion. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents to the hospital with a body mass index (BMI) of 13.
On examination, she was found to have cold peripheries. Her vitals were:
Pulse rate: 130 bpm
Temperature: 37°C
Capillary blood glucose: 1.8 mmol/L
After drawing blood for a full blood panel, you immediately give a bolus of glucose at a dose of 2 ml/kg. Her sugar levels improve to 4 mmol/L.
What is the next step in the management of this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal saline fluid bolus; send blood culture, lactate and C-reactive protein
Explanation:The next step in the management of this patient is starting a normal saline fluid bolus, following which we should send samples for blood culture, lactate and C-reactive protein. The patient is probably a case of anorexia nervosa (AN).
Note:
Children with AN are at higher risk of developing infections, and this needs to be considered in this case. Patients with AN may not respond in the usual fashion to sepsis as they may not mount a fever in response to infection.
Hypoglycaemia (especially when severe or persistent despite correction) should raise the alarm for an infection as should tachycardia and cool peripheries. Children with severe AN are more likely to be bradycardic. Therefore, a tachycardia should cause the clinician to consider that another process is going on.Other options:
– Correcting electrolyte abnormalities is, of course, very important. However, while these are awaited, one needs to consider that this patient is septic and managed accordingly. Children with anorexia nervosa (AN) may have a whole host of electrolyte abnormalities, some of which can be treated with oral or nutritional supplementation although sometimes intravenous correction is required.
Electrolytes need to be checked frequently during admission because of the risk of refeeding syndrome, and dietetic input is required to advise on appropriate starting intake.
– While maintenance fluids like dextrose are likely to be needed in this case, consideration needs to be given to the underlying cause of the hypoglycaemia. As the sugar has come up following a glucose bolus, a 10% dextrose infusion would be excessive.
– An ECG should form a part of any assessment of a child with AN. In this case, it would not be the first thing; however, as part of the acute management of this child, cardiac monitoring should be commenced. One would usually expect a child with AN to be bradycardic so a tachycardia should raise suspicion that another process is going on.
– Dietary input will be vital for this child’s ongoing management. However, their acute issues take precedence in this case. Nevertheless, a dietician should be informed and involved from an early stage. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CO combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin
Explanation:Carbon monoxide is a colourless gas, which is toxic to animals. It has a high affinity for haemoglobin (around 250 times greater than oxygen). It combines with haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin, which decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to a left-shift in the oxygen-dissociation curve. CO is produced endogenously in limited amounts (0.4ml per hour), but the toxic levels are higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of multiple red lesions, elevated temperature and pain in multiple joints all over the body. Her symptoms started after her return from a school summer camp. On examination, she was found to have features of facial nerve injury.
Her mother observes that the rash was initially small but later transformed into a ring-like lesion. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for the child's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:The presentation of the patient and the characteristic ring-like (Bull’s eye) rash are highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. The spirochete is transmitted by Ixodid ticks.
The initial presentation of this infection includes an erythema migrans rash that starts from the site of tick bite and gradually expands. Other features supporting the diagnosis are the history of camping, fever, joint pain, and the neurological symptoms presenting as facial nerve palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following terms denote the property demonstrated by conditions where there are a variety of genetic defects, all leading to the same phenotypical manifestations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heterogeneity
Explanation:The property described in the question is heterogeneity.
Heterogeneity is when a single phenotype or genetic disorder can be caused by multiple numbers of genetic mutations.
Other options:
– Pleiotropy occurs when a single gene influences multiple phenotypic traits. The underlying mechanism is that the gene codes for a product that is used by various cells. A classic example of pleiotropy is the human disease PKU (phenylketonuria).
– The penetrance of a disease-causing mutation is the proportion of individuals with the mutation who exhibit clinical symptoms. For example, the gene responsible for a particular autosomal dominant disorder has 70% penetrance, then 70% of those with the mutation will develop the disease, while 30% will not. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 5 year old girl presents with widespread, itchy, excoriated papules that appeared three months ago. They are symmetrically distributed and more profound on the extensor surfaces of the elbows and knees. The papules are present on the trunk as well but are less remarkable. She doesn't have it anywhere else on her body and seems to be in a good health. The itchiness results in the girl to often scratching and popping the fluid-filled blisters that are present. There is no family history of atopy or other skin conditions. Which of the following is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac antibodies should be measured
Explanation:This is the clinical picture of dermatitis herpetiformis associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. To establish the diagnosis, you should measure the coeliac antibodies.
Darrier’s sign (where the skin urticates when it is stroked) is positive in urticaria pigmentosa. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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All of the following drugs tend to worsen the symptoms of myasthenia gravis except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Prednisone is used for the treatment of myasthenia gravis if there is no initial response to the anticholinesterase medications. Pyridostigmine can make the symptoms of myasthenia gravis worse if used in the initial stages of treatment.Â
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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When testing reflexes which one of the following would you not expect to find in a new-born, full-term baby?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parachute
Explanation:PARACHUTE REFLEX
This reflex occurs in slightly older infants when the child is held upright and the baby’s body is rotated quickly to face forward (as in falling). The baby will extend his arms forward as if to break a fall, even though this reflex appears long before the baby walks.
Newborn reflexes are:
Rooting reflex:
This reflex starts when the corner of the baby’s mouth is stroked or touched. The baby will turn his or her head and open his or her mouth to follow and root in the direction of the stroking. This helps the baby find the breast or bottle to start feeding. This reflex lasts about 4 months.
Suck reflex:
Moro reflex:
The Moro reflex is often called a startle reflex. That’s because it usually occurs when a baby is startled by a loud sound or movement. In response to the sound, the baby throws back his or her head, extends out his or her arms and legs, cries, then pulls the arms and legs back in. This reflex lasts until the baby is about 2 months old.
Tonic neck reflex:
When a baby’s head is turned to one side, the arm on that side stretches out and the opposite arm bends up at the elbow. This is often called the fencing position. This reflex lasts until the baby is about 5 to 7 months old.
Grasp reflex:
Stroking the palm of a baby’s hand causes the baby to close his or her fingers in a grasp. The grasp reflex lasts until the baby is about 5 to 6 months old. A similar reflex in the toes lasts until 9 to 12 months.
Stepping reflex:
This reflex is also called the walking or dance reflex because a baby appears to take steps or dance when held upright with his or her feet touching a solid surface. This reflex lasts about 2 months. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Two healthy parents have two children, one with cystic fibrosis and the other one healthy. What are the chances of the third child being a carrier?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 2
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that a person might be a carrier of the disease without developing it. If the unaffected partner is a carrier, then there is a 50% chance of inheritance and a 50% chance of having a child who is a carrier. However, if the partner is not a carrier, the offspring will not develop the disease but the possibility of being a carrier raises up to 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A child is admitted with a febrile illness. Which of the following is of concern?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 6 month old with a systolic blood pressure of 60
Explanation:Age (years) Respiratory rate (per minute) Heart rate (per minute) Systolic blood pressure
<1 30-40 110-160 70-90
1-2 25-35 100-150 80-95
2-5 25-30 95-140 80-100
5-12 20-25 80-120 90-110
>12 15-20 60-100 100-120Adapted from Advanced Paediatric Life Support Manual
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A patient has been diagnosed with severe haemophilia B (factor IX level <1%).
What is the mode of inheritance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: X-linked recessive
Explanation:Haemophilia A and haemophilia B are inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. The genes associated with these conditions are located on the X chromosome, which is one of the two sex chromosomes. In males (who have only one X chromosome), one altered copy of the gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric
Explanation:The Meckel’s diverticulum is a vestigial remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. This structure is also referred to as the vitelline and contains two types of ectopic tissue, namely; gastric and pancreatic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling down while playing. The mother reports hearing a popping sound when his face hit the floor. Examination revealed swelling and bruising on the right mandible. Which of the following investigations should be ordered next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facial XR
Explanation:The swelling and bruising on the mandible needs to be checked for fractures. A facial X-ray can adequately visualize this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following cellular components is neuron-specific?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nissl substance
Explanation:Nissl body is a neuron-specific cellular structure. It is composed of rough endoplasmic reticulum and fine granules. The rough endoplasmic reticulum contains free ribosomes, and are the hub of protein synthesis. When these substances are exposed to a cresyl violet solution, they show selective-staining by turning purple-blue. In pathologic processes, they may undergo chromatolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of easy fatiguability and severe headaches. She also complains of irregular and sporadic periods. During the examination, you notice behavioural traits that suggest a deterioration in peripheral vision. An eye exam confirms bitemporal hemianopia. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain reveals a large non-functional pituitary tumour.
Which structure does the tumour exert pressure on to cause her visual symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optic chiasm
Explanation:Bitemporal hemianopia is a characteristic finding seen in patients with optic chiasm lesion.
The pituitary gland is situated within the pituitary fossa. Just above the pituitary fossa is the optic chiasm and so any expanding masses from the pituitary gland commonly press on it, causing bitemporal hemianopia.
Other options:
– Compression of the optic nerve would not cause more severe, generalised visual loss. Also, the optic nerve is not anatomically related to the pituitary gland and so is unlikely to be directly compressed in the presence of a pituitary tumour.
– The optic tract is again not closely anatomically related with the pituitary gland and so is unlikely to be directly compressed in the presence of a pituitary tumour. Also, damage to the optic tract on one side would cause homonymous hemianopia.
– The lateral geniculate nucleus is a centre of cells in the thalamus and is unlikely to be compressed by a pituitary tumour. Its function is to convey sensory information from the optic tract to more central parts of the visual pathway.
– The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is located at the level of the superior colliculus in the midbrain and so may not be compressed by an enlarging pituitary tumour.Other visual defects:
– Left homonymous hemianopia: It is the visual field defect to the left, due to the lesion of the right optic tract.
– Homonymous quadrantanopias are seen in parietal (inferior homonymous quadrantopia) and temporal lobe lesions (superior homonymous quadrantopia). Mnemonic: PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior)A congruous defect means complete or symmetrical visual field loss, and conversely, an incongruous defect is incomplete or asymmetric.
Incongruous defects suggest an optic tract lesion, while congruous defects suggest optic radiation or occipital cortex lesion. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of her breasts and light hair on the border of the labia majora. Her mother worries she might be having premature puberty. What is her Tanner stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: II
Explanation:Tanner stage two presents with the following: Downy hair, Breast bud palpable under areola (1st pubertal sign in females).
Stage 1 (prepubertal) – elevation of papilla only – no pubic hair
Stage 2 – breast bud forms – sparse, slightly pigmented hair on labia majora
Stage 3 – Breast begins to become elevated, extends beyond areola borders – hair becomes more coarse and curly
Stage 4 – increased size and elevation. Areola and papilla form secondary mound – adult like, but sparing medial thighs
Stage 5 – final size, areola returns but papilla remains projected – hair extends to medial thighs -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Phagocytosis is the function of which of the following glial cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microglia
Explanation:The central nervous system comprises of two types of cells; neurons and neuroglial cells. Glial cells are the support cells that serve a number of important functions. Three types of neuroglia comprise the mature nervous system, which are ependymal cells, microglia, and macroglia. The macroglia are of two types oligodendrocytes and astrocytes. Microglia are the neuroglial cells that serve the function of phagocytosis since they are derived from the hematopoietic stem cells and share properties with tissue macrophages. They remove the cellular debris from the site of injury or normal cellular turnover by performing scavenger function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and is threatening preterm labour. The parents would like to know the statistics relating to survival and outcome if their baby is born at this gestation.
Which particular study would be useful to review before this consultation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: EPICURE
Explanation:EPICure is a series of studies of survival and later health among babies and young people who were born at extremely low gestations -from 22 to 26 weeks.
Boost II is a double-blind randomised controlled trial (RCT) comparing the effects of targeting arterial oxygen saturations between 85% and 89% versus 91% and 95% in preterm infants.
OSCAR Xe is not the name of a study. Baby-OSCAR is an RCT to determine whether a confirmed large patent ductus arteriosus in very premature babies should be treated with ibuprofen within 72 hours of birth.
SafeBoosC is a trial to examine if it is possible to stabilise the cerebral oxygenation of extremely preterm infants in the first 72 hours of life with the use of NIRS oximetry and a clinical treatment guideline.
TOBY Xe is an RCT looking at the neuroprotective effects of hypothermia combined with inhaled xenon following perinatal asphyxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was admitted with a fever, productive cough, anorexia and weight loss. On examination she was febrile and tachycardic. Her mother said that the girl was not thriving well. Which of the following organisms is responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas
Explanation:History of recurrent infections and failure to thrive (probably due to pancreatic enzyme insufficiency) is highly suggestive of cystic fibrosis. Pseudomonas has been identified as an important respiratory pathogen in patients with cystic fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy is hit by a car at a speed of 40 mph.
He sustained a head injury and was intubated at the scene due to reduced GCS. In the emergency department, he is stable with no chest abnormalities on examination. Some bruising was noted in the lower abdomen.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate imaging modalities to be used in this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis with CXR
Explanation:The most appropriate imaging modalities to be used in this child would be CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis and chest X-ray (CXR).
The C-spine cannot be cleared, this alongside a multi-trauma presentation means a CT C-spine is indicated rather than X-rays alone. The imaging modality for blunt trauma to the chest is CXR; if this shows significant thoracic trauma, a CT chest should be considered.
Other options:
– CT Head and Abdomen/Pelvis with CXR and X-ray C-spine: This child is at risk of C-Spine injury following the mechanism of trauma. He had a reduced GCS, has undergone a multi-region trauma and is now intubated. NICE head injury guidelines, therefore, recommend using CT.
– CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis X-rays: Imaging of the chest is required following blunt trauma and for endotracheal tube position.
– MRI Head: If there were concerns of abnormal neurology, then spinal MRI could be considered.
– Whole-body CT: It is not recommended in children in view of the high radiation doses. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following classification systems is used for categorizing scaphoid fractures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herbert classification
Explanation:Scaphoid fractures are regarded as fractures that are difficult to heal, so a classification system is needed taking different factors into account that should lead towards proper guidance to the healing time and management of these fractures. Popular classification criteria are Herbert, Russe, and Mayo classification systems. Herbert’s classification system is based on the fracture’s stability and proposes that all complete bicortical fractures (except for tubercle fractures) are unstable. Salter-Harris classification is used for categorizing epiphyseal fractures, while Delbert classification system is reserved for fractures of the proximal femur in children. Fractures of the ankles are classified using Ottawa rules, and Garland classification is used for supracondylar fractures in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which among the following is a type of acquired anterior pituitary disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pituitary adenoma
Explanation:Among the given options, pituitary adenoma is an acquired anterior pituitary disorder which represent between 10 and 25% of all intracranial neoplasms.
Other options:
– Agenesis of the corpus callosum is characterised by the partial or complete absence of the corpus callosum. This condition is associated with pituitary hormone deficiencies.
– Congenital disorders such as hydrocephalus or arachnoid cysts may be a cause of precocious puberty.
– Pituitary hypoplasia and septo-optic dysplasia are congenital disorders of the pituitary gland. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not associated with DiGeorge syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal IQ
Explanation:DiGeorge syndrome is one of the most common microdeletion syndromes, resulting from 22q11 deletion. 10% of the cases can be inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, while 90% are sporadic. The syndrome is characterized by a deficiency of both T and B-cell lines along with hearing loss, 20-fold increased lifetime chances of developing schizophrenia, renal abnormalities, congenital heart defects, and a borderline or low IQ. Distinctive facial features include micrognathia, long face, short philtrum, cleft palate, and small teeth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 32
Incorrect
-
Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following diseases?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Advanced paternal age is associated with poor quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility along with an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, Marfan’s syndrome, neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor. Turner syndrome is not found to be caused by advanced paternal age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old child who is undergoing assisted ventilation following traumatic brain injury develops new-onset bradycardia and hypertension.
Which of the following can improve his current condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mannitol 20%
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 34
Incorrect
-
Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
Explanation:Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is a genetic disorder inherited in autosomal dominant fashion. It is caused by the mutations of the VHL gene located on chromosome 3. The syndrome is characterized by the creation of multiple benign and malignant tumours involving various bodily systems along with the formation of numerous visceral cysts, including the renal and epididymal cysts.
Down’s syndrome is associated with renal cysts, but it does not follow the autosomal dominant mode of inheritance, rather it is caused by non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis.
Exomphalos is a defect of the medial abdominal wall leading to abnormal protrusion of abdominal viscera through it. It is not associated with renal cysts.
Turner’s syndrome may be associated with renal cysts formation, but it is not transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion.
Polycystic kidney disease of childhood follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 35
Incorrect
-
A well, breastfed term infant presented with jaundice at 36 hours of age. The serum bilirubin was 286 µmol/L, direct Coombs test negative, blood film showed spherocytes and reticulocytes. The baby's blood group was A rhesus negative and mother's blood group O Rhesus negative.
Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ABO incompatibility
Explanation:Haemolytic disease of the new-born due to ABO incompatibility is usually less severe than Rh incompatibility. One reason is that fetal RBCs express less of the ABO blood group antigens compared with adult levels. In addition, in contrast to the Rh antigens, the ABO blood group antigens are expressed by a variety of fetal (and adult) tissues, reducing the chances of anti-A and anti-B binding their target antigens on the fetal RBCs.
ABO HDN occurs almost exclusively in the offspring of women of blood group O, although reports exist of occasional cases in group A mothers with high-titre anti-(group B) IgG
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 5 month old boy presents with unilateral jerking of the arm, followed by generalised shaking. Doctors suspect he might have experienced a fit. History taking and clinical examination shows he has a macular erythematous lesion under the right lower eyelid which has been present since birth. The lesion has not changed in size and aspect. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sturge-Weber syndrome
Explanation:Sturge-Weber syndrome is a genetic condition affecting various blood vessels. I causes brain, eye, and skin abnormalities, including three major features: port-wine birthmark, leptomeningeal angioma, and glaucoma. Most people are born with a port-wine birthmark that is usually located on the face, including the eyelid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 16-month-old infant presented to ER with multiple bruises on his right arm. According to his mom, he has been unable to move it since yesterday and is crying more than usual. A relative attended the child while his mother was on a night shift. X-ray revealed a fracture of the right humerus, which was put in a cast. What is the next step in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit under care of paediatrician
Explanation:Certain lesions present on x-ray are suggestive of child abuse including rib, humerus and skull fractures. It is the doctors responsibility to follow up on these cases to determine whether domestic abuse has occurred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Question 39
Incorrect
-
Which of the following patient populations is most likely to present with primary vesicoureteric reflux?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: New-born girls
Explanation:Vesicoureteric reflex (VUR) is described as the retrograde flow of urine from the bladder into the ureter due to an incompetent uterovesical junction. In primary VUR the lower urinary tract functions normally, while secondary VUR is associated with a poorly functioning lower urinary tract. The incidence of VUR is highest in new-born girls. They can present with hydronephrosis, or urinary tract infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 40
Incorrect
-
Which of the given laboratory findings is NOT suggestive of Fanconi syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haematuria
Explanation:Fanconi syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by defective proximal renal tubular reabsorption, which leads to excessive excretion of potassium, phosphate, uric acid, bicarbonates, glucose, and certain amino acids in the urine. Loss of potassium in the urine leads to hypokalaemia, while the loss of phosphate may lead to hypophosphatemic rickets. The overall impact is the failure to thrive and growth retardation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following skin conditions is matched correctly with its treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:One of the options of Psoriasis treatment is vitamin D analogues i.e. calcipotriol. Acne is exacerbated by steroids. Erythema nodosum can be caused by various diseases and the treatment of the primary condition resolves the symptoms. Lipomas requires surgery, whereas Steven-Johnson syndrome requires use of steroids and eliminating the culprit drug, which is one of the most common causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 42
Incorrect
-
An abnormal red reflex is NOT a characteristic feature of which of the following ocular pathologies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amblyopia
Explanation:The red reflex examination is an important part of the paediatric ocular assessment. The red reflex is abnormal in conditions like retinoblastoma, retinopathy of prematurity, cataract, and retinal detachment.
Amblyopia is a cortical developmental disorder that results in defective visual inputs to both the eyes. The disorder occurs during the cortical plasticity stage of embryonic development. The red reflex is normal in this case since there is no hindrance to the reflection of light from the ocular media and fundus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presents with multiple non-healing ulcers, poor dentition, bleeding gums and pale conjunctivae. She also complains of easy fatiguability.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:The clinical scenario presented is highly suggestive of vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy).
Vitamin C is found in citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, Brussel sprouts, cauliflower, broccoli, cabbage and spinach.
Deficiency leads to impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue.
Scurvy is associated with severe malnutrition as well as drug and alcohol abuse, and those living in poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.Symptoms and signs include:
– Follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage
– Ecchymosis
– Gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums
– Sjogren’s syndrome
– Arthralgia
– Oedema
– Impaired wound healing
– Generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia and depression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 44
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding female puberty?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenarche occurs before thelarche
Explanation:Puberty is the general term for the transition from sexual immaturity to sexual maturity. There are two main physiological events in puberty:
– Gonadarche is the activation of the gonads by the pituitary hormones follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
– Adrenarche is the increase in production of androgens by the adrenal cortex. It is the term for the maturational increase in adrenal androgen production that normally becomes biochemically apparent at approximately six years of age in both girls and boysA number of other terms describe specific components of puberty:
– Thelarche is the appearance of breast tissue, which is primarily due to the action of oestradiol from the ovaries.
– Menarche is the time of first menstrual bleed.
– Pubarche is the appearance of pubic hair, which is primarily due to the effects of androgens from the adrenal gland. The term is also applied to first appearance of axillary hair, apocrine body odour, and acne.The earliest detectable secondary sexual characteristic on physical examination in most girls is breast/areolar development (thelarche). Ovarian enlargement and growth acceleration typically precede breast development but are not apparent on a single physical examination. Oestrogen stimulation of the vaginal mucosa causes a physiologic leukorrhea, which is a thin, white, non-foul-smelling vaginal discharge that typically begins 6 to 12 months before menarche. Menarche occurs, on average, 2 to 2.5 years after the onset of puberty
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 45
Incorrect
-
A 9-year-old child presents with fever, hypertension and haematuria, two weeks after an episode of infective diarrhoea.
Which of the following is a possible diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is a clinical syndrome characterized by progressive renal failure that is associated with microangiopathic (nonimmune, Coombs-negative) haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. HUS is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in children. It predominantly occurs in infants and children after prodromal diarrhoea. In summer epidemics, the disease may be related to infectious causes.
Bacterial infections may include the following:
S dysenteriae
E Coli
Salmonella typhi
Campylobacter jejuni
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
Neisseria meningitidis
S pneumonia
Legionella pneumophila
Mycoplasma species
Rickettsial infections may include Rocky Mountain spotted fever and microtatobiotesViral infections may include the following:
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Coxsackievirus
Echovirus
Influenza virus
Epstein-Barr virus
Herpes simplex virus
Fungal infections can include Aspergillus fumigatus.Vaccinations may include the following:
Influenza triple-antigen vaccine
Typhoid-paratyphoid A and B (TAB) vaccine
Polio vaccinePregnancy-associated HUS occasionally develops as a complication of preeclampsia. Patients may progress to full-blown haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets (HELLP) syndrome. Postpartum HUS usually occurs within 3 months of delivery. The prognosis is poor, with a 50-60% mortality rate, and residual renal dysfunction and hypertension occur in most patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her parents state she suffers from haemophilia and has been treated for a right-sided haemarthrosis previously. What other condition is she most likely to have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder. In X-linked recessive inheritance only males are affected. An exception to this seen in examinations are patients with Turner’s syndrome, who are affected due to only having one X chromosome. X-linked recessive disorders are transmitted by heterozygote females (carriers) and male-to-male transmission is not seen. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There is a known local outbreak of E coli 0157:H7, and his initial bloods show evidence of acute renal failure. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following investigation results would be expected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fragmented red blood cells
Explanation:The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli. The laboratory results will usually include fragmented RBCs, decreased serum haptoglobin, reduced platelet count, nonspecific WBC changes, and normal coagulation tests (PTT included).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 48
Incorrect
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An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency department after having an episode of generalised tonic-clonic seizures. The seizures started at 10:55. The paramedics gave him buccal midazolam at 11:04 and waited for the seizures to end, until 11:06. Afterwards, they gave him oxygen via face mask and set up a venous line. His blood glucose at that moment was 5.2 mmol/L and he remained unconscious during the whole trip to the hospital. The paramedics arrived at the emergency department at 11:16 and you observe that he has a patent airway and a good air entry. His RR is 12 and his O2 saturation is 98% on 10L O2. His heart rate is 122 bpm and his CRT is 2 seconds. At 11:19, you observe that the child is not responsive to pain and he starts experiencing subtle but persistent jerking movements of his jaw and left upper limb. You notice that the child's pupils are deviated to the right and are bilaterally constricted. It's 11:20. What should you do next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer IV lorazepam now
Explanation:NICE guidelines suggest that at the premonitory stage (pre-hospital) the patient should receive Diazepam 10−20 mg given rectally, or midazolam 10 mg given buccally. If seizures continue, the patient should receive lorazepam IV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old autistic boy arrives at the clinic with lethargy, curly corkscrew like hair and petechiae. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:Presentation can vary by individual. Early stages are often characterized by malaise, fatigue, and lethargy. One to 3 months of inadequate intake can lead to anaemia, myalgia, bone pain, easy bruising (Figure 3), swelling, petechiae, perifollicular haemorrhages, corkscrew hairs, gum disease, poor wound healing, mood changes, and depression. Perifollicular haemorrhages and easy bruising are often first seen in the lower extremities, as capillary fragility leads to an inability to withstand hydrostatic pressure. Late stages of scurvy are more severe and life threatening; common manifestations include generalized oedema, severe jaundice, haemolysis, acute spontaneous bleeding, neuropathy, fever, convulsions, and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are located in the scrotum and are small and soft. What is the most likely diagnosis for this boy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kallmann's syndrome
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis in this patient is Kallmann’s syndrome.
Kallmann’s syndrome is due to isolated gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency. It is often inherited in an X-linked recessive manner.Other options:
– While Klinefelter’s syndrome is also associated with hypogonadism, the other clinical features of Klinefelter’s are not seen.
– Cryptorchidism is ruled out by the presence of testes in the scrotum.
– The presentation of the child is not suggestive of mumps orchitis or hyperprolactinaemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 51
Incorrect
-
A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT a cause of QT prolongation in this boy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome
Explanation:Normal QT interval in a 6 months old baby is < 0.44 seconds. A duration exceeding this value is referred to as QT interval prolongation, which is associated with some important congenital syndromes that include Brugada syndrome which is characterized by vasovagal syncope and sudden cardiac death, Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome which is associated with congenital deafness, Andersen syndrome which is marked by bone deformities, and Timothy syndrome with associated heart disease and immunodeficiency.
Romano-Ward syndrome is the commonest cause of congenital QT prolongation with no associated extra-cardiac manifestations.
Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome is characterized by a shortened PR interval and a normal QRS duration. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 5 week old boy with pyloric stenosis is vomiting forcefully. Which of the following findings would you expect to be in his blood results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Progressive vomiting due to pyloric stenosis leads to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic, metabolic alkalosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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The mother of 6 months old girl tests positive for HIV. Doctors test her daughter as well and the results turn out to be positive for HIV, both by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and serology. The girl is clinically healthy and seems to attain normal developmental milestones. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start co-trimoxazole prophylaxis immediately and plan to start antiretrovirals once further work-up is complete
Explanation:Infants exposed to maternal HIV and with positive results require immediate management with co-trimoxazole prophylaxis, regardless of their CD4 levels. Antiretroviral treatment is necessary as well but it could wait until further work-up is complete.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 54
Incorrect
-
Which of the following features is consistent with ventricular septal defect (VSD) murmur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Short diamond shaped diastolic murmur after the third heart sound
Explanation:Auscultatory findings of VSD vary with the size of the defect. Small VSDs typically produce murmurs ranging from a grade 1 to 2/6 high-pitched, short systolic murmur (due to tiny defects that actually close during late systole) to a grade 3 to 4/6 holosystolic murmur (with or without thrill) at the lower left sternal border; this murmur is usually audible within the first few days of life (see table Heart Murmur Intensity). The precordium is not hyperactive, and the 2nd heart sound (S2) is normally split and has normal intensity.
Moderate to large VSDs produce a holosystolic murmur that is present by age 2 to 3 wk; S2 is usually narrowly split with an accentuated pulmonary component. An apical diastolic rumble (due to increased flow through the mitral valve) and findings of heart failure (e.g., tachypnoea, dyspnoea with feeding, failure to thrive, gallop, crackles, hepatomegaly) may be present. In moderate, high-flow VSDs, the murmur is often very loud and accompanied by a thrill (grade 4 or 5 murmur). With large defects allowing equalization of left ventricular and right ventricular pressures, the systolic murmur is often attenuated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 55
Incorrect
-
A 13-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital and scheduled for an elective cardiac surgery. There is no respiratory distress, but cyanosis is present with oxygen saturations at 80s. There is a midline sternotomy scar. On auscultation there is a 4/6 ejection systolic murmur on the upper left sternal edge and a sternal heave is felt on palpation. Which of the following is the child most likely suffering from and what is the likely treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary artery band
Explanation:The murmur and thrill indicate a right outflow tract murmur, coupled with the right ventricular heave suggests right ventricular hypertrophy. The VSD would not have been amenable to surgery due to the child’s size/weight and so instead would have been palliated with a PA band. As the child grows, this band progressively restricts pulmonary blood flow until the left to right shunt has reversed. Then it is time for the band to be removed and the VSD to be closed.
Pulmonary atresia is a cyanotic condition, which may be palliated with an arterial duct stent. This answer is incorrect as the stent placement would not require a midline sternotomy and would give a continuous machinery type murmur.
Pulmonary stenosis with PDA ligation is incorrect. The murmur, thrill, and heave all match a pulmonary stenosis but in the absence of an additional shunt lesion the child would not be cyanosed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus about two weeks ago and started on an insulin pump. Which of the following complications is least likely to occur due to the treatment modality adopted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lipoatrophy
Explanation:Among the given options, lipoatrophy takes time to develop as it is a long-term complication of insulin therapy. Since it has only been two weeks since the initiation of insulin therapy, it is unlikely to occur so early.
The risk of lipoatrophy is reduced with newer insulins and also can be avoided by site rotation.
However, anaphylaxis, allergic reactions, infection and abscesses at the site of an insulin pump can occur in this patient as a complication of insulin therapy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy is scheduled for a repair of an inguinal hernia. Which of the following structures must be divided to gain access to the inguinal canal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:External oblique forms the outermost muscle of the three muscles comprising the anterolateral aspect of the abdominal wall. Its aponeurosis comprises the anterior wall of the inguinal canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 58
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:
Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180)
Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45)
Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4)
White cell count 60 per ml (<5)
Lymphocytes 90%
Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viral meningitis
Explanation:Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 59
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ewing's sarcoma
Explanation:Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 60
Incorrect
-
A young male sustains a skull-base fracture at the middle cranial fossa which injures his right abducent (VI) nerve.
Which signs are most likely to be present on clinical examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient is unable to deviate his right eye laterally
Explanation:Cranial nerve VI, also known as the abducent nerve, innervates the ipsilateral lateral rectus (LR), which functions to abduct the ipsilateral eye.
Patients usually present with an isolated abduction deficit, binocular horizontal diplopia, worse in the distance, and esotropia in primary gaze. Patients also may present with a head-turn to maintain binocularity and binocular fusion and to minimize diplopia
Examination for a sixth nerve palsy involves documenting the presence or absence of papilledema, examining the ocular motility, evaluating the eyelids and pupils, and excluding involvement of other cranial nerves (e.g., V, VII, VIII). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 61
Incorrect
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The differentiation of type I and type II epithelial cells in the developing lung is evident in which gestational age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Canalicular: 16-24 weeks gestation
Explanation:The differentiation between type 1 and type 2 epithelia in the developing lung buds is evident from 16-24 weeks of gestation.
Development of the respiratory tract has five stages:
– Embryonic (at 4 – 5 weeks of gestation):
Formation of lung buds, trachea and mainstem bronchi occur. These structures are formed from a ventral outpouching of foregut pharynx. At this stage, the beginnings of the five lung lobes are present.
– Pseudoglandular (at 5 – 16 weeks of gestation):
Formation of terminal bronchioles, cartilage and smooth muscles occur in this stage.
– Canalicular (at 16-24 weeks gestation):
Differentiation of type I and II epithelial cells can be done in this stage. There is also an increase in the size of proximal airways).
– Saccular (at 24 – 40 weeks of gestation): Terminal saccule formation occurs. Production of surfactant takes place at this stage with an increase in the number of goblet cells
Up to half the adult number of alveoli are in place by this stage.
– Alveolar (occurs between 32 weeks of gestation till the post-natal age 8): Formation of alveoli and septation occurs with the expansion of air spaces. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 62
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystinosis
Explanation:Cystinosis is a condition characterized by accumulation of the amino acid cystine (a building block of proteins) within cells.
This condition is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.
Excess cystine damages cells and often forms crystals that can build up and cause problems in many organs and tissues. The kidneys and eyes are especially vulnerable to damage; the muscles, thyroid, pancreas, and testes may also be affected.
There are three distinct types of cystinosis. In order of decreasing severity, they are nephropathic cystinosis, intermediate cystinosis, and non-nephropathic or ocular cystinosis.
Nephropathic cystinosis begins in infancy, causing poor growth and a particular type of kidney damage (renal Fanconi syndrome) in which certain molecules that should be reabsorbed into the bloodstream are instead eliminated in the urine. The kidney problems lead to the loss of important minerals, salts, fluids, and many other nutrients. The loss of nutrients impairs growth and may result in soft, bowed bones (hypophosphatemic rickets), especially in the legs. The nutrient imbalances in the body lead to increased urination, thirst, dehydration, and abnormally acidic blood (acidosis). By about the age of 2, cystine crystals may be present in the clear covering of the eye (cornea). The build-up of these crystals in the eye causes pain and an increased sensitivity to light (photophobia). Untreated children will experience complete kidney failure by about the age of 10. Other signs and symptoms that may occur in untreated people, especially after adolescence, include muscle deterioration, blindness, inability to swallow, diabetes, thyroid and nervous system problems, and an inability to father children (infertility) in affected men.
The signs and symptoms of intermediate cystinosis are the same as nephropathic cystinosis, but they occur at a later age. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 63
Incorrect
-
Which of the following scales is NOT used to measure the impact of eczema?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eczema Severity Questionnaire
Explanation:Eczema is an immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the skin characterized by intense pruritis and scaly rashes over the body. The impact of the disease can be measured by using certain scales, which include the Dermatitis Family Impact (DFI) Questionnaire, infant’s Dermatitis Quality of Life Index, Patient-oriented Eczema Measure, and Children’s Dermatology Life Quality Index among many others. Eczema severity questionnaire is not a recognized scale to determine eczema impact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct
Explanation:The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 65
Incorrect
-
A term baby with a birth weight of 3.6 kg with hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy is intubated and ventilated. Cooling treatment has started. The baby is sedated and paralysed and is being ventilated on the mode continuous mandatory ventilation (CMV). Settings are: targeted tidal volume 14 ml, maximum PIP 25, PEEP 5, rate 60/min, FiO2 0.21. Baby's oxygen saturations are 100%. Blood gas shows pH 7.47, CO2 2.8 kPa, BE -6.
What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease rate
Explanation:Ventilatory rates of 40-60 breaths/min should be provided initially, with proportionally fewer assisted breaths provided if the infant’s spontaneous respiratory efforts increase. Although this practice has not been extensively studied, initial inflation of the new-born’s lungs with either slow-rise or square-wave inflation to a pressure of 30-40 cm H2 O for approximately 5 seconds has been reported to result in more rapid formation of Functional Residual Capacity (FRC).
At the moment of delivery and first breath, the neonatal lung is converting from a fetal non-aerated status to a neonatal status. The neonatal lung requires gas exchange, and this necessitates the development of FRC with the resorption of lung fluid and the resolution of most of the atelectasis. Therefore, initial slow ventilation with more prolonged inspiratory times may be useful to assist in this task, balanced against the need to avoid inappropriate inspiratory pressures.
Flow-controlled, pressure-limited mechanical devices are acceptable for delivering PPV. These mechanical devices control flow and limit pressure and be more consistent than bags. Self-inflating and flow-inflating bags remain a standard of care. Laryngeal mask airways are effective for assisted ventilation when bag-mask ventilation and intubation are unsuccessful. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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Achondroplasia is NOT associated with which of the following cranial abnormalities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prominent maxilla
Explanation:Achondroplasia is one of the commonest forms of skeletal dysplasias that lead to dwarfism. Multiple skeletal deformities are associated with it but the common cranial abnormalities are macrocephaly, frontal bossing, depressed nasal bridge, narrowed foramen magnum, and the presence of communicating hydrocephalus. A prominent maxilla is not associated with achondroplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl takes a deliberate, unknown number of paracetamol tablets in one go. She immediately regrets her actions and calls for help.
She was brought to the hospital 2 hours after consuming the tablets. She has a history of HIV and is on antiretroviral therapy, though she cannot recall the name of the medication.
Which of the following management options is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check paracetamol level in further 2 hours' time
Explanation:According to the Rumack-Matthew Normogram, accurate levels of paracetamol can be measured only between 4-15 hours. The levels measured before 4 hours post-ingestion would highly underestimate the level of paracetamol ingested.
The patient in question presents 2 hours after ingestion. Hence the most appropriate time to measure the levels of acetaminophen would be a further 2 hours later.Other options:
– Note that the treatment with NAC can be delayed until the 4-hour level is obtained and compared to the nomogram.
– Furthermore, haemodialysis is only indicated if she develops hepato-renal syndrome that is likely to occur 72-96 hours post-ingestion.
– Indications for acute liver transplantation include persistent acidosis, hepatorenal syndrome and worsening coagulopathy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 68
Incorrect
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Which of the given features is correct regarding coarctation of aorta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70% of patients have bicuspid aortic valves
Explanation:Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases Occurring in about 1 in 2,500 births. It is characterized by a congenitally narrowed proximal thoracic aorta. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve in 70% of the cases and berry aneurysms in 10% of the cases. Coarctation of the aorta is commonly found in association with Turner’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, and Patau syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old female presented with complaints of haematuria and fatigue. She had a history of bloody diarrhoea starting 7 days previously. On investigation, her serum urea and creatinine were raised and proteinuria was present. Which of the following is the most suitable diagnosis for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)
Explanation:HUS syndrome occurs mostly in children after some days of bloody diarrhoea. Damaged red blood cells also damage the kidney filtering unit and lead to sudden renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 70
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions result in a rash involving the palms and soles of the extremities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tinea corporis
Explanation:Tinea corporis is a type of dermatophytosis, caused by Trichophyton or Microsporum. The disease is highly contagious and rapidly spreads to all the areas of the body. It produces an itchy rash with a central area of clearance surrounded by raised scaly borders. Diagnosis can be made by skin examination. All other mentioned conditions do not affect the palms and soles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency by his parents with worsening ataxia. They also mention that the boy's urine has a distinct sweet odour. Further investigations reveal the presence of leucine, isoleucine and valine in the urine. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maple Syrup Urine Disease
Explanation:Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder affecting branched-chain amino acids. It is one type of organic academia. The condition gets its name from the distinctive sweet odour of affected infants’ urine, particularly prior to diagnosis, and during times of acute illness. MSUD, also known as branched-chain ketoaciduria, is an aminoacidopathy due to an enzyme defect in the catabolic pathway of the branched-chain amino acids leucine, isoleucine, and valine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 72
Incorrect
-
Which is not a variation of lichen planus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sclerotic
Explanation:The clinical presentation of lichen planus has several variations, as follows:
– Hypertrophic lichen planus
– Atrophic lichen planus
– Erosive/ulcerative lichen planus
– Follicular lichen planus (lichen planopilaris)
– Annular lichen planus
– Linear lichen planus
– Vesicular and bullous lichen planus
– Actinic lichen planus
– Lichen planus pigmentosus
– Lichen planus pemphigoides -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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Which of the following neonatal skin conditions is NOT benign?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midline lumbosacral lipoma
Explanation:A lumbosacral lipoma is a form of congenital spinal lipoma and can be regarded as a cutaneous marker of dysraphism. It is not a skin condition but rather represents a defect in the process of neurulation and leads to a constellation of other abnormalities. The most common other systemic abnormalities associated with midline lumbosacral lipoma include complex anorectal and urological malformations. Other mentioned conditions are benign rashes or birthmarks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A randomised controlled trial of a new treatment for hypertension yields a P-value of 0.00036.
Which one of the following gives the best interpretation of this information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To understand the clinical importance of the treatment we should also consider the confidence interval for the difference
Explanation:The level of statistical significance is often expressed as a p-value between 0 and 1. The smaller the p-value, the stronger the evidence that you should reject the null hypothesis.
A p-value less than 0.05 (typically ≤ 0.05) is statistically significant. It indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis, as there is less than a 5% probability the null is correct (and the results are random). Therefore, we reject the null hypothesis, and accept the alternative hypothesis.
However, this does not mean that there is a 95% probability that the research hypothesis is true. The p-value is conditional upon the null hypothesis being true is unrelated to the truth or falsity of the research hypothesis.
A lower p-value is sometimes interpreted as meaning there is a stronger relationship between two variables. However, statistical significance means that it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true (less than 5%).To understand the strength of the difference between two groups (control vs. experimental) a researcher needs to calculate the effect size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. His family is originally from Ghana.
An ultrasound shows evidence of gallstones. What is the most likely risk factor for the child to develop gallstones?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sickle cell disease
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely risk factor in this child to develop gallstones is sickle cell disease.
Note:
Haemolysis is the most frequent cause for gallstones in children and the likeliest cause because of his ethnicity would be sickle cell disease. The gallstones are pigmented which form from bilirubin. 70% of patients with sickle cell disease will develop gallstones; the prevalence of gallstones is related to the rate of haemolysis.Other options:
– Gilbert’s syndrome: it is a common condition in which bilirubin glucuronidation (i.e. converting bilirubin into a water-soluble form) is affected. During times of stress (viral illness, fasting, etc.) there is an excess bilirubin production, and jaundice may develop. It is a benign condition but there is some evidence of an increased risk of developing gallstones. However, sickle cell disease is a more likely risk factor in this case.
– Hereditary spherocytosis: Hereditary spherocytosis is a disease of the white population and is less likely to be the underlying cause in this case.
– Male gender: After puberty, the incidence of gallstones is higher in women. Before puberty, the incidence is equal.
– Obesity: Obesity is a risk factor for gallstones and is thought to be behind the rising incidence among young adults. Nevertheless, haemolytic states remain the most common reason for gallstones in children. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is brought to the hospital following a road traffic accident. A diagnosis of splenic laceration was made, and a splenectomy was performed.
Which among the following blood film findings is not a feature associated with hyposplenism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombocytopenia
Explanation:Hyposplenism is associated with thrombocytosis.
Other features of hyposplenism are:
– Howell-Jolly bodies and acanthocytosis, occurring secondary to haemolysis.
– Pappenheimer bodies: These are granular deposits of iron found within the RBCs.
– Lymphocytosis and monocytosis.
Causes for hyposplenism include:
– Congenital asplenia
– Iatrogenic splenectomy: Following trauma or treatment for ITP, thalassemia or spherocytosis).
– Autosplenectomy: Secondary to sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, essential thrombocythemia or splenic arterial thrombosis). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding precocious puberty?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is treated with LHRH agonists
Explanation:Precocious puberty refers to the appearance of physical and hormonal signs of pubertal development at an earlier age than is considered normal.
Most patients, particularly girls suspected of having central precocious puberty, are otherwise healthy children whose pubertal maturation begins at the early end of the normal distribution curve
In a series of more than 200 patients evaluated at a single medical centre, central precocious puberty occurred 5 times more often in girls than boys.
GnRH-dependent precocious puberty is treated with GnRH agonists or Luteinizing Hormone Releasing Hormone (LHRH).
Follow up every 4-6 months to ensure that progression of puberty has been arrested
Favourable signs include normalization of accelerated growth, reduction (or at least no increase) in size of breasts, and suppression of gonadotropin levels after a challenge of GnRH
The ideal testing frequency has not been established. Monitor bone age yearly to confirm that the rapid advancement seen in the untreated state has slowed, typically to a half year of bone age per year or less -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy is presented with arthritis, cough and non-blanching purpura. His coagulation profile is normal. His CBC: Hb 11.8 TLC 7.2*10^9 Plt 286*10^9. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
Explanation:The best answer is Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP). This patient has a characteristic rash and the labs are consistent with this diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 5 week old boy presents for developmental assessment. Clinical examination reveals a bluish, well-circumscribed lesion located on the bridge of the nose. It measures 5 mm in diameter and feels firm to the touch. Parents admit that the mass was not present at birth. They have noticed that the lesion gets bigger when the baby cries and then it gets back to its initial size. Doctors suspect a capillary haemangioma. What would you advise the parents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange follow-up for the child in the outpatient clinic to monitor the growth of the lesion over the coming weeks
Explanation:Capillary haemangiomas (strawberry naevi) are very common benign tumours that may appear in infancy. This particular case requires a close follow-up to monitor the naevus’ size and make sure it doesn’t expand or gets bigger, affecting the baby’s visual field.
It is more common in preterm babies and girls are 3x more commonly affected than boys. It presents at birth in 30%, and is a focal and solitary in 80% of cases, most commonly found on the head and neck (60%), followed by the trunk (25%) and extremities (15%).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positive mineral oil mount is diagnostic
Explanation:The diagnosis of scabies can often be made clinically in patients with a pruritic rash and characteristic linear burrows. Definitive testing relies on the identification of mites or their eggs, eggshell fragments, or scybala. This is best undertaken by placing a drop of mineral oil directly over the burrow on the skin and then superficially scraping longitudinally and laterally across the skin with a scalpel blade. (Avoid causing bleeding.) Scraping 15 or more burrows often produces only 1 or 2 eggs or mites, except in a case of crusted scabies, in which many mites will be present.
The sample is placed on a microscope slide and examined under low and high power. Potassium hydroxide should not be used, since it can dissolve mite pellets. Failure to find mites is common and does not rule out the diagnosis of scabies. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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An infant presents with a rash to her body consisting of greasy yellow crusted lesions. Her mother complains that the child has been experiencing chronic diarrhoea and recurrent skin infections.
She is non-febrile, but her growth chart is highly suggestive of failure to thrive.
The constellation of symptoms present in this child suggests which of the following conditions?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leiner's disease
Explanation:Based on the patient’s presentation, he’s probably suffering from
Leiner’s diseaseLeiner’s disease is a severe generalised form of seborrhoeic dermatitis. It is also associated with recurrent diarrhoea, recurrent skin and internal infections, and failure to thrive.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common and self-limiting condition in childhood. Lesions affect the scalp (cradle cap), and sometimes the ear, nose, and eyebrows. It is characterised by greasy yellow or yellow-brown scales.
There is an association with Malassezia, and the lesions are a reaction to this yeast, rather than caused by it.
It is most common in the 6-12 month age group. Simple brushing with a soft bristle brush, use of oil or emollient, and ketoconazole 2% shampoo are all treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy with a history of pharyngitis 10 days ago, presents with periorbital oedema. You perform a urine dipstick test which shows 1+ for protein and 3+ for blood. Family history is clear. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Explanation:The child has a history of pharyngitis followed 10 days later by signs of glomerulonephritis. In this particular case, it is most probably a post-streptococcus glomerulonephritis which accounts for 80% of paediatric cases of glomerulonephritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with dyspnoea. He looks distressed and has a heart rate of 180 bpm and a blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg. His respiratory rate is 37/min and his O2 saturation is 83% in room air. His temperature is 38C. His mother cannot speak English and neither does the child. The doctors observe that the boy has marked recession and a tracheal tug. He is crying and holding his chest. You immediately put the child on high flow oxygen, perform a chest X-ray and blood tests. The x-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. The blood results show:
Hb:6g/dl, MCV:85fl, MCHC:36.0g/dl, WBC:19.6x109/l, neutrophils:15.3x109/l, PLT:350x109/l, CRP:50.
His mother shows you that the child has been taking folic acid, hydroxyurea and Penicillin V daily, by pulling some tablets from her bag. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sickle cell chest crisis
Explanation:The child is suffering from acute sickle cell crisis, a complication of sickle cell disease. It is characterised by a new segmental pulmonary infiltrate consistent with consolidation together with one or more new respiratory symptoms.
The mainstay of treatment is oxygen support, (ventilation if required), hydration, antibiotics and analgesia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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In a study, 50 out of 100 smokers developed lung cancers and 50 out of 200 non-smokers developed lung cancers. Which of the following is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Relative risk=2
Explanation:Relative risk = (Incidence in exposed group)/incidence in unexposed group). So in this case RR = (50/100)/(50/200) = 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 85
Incorrect
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According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk of severe hyperbilirubinemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History of a previous sibling requiring phototherapy for jaundice
Explanation:Identify babies as being more likely to develop significant hyperbilirubinemia if they have any of the following factors:
– gestational age under 38 weeks
– a previous sibling with neonatal jaundice requiring phototherapy
– mother’s intention to breastfeed exclusively
– visible jaundice in the first 24 hours of life. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 86
Incorrect
-
A 12-year-old boy presents with a low-grade fever and mild abdominal pain. On examination, a palpable mass was felt in the right iliac fossa.
His temperature is about 38.4C and his CRP is elevated to 256.
An ultrasound scan of the abdomen demonstrated an appendicular mass.
What is the most appropriate management strategy for this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics, admit to the ward, perform operation only if signs of obstruction or on-going sepsis
Explanation:An appendicular mass, on the whole, is managed medically with intravenous antibiotics and monitoring for signs of obstruction or on-going sepsis.
If the child is not responding to medical management, then surgery is performed. This is due to the high morbidity risk associated with operating on an appendicular mass. Consent for a limited right hemi-colectomy must be taken after explaining the increased risk of complications. The decision whether or not to perform an interval appendicectomy is controversial and currently subject to a multicentre national trial.
The likelihood of another episode of appendicitis is 1 in 5.Other options:
– Ultrasound and clinical examination is sufficient to confirm the diagnosis, especially in a boy. This may not be the case in females.
– Majority of appendicular masses respond to conservative management.
– Raised CRP indicates significant inflammatory response and thus intravenous antibiotics are indicated.
– Intravenous antibiotics are indicated due to sepsis. Oral antibiotics are not sufficient to tackle sepsis in this scenario. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 87
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis
Explanation:Vitamin E deficiency in premature infants has been described as being associated with low haemoglobin levels in the 2nd month of life, haemolytic anaemia associated with thrombocytosis. Recently, low vitamin E concentrations were suspected as being associated with sudden death in infancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty. He lacks secondary sexual characteristics and has altered smell and reduced testicular size.
Which of the following hormone profiles with regard to FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), LH (luteinizing hormone) and testosterone would fit a diagnosis of Kallman syndrome for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced testosterone, reduced FSH and reduced LH
Explanation:While the clinical scenario and the anosmic presentation of the child are highly suggestive of Kallmann’s syndrome, reduced testosterone, FSH and LH levels can confirm the diagnosis.
Kallman’s syndrome is a recognised cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.
It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait.
Kallman’s syndrome is thought to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus.Clinical features of Kallmann’s syndrome include:
– Delayed puberty
– Hypogonadism, cryptorchidism
– Anosmia
– Low sex hormone levels
– Inappropriately low/normal LH and FSH levels
– Some patients can present with associated cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 89
Incorrect
-
A 7-month-old baby appears to have experienced a fit. The parents noticed jerking of one arm followed by generalised shaking. A flat erythematous lesion under the right lower eyelid, which has not changed in size or appearance, has been present since birth.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sturge-Weber syndrome
Explanation:Sturge-Weber syndrome (SWS), also called encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis, is a neurocutaneous disorder with angiomas that involve the leptomeninges (leptomeningeal angiomas [LAs]) and the skin of the face, typically in the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) distributions of the trigeminal nerve. The hallmark of SWS is a facial cutaneous venous dilation, also referred to as a nevus flammeus or port-wine stain (PWS).
Signs and symptoms:
SWS is generally diagnosed clinically, based on the typical cutaneous, central nervous system (CNS), and ocular abnormalities associated with it.
Neurological signs include the following:
Developmental delay/intellectual disability
Learning problems
Attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder
Initial focal seizures progressing to frequent, secondarily generalized seizures
Increasing seizure frequency and duration despite the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs)
Increasing duration of a transient postictal deficit
Increase in focal or diffuse atrophy – Determined by serial neuroimaging
Progressive increase in calcifications
Development of hemiparesis
Deterioration in cognitive functioningPhysical signs of SWS are as follows:
Port-wine stain
Macrocephaly
Ocular manifestations
Soft-tissue hypertrophy
Hemiparesis
Visual loss
HemianopsiaOcular involvement in SWS may include the following signs:
Buphthalmos
Glaucoma
Tomato-catsup colour of the fundus (ipsilateral to the nevus flammeus) with glaucoma
Conjunctival and episcleral haemangiomas
Diffuse choroidal haemangiomas
Heterochromia of the irides
Tortuous retinal vessels with occasional arteriovenous communications -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 90
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old female child with a history of controlled type 1 diabetes, presents with recurrent nightmares due to hypoglycaemia and early morning glycosuria. Her parents are well informed about the child's condition and adjust her insulin requirements according to carbohydrate counting. What is the cause of the hypoglycaemia during the night in association with early morning glycosuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somogyi effect
Explanation:Somogyi effect presents with night-time hypoglycaemia followed by early-morning hyperglycaemia, hence the glycosuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A two-sample t-test comparing weight loss after two different diet regimes yield a P-value of 0.001.
Which one of the following statements can be deducted from this finding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The difference would have occurred by chance for a study of this size only once in 1000 times if the two regimes did not differ in their effect
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 92
Incorrect
-
A 1-year old child is brought to the ER with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Radiological examination shows distended bowel loops and gas in the rectum. Her mother reveals that the baby had surgery at the two days of age for a twisted intestine. Blood gas analysis from a sample drawn from a capillary shows a pH of 7.34 and lactate of 2. Which of the following is the most appropriate management step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Naso-gastric decompression, intra venous fluids and admit. The majority of adhesional obstruction resolves without need for surgery
Explanation:Adhesion formation might be reduced by minimally invasive surgical techniques and the use of adhesion barriers. Non-operative treatment is effective in most patients with ASBO. Contraindications for non-operative treatment include peritonitis, strangulation, and ischemia. When the adhesive aetiology of obstruction is unsure, or when contraindications for non-operative management might be present, CT is the diagnostic technique of choice. The principles of non-operative treatment are nil per os, naso-gastric, or long-tube decompression, and intravenous supplementation with fluids and electrolytes. When operative treatment is required, a laparoscopic approach may be beneficial for selected cases of simple ASBO.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy is brought by his parents with an enlarging penis, testes volumes of 4 ml bilaterally, and some sparse hair in his pubic region. His height remains on his usual (2nd) centile. His doctor thinks this is most likely to be due to a pathological cause and investigates further. He finds a delayed bone age.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hypothyroidism
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this boy is primary hypothyroidism.
Rationale:
The development of secondary sexual characteristics in a boy aged less than 9 years of age is highly suggestive of precocious puberty.Around 80% of boys with precocious puberty have pathological causes and require detailed investigation.
In this case, the child has long-standing short stature but coupled with the early puberty and delay in bone age, the diagnosis is primary hypothyroidism, which is the only cause of this clinical picture. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
A 5 year old girl presents with reduced consciousness and metabolic acidosis. Additionally, her mother says that she had abdominal pain, vomiting, thirst, and weight loss, and is now worried that the girl's twin brother will present with the same illness. Which of the following represents the highest chance of the brother presenting with the same illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HLA DR3/DR4 genotype
Explanation:HLA-DR (3 and 4) have been associated with an increased risk for idiopathic diabetes mellitus.
Type 1 diabetes has a high heritability compared to type 2
Identical twins have a 30-50% risk if their twin has type 1 diabetes -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old girl presents to the OBGYN after having unprotected. She is found to be 5 days pregnant. The fertilized tissue is at which stage of development?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blastocyst
Explanation:Time- Event
Week 1: Implantation
Week 2: Formation of bilaminar disk
Week 3: Formation of primitive streak
Formation of notochord
Gastrulation
Week 4: Limb buds begin to form
Neural tube closes
Heart begins to beat
Week 10: Genitals are differentiated -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 96
Incorrect
-
Which of the following are associated with port wine stains?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epilepsy
Explanation:Port-wine stains are a type of vascular birthmark caused by the abnormal development of capillaries in the skin. These pinkish-purplish discolorations present at birth and are associated with medical conditions such as Sturge-Weber syndrome, a neurocutaneous disorder involving the leptomeninges. Port wine stains are therefore associated with epilepsy, glaucoma or intellectual disability common in Sturge-Weber syndrome. Additional complications of Port wine stains include a loss of function if near the eye or mouth due to hypertrophy, or glaucoma if near the eyelid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 97
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old girl, in diabetic ketoacidosis, is brought to the emergency room with abdominal pain and vomiting. Arterial blood gases show:
pH 7.01, pC02: 2.6, HC03:6, BE-19.
The ketones are found to be 4.8.
Which of the following most likely explains her blood gas analysis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Explanation:Diabetes ketoacidosis is one of the most serious and acute complications of diabetes. At the time of presentation and during treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), several metabolic and electrolyte derangements can ultimately result in respiratory compromise. Most commonly, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia and hypophosphatemia can eventually lead to respiratory muscles failure. Furthermore, tachypnoea, hyperpnea and more severely, Kussmaul breathing pattern can develop. Also, hydrostatic and non-hydrostatic pulmonary oedema can occur secondary to volume shifts into the extracellular space and secondary to increased permeability of the pulmonary capillaries. The presence of respiratory failure in patients with DKA is associated with higher morbidity and mortality. Being familiar with the causes of respiratory compromise in DKA, and how to treat them, may represent better outcomes for patients with DKA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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An 18 year old, previously well boy was admitted following a generalized tonic-clonic convulsion for 5 minutes with urinary incontinence and eye rolling. On examination, he was drowsy and had bilateral up going plantar reflexes. A short while ago he had been playing rugby and had taken a hit to the head. He was apparently normal for a few minutes before fitting. His blood sugar level was normal. Which of the following is the most probable reason for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post-traumatic seizure
Explanation:The history is suggestive of a post-traumatic seizure which frequently occurs after moderate or severe traumatic brain injury. Although upgoing plantars can be identified in a post-ictal status, an intracranial bleed has to be excluded. A single seizure cannot be considered epilepsy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised in the epigastric region. She occasionally vomits as well. Doctors perform an upper endoscopy and a CLO test which turn out positive. A Helicobacter pylori infection is established. What is the initial most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole for 1 week
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes place in which part of the body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Large intestine
Explanation:Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin passes into the enterohepatic circulation and the bilirubin which evades this system is metabolised by bacteria, primarily in the large intestine, to urobilinogen, then stercobilinogen and eventually oxidised to stercobilin. Stercobilin gives faeces its brown colour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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