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Question 1
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A 56 year old, postmenopausal female complains of vaginal bleeding. Transvaginal ultrasound is done which reveals the thickness of endometrium to be 10mm. Which further investigation would be most appropriate in this case?
Your Answer: Laparoscopy
Correct Answer: Hysteroscopy and D&C
Explanation:Endometrial hyperplasia most often is caused by excess oestrogen without progesterone. If ovulation does not occur, progesterone is not made, and the lining is not shed. The endometrium may continue to grow in response to oestrogen. The cells that make up the lining may crowd together and may become abnormal. This condition, called hyperplasia, may lead to cancer in some women. Endometrial hyperplasia usually occurs after menopause, when ovulation stops and progesterone is no longer made. It also can occur during peri-menopause, when ovulation may not occur regularly. Listed as follows are other situations in which women may have high levels of oestrogen and not enough progesterone:
– Use of medications that act like oestrogen
– Long-term use of high doses of oestrogen after menopause (in women who have not had a hysterectomy)
– Irregular menstrual periods, especially associated with polycystic ovary syndrome or infertility
– ObesityTransvaginal ultrasound may be done to measure the thickness of the endometrium. To exclude carcinoma an endometrial biopsy, dilation and curettage, or hysteroscopy may be done.
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Question 2
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A 25 year old female was brought in with multiple superficial lacerations on her non-dominant forearm. There was evidence of older but similar kind of injuries to the same forearm. She was in distress as her boyfriend wanted to end the relationship. She didn't have any suicidal thoughts. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:According to this presentation the most likely diagnosis is borderline personality disorder. The patient has impulsivity, self-harm and instability of interpersonal relationships, which are suggestive of borderline personality disorder. The history is not adequate to diagnose the other given conditions.
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Question 3
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Concerning the functional unit of the liver, which segment is most susceptible to hypoxic damage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zone 3
Explanation:From a metabolic perspective, the functional unit is the hepatic acinus (terminal acinus), each of which is centred on the line connecting two portal triads and extends outwards to the two adjacent central veins. The periportal zone I is nearest to the entering vascular supply and receives the most oxygenated blood, making it least sensitive to ischemic injury while making it very susceptible to viral hepatitis. Conversely, the centrilobular zone III has the poorest oxygenation, and will be most affected during a time of ischemia.
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Question 4
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A pregnant female who is a known diabetic presents to the clinic for a consultation and enquires about the harmful effects of vitamin deficiencies. A deficiency of which vitamin can lead to teratogenic effects in the child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Folic acid
Explanation:Pregnant women need to get enough folic acid. The vitamin is important to the growth of the foetus’s spinal cord and brain. Folic acid deficiency can cause severe birth defects known as neural tube defects. The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for folate during pregnancy is 600 micrograms (µg)/day.
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Question 5
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A young nurse in the hospital believes that the surgical specialist is in love with her and often sends her gifts and flowers at her home. However, actually there is nothing like this happening. Which condition is this nurse suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erotomania
Explanation:Erotomania is a condition in which one person, especially ladies, deludes themselves into thinking that there is another person/man, who is in love with them and often sends them gifts and other valuables.
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Question 6
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What serious side effect would you expect, after giving IV lorazepam to a 4-year-old boy suffering from febrile convulsions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Apnoea
Explanation:Lorazepam is known to cause respiratory depression and finally apnoea as a side effect.
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The hepatic portal vein is a large vessel formed by which of the following veins?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:The portal vein is usually formed by the confluence of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins and also receives blood from the inferior mesenteric, gastric, and cystic veins.
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Question 8
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A 23 year old woman comes for the advice regarding contraceptives. Her mother passed away due to cervical cancer and she worries about cervical cancer. Which of the following is the most suitable contraceptive method for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Barrier method
Explanation:Cervical cancer results from genital infection with HPV. PV infections can be transmitted via nonsexual routes, but the result from sexual contact. So the best contraceptive method in relation to prevention of cervical cancer is the barrier method. But it will not prevent cervical cancer a 100%.
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Question 9
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A 70 year old male presents with an ulcer between his toes - it has a punched-out appearance. He is known to both smoke and drinks heavily. Upon examination, the ulcer is yellow in colour. His foot also turns red when it hangs from the bed. From the list given, choose the single most likely diagnosis for this patient.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arterial ischemia ulcer
Explanation:Arterial ischemia ulcers present with many of the symptoms observed in this patient: ulcer on the lower extremities, pain, swelling, yellow sores, a punched-out appearance, the foot turning red when dangling from a bed. Smoking a lot is also known to be a causative factor here. This type of ulcer develops due to damage to the arteries caused by a lack of blood flow to the tissue – they are also deep wounds. Venous ischemic ulcers usually form in the knee or inner ankle area as opposed to the foot.
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Question 10
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A 22-year-old male presented to the OPD with a complaint of ringing in the ears and impaired hearing with occasional vertigo. On examination, there was slight drooping of the patient's mouth to the right side. When Weber test was performed, the patient heard a fainter sound in the right ear compared to the left. Absolute bone conduction test revealed that bone conduction was reduced in the right ear. Which of the following would be the most appropriate investigation to be ordered in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI
Explanation:Symptoms of this patient are strong indications of cranial nerve damage most likely caused by a tumour or mass compressing the nerve. Therefore, the best diagnostic measure for this case is an MRI scan that may fully visualize the extent of damage and the size of the tumour or mass that may be responsible.
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Question 11
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A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an insect bite. Although the bite site looks better, the gross oedema is still present. What is the most likely aetiology? Keep in mind that she has a history of breast cancer and radical mastectomy with axillary lymphadenectomy 10 years ago.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymphedema
Explanation:Lymphedema is most commonly the result of removal or damage to lymph nodes.
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know that there is epidemic of West Nile virus there. Regarding the virus, which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:West Nile virus is an RNA virus transmitted by the Culex species of mosquitoes. It is mostly prevalent in South America, Africa and some parts of Europe. Clinically it presents with high grade fever, headache, abdominal pain, anorexia and a morbilliform rash over the body. It can also lead to meningitis, encephalitis and flaccid paralysis by affecting the anterior horn cells, a process suggesting similarity to poliomyelitis. It can be fatal if not treated abruptly. Studies suggest that it can be transferred from mother to offspring. New-borns may present with encephalitis, chorioretinitis and wide spread brain damage. Patients suffering from West Nile virus can be effectively treated with interferon, IV immunoglobulin and Ribavirin.
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Question 13
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An 11-week-old baby with abnormal facies presented to the paediatric clinic with recurrent chest infections. CXR showed an absent thymic shadow. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DiGeorge syndrome
Explanation:DiGeorge syndrome usually presents at a young age with abnormal faces. Chest x-ray is characterised by an absent thymic shadow and recurrent infections due to an abnormal T-cell mediated immune response. Sometimes it presents by convulsions of the new-born due to hypocalcaemia as a result of a malfunctioning parathyroid gland and low levels of PTH.
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A young woman complains of constipation and pain on defecation. The pain is anorectal and a digital rectal examination was impossible due to pain and spasm. What is most likely the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anal fissure
Explanation:Symptoms of anal fissure include sharp pain in the anal area upon defecation or anal stimulation. It may also cause burning or itching as well as visible fresh blood on the stools or on the toilet paper. It is usually visible upon inspection.
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presented with polyuria and orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following medications is the most likely to be associated with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Bendroflumethiazide is known to cause photosensitive rash as part of an allergic reaction during which the person might also have wheezing, chest tightness or dyspnoea. The rash typically occurs on the areas of body exposed to the sun, like the back, hands, arms and legs.
Comparatively, digoxin produces a rash that comprises of nearly the whole body.
Atenolol may also cause skin rash but that is not photosensitive.
Clopidogrel might produce an non-photosensitive urticarial rash.
Ezetimibe causes a severe allergic reaction but only rarely. This rash is also non-photosensitive and is in the form of blisters, associated with itching. -
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Question 16
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A 30 year old previously well male was found to have a blood pressure of 140/90mmHg. Investigations revealed microalbuminuria. FBS and HbA1c were normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal scan
Explanation:A renal scan is important in the diagnosis of early renal damage, acute or chronic nephropathies and nephrovascular disease. Renal resistive index (RRI) which is measured by Doppler sonography, is proved to be a marker of renal disease onset and progression. Young hypertension with microalbuminuria is an indication for a renal scan to identify the possible aetiology.
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Question 17
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A 3-year-old boy presents with facial puffiness, frothy urine, lethargy and oliguria for two weeks. Urine analysis reveals proteinuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:The presentation is suggestive of nephrotic syndrome. A trial of corticosteroids is the first step in treatment of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome. Diuretics are useful in managing symptomatic oedema. Cyclosporin and cyclophosphamide are indicated in frequently relapsing and steroid dependant disease.
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Question 18
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A 67 year old male presents to the emergency complaining of frank haematuria. There are no associated symptoms. Which of the following would be the most helpful in pointing towards a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystoscopy
Explanation:Diagnostic indications for cystoscopy include the following: evaluation of patients with voiding symptoms (storage or obstructive), gross or microscopic haematuria, urologic fistulas, urethral or bladder diverticula and congenital anomalies in paediatric population.
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Question 19
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A 59-year-old woman has an 11mm skin lesion on her right forearm, which bleeds easily on contact and has changed in appearance over the last 11 months.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Melanoma is more common in men than women. Reasons for the disease includes: UV light and genetic predisposition or mutations. Diagnosis is by biopsy and analysis of any skin lesion that has signs of being potentially cancerous.
Early warning signs of melanoma ABCDE:
Asymmetry
Borders (irregular with edges and corners)
Colour (variegated)
Diameter (greater than 6 mm)
Evolving over time -
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Question 20
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A 67 year old male presented with a history of chronic backache and altered sensation over the lateral side of his right calf and foot. Which of the following nerve roots will most likely be involved in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Lesions in L5-S1 region leads to altered sensation on the lateral side of calf and foot, along with back pain. There might be difficulty in extension of the leg, foot inversion, plantar flexion and toe flexion, as muscles controlling these functions are supplied by S1.
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old patient without a known medical history presents to casualty unconscious. What should be done as soon as possible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood Glucose
Explanation:Blood glucose should be evaluated immediately in order to investigate for diabetic coma triggered by hyperglycaemia or hypoglycaemia.
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 34 year old lady presented with complaints of generalised body ache, arthritis, dryness of eyes and mouth. The most likely diagnosis would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Sjogren syndrome is characterised by keratoconjunctivitis sicca, dry mouth and generalised body aches. It is one of the connective tissue diseases and has positive auto Ro and La antibodies.
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A female patient presents with pain upon inspiration and dyspnoea. She had a myocardial infarction four days ago. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:Although viral infection is the most common identifiable cause of acute pericarditis, the condition may be associated with many diseases. Non-viral causes of pericarditis include bacterial infection, MI, chest trauma, and neoplasm. Post–MI pericarditis may develop two to four days after an acute infarction and results from a reaction between the pericardium and the damaged adjacent myocardium. Dressler’s syndrome is a post–MI phenomenon in which pericarditis develops weeks to months after an acute infarction; this syndrome is thought to reflect a late autoimmune reaction mediated by antibodies to circulating myocardial antigens.
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Question 24
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A 41 year old woman who has a history of SLE presents with a dry cough, dyspnoea and fever. She is being treated with a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide for Grade IV nephropathy. The last cyclophosphamide dose was 10 years ago. Lab investigations are as follows:
WCC: 2.3 (lymphocyte count 0.7),
Platelets: 8,
Hb: 10.5,
ESR: 56,
CRP: 43.
PO2: 7.2 kPa, PCO2: 3.6 kPa after walking to the toilet.
Chest X ray was unremarkable apart from some patchy pulmonary infiltration.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)
Explanation:Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, is an opportunistic fungal lung infection occurring almost exclusively in immunocompromised individuals. In 50% of cases, PCP is the first manifestation of AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome), but it may be caused by other immunodeficiency disorders. PCP should be suspected in patients with a history of progressive dyspnoea and a dry cough with resistance to standard antibiotic treatment. Signs that support this diagnosis include a CD4 count < 200/μL, an increased beta-D-glucan level, and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray. Management of PCP includes high-dose trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX), treatment of the underlying immunodeficiency disorder, and steroids in the case of severe respiratory insufficiency. TB is less likely to be present in this case as ESR is relatively low and chest x-ray appeared normal.
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 30 year old patient with schizophrenia was brought to Emergency Department, due to reduced level of consciousness. On examination he was febrile, rigid and had tremors. Which of following does not support the diagnosis of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Usually occurs after prolonged treatment
Explanation:Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a life-threatening condition associated with neuroleptic medications. It is characterized by severe muscular rigidity, hyperthermia, autonomic instability (tachycardia, tachypnoea etc) and changes in the level of consciousness. It usually occurs 4-14 days after the start of therapy. Renal failure and elevated creatinine kinase are also associated with this condition.
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man experienced a gradual decrease in vision of one eye after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Macula oedema is noted on his fundoscopy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:Macular disease can affect central vision at any stage of diabetic retinopathy and may be seen in type 2 diabetic patients. Diabetic retinopathy affects up to 80 percent of those who have had diabetes for 20 years or more. Macular oedema occurs when damaged blood vessels leak fluid and lipids onto the macula, the part of the retina that lets us see detail. The fluid makes the macula swell, which blurs vision.
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female presented with a lump in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast, which is 1.5cm in size and tender. What is the initial investigation to be done?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:Tenderness is usually suggestive of a benign breast mass such as a breast abscess. Ultrasound is used to distinguish solid from cystic structures and to direct needle aspiration for abscess drainage.
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A teenage girl presented in the OPD with a history of amenorrhea. She said she was exercising daily and needs to lose weight. On examination, she is 162cm in height and 45kgs in weight. Which of the following is the most probable cause in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypomagnesaemia and hypocalcaemia are possibly present
Explanation:This scenario represents anorexia nervosa disorder, a psychological disorder. Extreme weight loss with a strict diet can lead to deficiency of many nutrients like magnesium and calcium. This can also cause amenorrhea.
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 70 year old male patient was started on gentamicin after developing a pseudomonas aeruginosa infection. Which of the following is associated with aminoglycoside nephrotoxicity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Aminoglycosides can induce acute kidney injury by damaging the cells of the proximal tubule which is its site of reabsorption after glomerular filtration. When the aminoglycoside is administered less frequently, the kidney has more time to recover by eliminating the drug and preventing its accumulation and possible toxic effects.
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Question 30
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A 3-year-old girl presented with rhinorrhoea, barking cough and inspiratory stridor. She was diagnosed with laryngotracheobronchitis. If untreated at this stage which of the following would be the most possible outcome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The prognosis for croup is excellent, and recovery is almost always complete with complications being quite rare. The possible complications are pneumonia, bacterial tracheitis, pulmonary oedema, pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum, lymphadenitis or otitis media. Bacterial tracheitis is a life-threatening infection that can arise after the onset of an acute viral respiratory infection.
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