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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 20 year old woman presents to the hospital with sharp, left-sided chest pain and shortness of breath.
On examination her pulse is 101 beats per minute and blood pressure is 124/61 mmHg. She is seen to be mildly breathless at rest but her oxygen saturation on air was 98%.
CXR reveals a left pneumothorax with a 4 cm rim of air visible.
Which management strategy is appropriate in this patient?Your Answer: Discharge from hospital
Correct Answer: Needle aspiration
Explanation:Pneumothorax is defined as air in the pleural space and may be classified as spontaneous, traumatic or iatrogenic. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in patients without clinically apparent lung disease.
Primary pneumothorax has an incidence of 18-28 per 100,000 per year for men and 1.2-6 per 100,000 per year for women. Most patients present with ipsilateral pleuritic chest pain and acute shortness of breath. Shortness of breath is largely dependent on the size of the pneumothorax and whether there is underlying chronic lung disease.Young patients may have chest pain only. Most episodes of pneumothorax occur at rest. Symptoms may resolve within 24 hours in patients with primary spontaneous pneumothorax. The diagnosis of a pneumothorax is confirmed by finding a visceral pleural line displaced from the chest wall, without distal lung markings, on a posterior-anterior chest radiograph.
Breathless patients should not be left without intervention regardless of the size of pneumothorax. If there is a rim of air >2cm on the chest X-ray, this should be aspirated.
Aspiration is successful in approximately 70 per cent of patients; the patient may be discharged subsequently. A further attempt at aspiration is recommended if the patient remains symptomatic and a volume of less than 2.5 litres has been aspirated on the first attempt.If unsuccessful, an intercostal drain is inserted. This may be removed after 24 hours after full re-expansion or cessation of air leak without clamping and discharge may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female visited the OPD with a complaint of visual disturbance, eye pain, pain in the knee and hands, and a rash on her face. On examination, the rash was the shape of a butterfly, and the joints were mildly swollen. The eyes of the patient were found to be red with irregular pupils. Where do you think the problem lies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iris
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are suggestive of ankylosing spondylitis which is often accompanied by iritis, the cause of this patient’s red eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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With respect to liver cirrhosis, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The final common pathway of hepatic fibrosis is mediated by the hepatic stellate cell
Explanation:The development of hepatic fibrosis reflects an alteration in the normally balanced processes of extracellular matrix production and degradation. [6] The extracellular matrix, the normal scaffolding for hepatocytes, is composed of collagens (especially types I, III, and V), glycoproteins, and proteoglycans. Increased collagen in the space of Disse (space b/w sinusoids and hepatocytes) leads to capillarization of sinusoids, and stellate cells also have contractile properties when activated. This is fibrosis processes. This can lead to the development of portal hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 46 year old woman with a history of depression visits the clinic for a review. She was started on Fluoxetine 7 weeks earlier and is requesting that this medication be stopped because she feels well. What recommendation would you give with regards to the treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It should be continued for at least another 6 months
Explanation:Depressive disorders require long-term treatment with antidepressants, psychotherapy, or both. The goal of antidepressant therapy is complete remission of symptoms and return to normal daily functioning. Studies have shown that achieving remission and continuing antidepressant therapy long after the acute symptoms remit can protect against the relapse or recurrence of the psychiatric episode. Many patients, however, inadvertently or intentionally skip doses of their antidepressant, and even discontinue it, if their symptoms improve or if they experience side effects. Antidepressant discontinuation may increase the risk of relapse or precipitate certain distressing symptoms such as gastrointestinal complaints, dizziness, flu-like symptoms, equilibrium disturbances, and sleep disorders.
Pharmacologic therapy should be continued long enough to sustain remission and avoid relapses and recurrences. Recurrence refers to a return of depression at a time beyond the expected duration of the index episode (> 9 months after remission). This means that physicians and patients alike should not be too eager to discontinue medication prematurely. An interval of 6 months has been thought to be the usual duration of antidepressant therapy. New recommendations, however, suggest that treatment should continue for up to 9 months after symptoms have resolved (continuation phase) to prevent relapse and for longer to help prevent recurrence (maintenance phase).
SSRI discontinuation symptoms are similar to those of the TCAs, with dizziness, gastrointestinal symptoms, and sleep disorders common. Anecdotal reports have included complaints of “electric shock–like” sensations, flashes, and “withdrawal buzz.” The type and severity of the symptoms correlate with the relative affinities of the agents for the serotonin reuptake sites and with secondary effects on other neurotransmitters; with SRIs that also affect cholinergic systems, the symptoms possibly correlate with cholinergic rebound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old Afro–Caribbean gentleman with a 5 year history of HIV infection presents with swollen ankles. He has been treated with highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for 2 years, with partial response.
His plasma creatinine concentration is 358 μmol/l, albumin is 12 g/dl, CD4 count is 35/μl and 24 hour urine protein excretion rate is 6.8 g. Renal ultrasound shows echogenic kidneys 13.5 cm in length.
What would a renal biopsy show?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microcystic tubular dilatation and collapsing FSGS
Explanation:HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) show typical findings of scarring called focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) and microcystic tubular dilatation, prominent podocytes, and collapsing capillary loops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50 yr. old male presented with episodes of collapse during the last month. Each episode persisted for about 2-3 minutes. They were self-limiting and associated with twitching of the limbs. There was no associated tonic-clonic movements, tongue biting, urinary or faecal incontinence. On examination he had reversed splitting of S2 and an ejection systolic murmur at the right sternal border. His electrocardiogram (ECG) showed left ventricular hypertrophy with strain pattern. CXR showed an area of calcification over the cardiac silhouette. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:The classic triad of symptoms in patients with aortic stenosis is chest pain, heart failure and syncope. Pulsus parvus et tardus, pulsus alternans, hyperdynamic left ventricle, reversed splitting of the S2, prominent S4 and systolic murmur are some of the common findings of aortic stenosis. A calcified aortic valve is found in almost all adults with hemodynamically significant aortic stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old female is referred to medical assessment unit by her physician for querying thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) after she presented with a temperature of 38.9C. Her subsequent urea and electrolytes showed deteriorating renal function with a creatinine 3 times greater than her baseline.
What is the underlying pathophysiology of TTP?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Failure to cleave von Willebrand factor normally
Explanation:Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterised by the von Willebrand factor (vWF) microthrombi within the vessels of multiple organs. In this condition, the ADAMTS13 metalloprotease enzyme which is responsible for the breakdown of vWF multimer, is deficient, causing its build-up and leading to platelet clots that then decreases the circulating platelets, leading to bleeding in the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65 yr. old previously well man was referred due to an abnormal heart sound which was detected during a medical check up. On examination he looked well. His blood pressure was 120/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 68 bpm which was regular. His jugular venous pressure was not elevated and he didn't have ankle oedema. He had an early diastolic murmur, best heard at the left sternal edge, which was more clear in expiration when the patient leant forward. His lungs were clear. His FBC, Urea and electrolytes, LFTs and lipid profile were normal. His ECG showed sinus rhythm. His chest X-ray was normal. Echocardiography showed mild to moderate aortic regurgitation with normal left ventricular size and normal function.
Which of the following is the most appropriate way of managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start him on an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Explanation:Although this patient’s left ventricular function is normal at the time of examination, there is chance of deterioration of it due to aortic regurgitation. It is found that ACE inhibitors slow the development of left ventricular dysfunction. So this patient should be started on an ACE inhibitor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills.
Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.
Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.
If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.
Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old hypertensive man presents with difficulty using his right arm, slow walking and occasional loss of balance. He has a broad-based gait with cogwheel rigidity and intention tremor of his right arm. His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg sitting and 100/60 mmHg standing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple system atrophy
Explanation:This patient presents with a combination of akinetic rigid syndrome, cerebellar signs and the suggestion of autonomic features. This is most indicative of a diagnosis of multiple system atrophy.
Multiple system atrophy (MSA) is a rare neurodegenerative disorder characterized by autonomic dysfunction, tremors, slow movement, muscle rigidity, and postural instability (collectively known as parkinsonism) and ataxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history of Sjogren Syndrome. The foetus would be at a risk for which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All correct
Explanation:Women with Sjögren syndrome are likely to experience more complications during pregnancy than women without an autoimmune disease as the anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies cross the placenta and lead to various life threatening complications. Studies show a high incidence of poor fetal outcomes for these patients. Congenital heart block, neonatal lupus, congestive cardiac failure, hydrops fetalis can all be caused as a result of Sjogren syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents with anaemia and weight loss. Upon endoscopy, a gastric tumour is revealed, later established as an adenocarcinoma. The patient refuses any treatment and claims that his condition is not influencing the quality of his life. Clinical examination has nothing particularly interesting to show and the patient seems to be conscious of his decision, regardless of the likely curative nature of surgery. What is the single most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respect his wishes and book a follow-up appointment for four weeks
Explanation:The patient seems to be conscious about his decision, which should be respected. According to Mental Capacity Act 2005, a person who makes an unwise decision should not be treated as unable to make a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the mode of spread of chickenpox?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Airborne
Explanation:Chickenpox is a highly communicable viral disease caused by human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus, VZV). It is transmitted from person to person by direct contact (touching the rash), droplet or air born spread (coughing and sneezing).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peripheral asymmetric oligoarthropathy
Explanation:Most patients with psoriatic arthritis present with monoarthritis or asymmetric oligoarthritis. The most common form of the disease is the one involving a few joints of the peripheral skeleton with a distinct asymmetry of symptoms. Involvement of the smaller joints of the hands and feet, especially distal interphalangeal joints, seems to be a characteristic feature. Arthritis mutilans is a rare and severe complication of psoriatic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55 year old man experiences sudden loss of vision preceded by the perception of something he describes as jagged lines or 'heat waves'. He's known to be myopic. What is the best treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scleral buckling
Explanation:The clinical picture is characteristic of retinal detachment, which should be treated immediately to prevent permanent loss of vision. Scleral buckling is a surgical procedure used to repair a retinal detachment, where the surgeon attaches a piece of silicone or a sponge onto the white of the eye at the spot of a retinal tear pushing the sclera toward the retinal tear or break, promoting repair. Signs of detachment include an increase in the number of eye floaters, flashes of light in the field of vision, and reduced peripheral vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old woman presents with upper GI haemorrhage. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which she is managed with low dose prednisolone, diclofenac and codeine phosphate.
On examination in the Emergency ward her BP is 90/60 mmHg, pulse 100/min. You fluid resuscitate her and her BP improves to 115/80 mmHg, with a pulse of 80/min.
Investigations;
Hb 10.4 g/dL,
WCC 6.1 x109/L,
PLT 145 x109/L,
Na+ 139 mmol/L,
K+ 4.9 mmol/L,
Creatinine 180 μmol/L,
ECG – Lateral ST depression , Upper GI endoscopy reveals a large bleeding ulcer on the posterior aspect of the duodenum. It cannot be easily reached with the endoscope, and you decide to attempt embolization.
Which of the following is the artery that should be targeted?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior superior Pancreaticoduodenal artery
Explanation:The most common location for a duodenal ulcer bleed is the posterior duodenum (remember: posterior bleeds, anterior perforates). The perfusion to this area is most specifically from the posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
The anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery supplies the anterior region. The gastroepiploic artery supplies mostly the stomach. The splenic artery goes, obviously, toward the spleen, in the other direction. The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the celiac artery, and it’s branches are the anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with nausea, thirst and dehydration. She mentioned that she has an uncle with previous parathyroid gland excision and a cousin who has recently been diagnosed with insulinoma.
On examination, her BP is 135/72 mmHg, her pulse is 70/min and regular, her BMI is 20. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examinations are unremarkable.
Investigations show:
Hb 12.6 g/dL,
WCC 5.4 x109/L,
PLT 299 x109/L,
Na+ 139 mmol/L,
K+ 4.4 mmol/L,
Creatinine 121 ىmol/L,
Albumin 37 g/l,
Ca++ 2.95 mmol/L,
PTH 18 (normal<10).
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her raised calcium?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hyperplasia
Explanation:The combination of Insulinoma and Parathyroid diseases is suggestive of MEN 1 syndrome.
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) is a rare hereditary tumour syndrome inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and characterized by a predisposition to a multitude of endocrine neoplasms primarily of parathyroid, entero-pancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin, as well as non-endocrine neoplasms.
Other endocrine tumours in MEN1 include foregut carcinoid tumours, adrenocortical tumours, and rarely pheochromocytoma. Nonendocrine manifestations include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas.Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT), due to parathyroid hyperplasia is the most frequent and usually the earliest expression of MEN-1, with a typical age of onset at 20–25 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A study's objective is to find the normal reference range for IgE levels in the adult population. What percentage of individuals will have IgE levels higher than 2 standard deviations from the mean, assuming that the IgE levels follow a normal distribution?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.30%
Explanation:Normal distribution describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements. Usually, 68.3% lies within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lies within 2 SD of the mean and 99.7% lies within 3 SD of the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8% yet he is concerned that his morning blood sugar levels are occasionally as high as 24 mmol/l. He is currently managed on a bd mixed insulin regime.
He was sent for continuous glucose monitoring and his glucose profile reveals dangerous dipping in blood glucose levels during the early hours of the morning.
Which of the following changes to his insulin regime is most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Move him to a basal bolus regime
Explanation:The patients high morning blood sugar levels are suggestive to Somogyi Phenomenon which suggests that hypoglycaemia during the late evening induced by insulin could cause a counter regulatory hormone response that produces hyperglycaemia in the early morning.
Substitution of regular insulin with an immediate-acting insulin analogue, such as Humulin lispro, may be of some help. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa pain, nausea and loss of appetite. You suspect that she has acute appendicitis. Which scoring system could you use to lend support to your diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alvarado score
Explanation:The prompt is suggestive of acute appendicitis. The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to determine the likelihood of appendicitis, so this is the correct answer. A score greater than 6 is generally considered at risk for having acute appendicitis. It has 8 different criteria included (symptoms, signs, and lab results) and divides patients into appendicitis unlikely, possible, probable, and definite. The Center Score is a score to access the likelihood that pharyngitis is due to Strep. The Child-Pugh score predicts prognosis in liver cirrhosis. The Glasgow score is two different scores– the Glasgow coma score in trauma, which estimates level of consciousness, essentially, and The Glasgow Imrie Criteria which determines the severity of acute pancreatitis based on 8 lab values. The MELD score predicts the severity of end-stage liver disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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An 12 year old girl is taken to the clinic for a review. Despite being normally fit and well and not visiting a doctor for the past four years, her father is concerned about her behaviour in the past week. The girl has expressed plans to run for president, is active with planning all through the night and seems overtly excited. When asked, she admits to smoking cannabis once a few months ago and has drank alcohol a few times in the past year. The last time she had alcohol was a week ago. Prior to her deterioration a few weeks ago her father describes her as a happy, well-adjusted, sociable girl. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mania
Explanation:Mania is a state of extreme physical and emotional elation. A person experiencing mania or a manic episode may present with the following symptoms:
-Elevated mood. The person feels extremely ‘high’, happy and full of energy; he or she may describe the experience as feeling on top of the world and invincible. The person may shift rapidly from an elevated,
happy mood to being angry and irritable if they perceive they have been obstructed.
-Increased energy and overactivity. The person may have great difficulty remaining still.
-Reduced need for sleep or food. The person may be too active to eat or sleep.
-Irritability. The person may become angry and irritated with those who disagree with or dismiss his or her sometimes unrealistic plans or ideas.
-Rapid thinking and speech. The person’s thoughts and speech are more rapid than usual.
-Grandiose plans and beliefs. It is quite common for a person in a hypomanic or manic state to believe that he or she is unusually talented or gifted or has special friends in power. For example, the person may believe that he or she is on a special mission from God.
-Lack of insight. A person in a hypomanic or manic state may understand that other people see his or her ideas and actions as inappropriate, reckless or irrational. However, he or she is unlikely to personally accept that the behaviour is inappropriate, due to a lack of insight.
– Distractibility. The person has difficulty maintaining attention and may not be able to filter out external stimuli.Careful assessment to rule out organic conditions is an important first step in the management of mania. Often hospitalisation is required for someone who is experiencing acute mania. Both mood-stabilising agents such as lithium carbonate or sodium valproate and an antipsychotic may be needed to treat psychotic symptoms, agitation, thought disorder and sleeping difficulties. Benzodiazepines may be useful to reduce hyperactivity. Treatment with lithium alone may have a relatively slow response rate (up to two weeks after a therapeutic blood level is established), so that adjunctive medication such as sodium valproate is usually required. Regular monitoring of blood levels for lithium and valproate is essential because of the potential for toxicity.
The symptoms of hypomania are similar to those of mania: elevated mood, inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, etc. except that they don’t significantly impact a person’s daily function and never include any psychotic symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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There are number of diseases that have to be notified to the consultant responsible for communicable disease control. Which of the following conditions does not belong to above category?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumococcal pneumonia
Explanation:There are number of diseases that have to be notified to relevant authorities to prevent or reduce their spread. Those conditions include Cholera, Diphtheria, Food poisoning, Infectious bloody diarrhoea, Malaria, Measles, Meningococcal septicaemia, Mumps, Plague, Rabies and Rubella.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 68 year old man who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is reviewed. On examination, there is evidence of cor pulmonale with a significant degree of pedal oedema. His FEV1 is 44%. During a recent hospital stay his pO2 on room air was 7.4 kPa.
Which one of the following interventions is most likely to increase survival in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Long-term oxygen therapy
Explanation:Assess the need for oxygen therapy in people with:
– very severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 below 30% predicted)
– cyanosis (blue tint to skin)
– polycythaemia
– peripheral oedema (swelling)
– a raised jugular venous pressure
– oxygen saturations of 92% or less breathing air.Also consider assessment for people with severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 30–49% predicted).
Consider long-term oxygen therapy for people with COPD who do not smoke and who:
have a partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) below 7.3 kPa when stable or have a PaO2 above 7.3 and below 8 kPa when stable, if they also have 1 or more of the following:
– secondary polycythaemia
– peripheral oedema
– pulmonary hypertension. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old widow is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic renal failure. What is the most common problem that can arise in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Protein–calorie malnutrition
Explanation:Protein-calorie malnutrition is observed in almost 50% of dialysis patients, contributing to increased morbidity and mortality. All the other complications listed can usually be prevented thanks to modern-day dialysis techniques.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A study is performed to assess a new proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in 120 elderly patients who are receiving aspirin. A control group of 240 elderly patients is given the standard PPI. The final evaluation after five years revealed that 24 individuals receiving the new PPI experienced an upper GI bleed. What is the absolute risk reduction if 60 individuals receiving the standard PPI experienced the same condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5%
Explanation:Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate) = 0.05 = 5% reduction
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding interleukin 1 (IL-1) is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is released mainly by macrophages/monocytes
Explanation:Interleukin 1 alpha and interleukin 1 beta (IL1 alpha and IL1 beta) are cytokines that participate in the regulation of immune responses, inflammatory reactions, and hematopoiesis. It is secreted mainly by macrophages and monocytes and acts as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus. His body mass index is 27.5 kg/m^2. At a dose of 500mg TDS the patient has experienced significant diarrhoea. Even on reducing the dose to 500mg BD his symptoms persisted. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start modified release metformin 500mg od with evening meal
Explanation:Here, the patient seems to be intolerant to standard metformin. In such cases, modified-release preparations is considered as the most appropriate next step.
There is some evidence that these produce fewer gastrointestinal side-effects in patients intolerant of standard-release metformin.Metformin is a biguanide and reduces blood glucose levels by decreasing the production of glucose in the liver, decreasing intestinal absorption and increasing insulin sensitivity.
Metformin decreases both the basal and postprandial blood glucose.
Other uses: In Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), Metformin decreases insulin levels, which then decreases luteinizing hormone and androgen levels. Thus acting to normalize the menstruation cycle.Note:
Metformin is contraindicated in patients with severe renal dysfunction, which is defined as a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.732m2.
Metformin overdose has been associated with hypoglycaemia and lactic acidosis, for this reason, it has a black box warning for lactic acidosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 65 yr. old woman was referred due to a pulse rate of 40 bpm. Which of the following answers is associated with the least risk of asystole?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Complete heart block with a narrow complex QRS
Explanation:From the given answers, complete heart block with a narrow complex QRS complex is associated with the least risk of asystole. Transvenous pacing is indicated by the other given responses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female patient is brought into the emergency department with a 5 day history of altered personality, and visual and auditory hallucinations. On palpation of the abdomen, a mass is felt in the left iliac fossa. Ultrasound of the abdomen suggests a left ovarian tumour. Her basic observations are as follows:
Oxygen saturation 99% on air
Heart rate 98 beats/minute
Respiratory rate 28 breaths/minute
Temperature 37.9 °C
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis
Explanation:The case presents with an underlying ovarian tumour, associated with psychiatric symptoms; thus, an organic illness must first be ruled out before considering the other conditions listed which often present with psychiatric features without an underlying organic disease. Among the listed conditions Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis is the only condition that presents with psychiatric features including agitation, hallucinations, delusions and disordered thinking that is associated with tumours 50% of the time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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