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  • Question 1 - Regarding the trachea, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the trachea, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: The thyroidea ima artery is particularly vulnerable in tracheostomy.

      Correct Answer: A cricothyrotomy involves making an opening in the neck inferior to the cricoid cartilage.

      Explanation:

      A cricothyrotomy involves making an opening in the median cricothyroid ligament (the medial part of the cricothyroid membrane), between the cricoid cartilage below and the thyroid cartilage above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following muscles inserts into the patella? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles inserts into the patella?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The quadriceps femoris complex

      Explanation:

      The quadriceps femoris muscle translates to “four-headed muscle” from Latin. It bears this name because it consists of four individual muscles; rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus lateralis, and vastus intermedius. Out of all four muscles, only the rectus femoris crosses both the hip and knee joints. The others cross only the knee joint. These muscles differ in their origin, but share a common quadriceps femoris tendon which inserts into the patella. The function of the quadriceps femoris muscle is to extend the leg at the knee joint and to flex the thigh at the hip joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following describes the site of a Meckel's diverticulum: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following describes the site of a Meckel's diverticulum:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ileum

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s lies on the antimesenteric surface of the middle-to-distal ileum, approximately 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal junction. It appears as a blind-ended tubular outpouching of bowel, about 2 inches long, occurring in about 2% of the population, and may contain two types of ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic). The rich blood supply to the diverticulum is provided by the superior mesenteric artery.Proximal to the major duodenal papilla the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery (branch of the coeliac trunk) and distal to the major duodenal papilla it is supplied by the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery (branch of superior mesenteric artery). The arterial supply to the jejunoileum is from the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following nerves has been damaged when a patient presents with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves has been damaged when a patient presents with a foot drop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal nerve often referred to as the common fibular nerve, is a major nerve that innervates the lower extremity. It is one of the two major branches off the sciatic nerve and receives fibres from the posterior divisions of L4 through S2 nerve roots. The common peroneal nerve separates from the sciatic nerve in the distal posterior thigh proximal to the popliteal fossa. After branching off of the sciatic nerve, it continues down the thigh, running posteroinferior to the biceps femoris muscle, and crosses laterally to the head of the lateral gastrocnemius muscle through the posterior intermuscular septum. The nerve then curves around the fibular neck before dividing into two branches, the superficial peroneal nerve (SPN) and the deep peroneal nerve (DPN). The common peroneal nerve does not have any motor innervation before dividing; however, it provides sensory innervation to the lateral leg via the lateral sural nerve.

      The superficial peroneal nerve innervates the lateral compartment of the leg, and the deep peroneal nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the leg and the dorsum of the foot. These two nerves are essential in the eversion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the foot, respectively. The superficial and deep peroneal nerves provide both motor and sensory innervation.

      The most common presentation with common peroneal nerve injury or palsy is acute foot drop, although symptoms may be progressive and can include sensory loss or pain. Weakness in foot eversion may occur if the superficial peroneal nerve component is involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A lesion to which part of the optic radiation will result in contralateral...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion to which part of the optic radiation will result in contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      A visual loss in the lower left quadrant in both visual fields is an indication of an inferior homonymous. This is due to a lesion of the superior fibres of the optic radiation in the parietal lobe on the contralateral side of the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following anatomical structures is most likely the cause of oedema...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anatomical structures is most likely the cause of oedema and erythema of the arm in a patient who underwent modified radical mastectomy and radiotherapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Arm oedema is one of the sequelae after breast cancer surgery and radiation therapy. Arm oedema in the breast cancer patient is caused by interruption of the axillary lymphatic system by surgery or radiation therapy, which results in the accumulation of fluid in subcutaneous tissue in the arm, with decreased distensibility of tissue around the joints and increased weight of the extremity. Chronic inflammatory changes result in both subcutaneous and lymph vessel fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of opioid analgesics:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of opioid analgesics:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      All opioids have the potential to cause:
      Gastrointestinal effects – Nausea, vomiting, constipation, difficulty with micturition (urinary retention), biliary spasm
      Central nervous system effects – Sedation, euphoria, respiratory depression, miosis
      Cardiovascular effects – Peripheral vasodilation, postural hypotension
      Dependence and tolerance

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - All of the following typically occurs as part of normal inspiration except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following typically occurs as part of normal inspiration except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contraction of the internal intercostal muscles

      Explanation:

      Passive inspiration is a result of contraction of the diaphragm (depressing the diaphragm) and the external intercostal muscles (elevating the ribs).
      In inspiration, several movements occur. These are:
      1. elevation of the sternal ends of the ribs (‘pump handle’ movement),
      2. elevation of the lateral shafts of the ribs (‘bucket handle’ movement)
      3. depression of the diaphragm.
      These result in expansion of the thorax in an anteroposterior, transverse and vertical direction respectively. There is an increased intrathoracic volume and decreased intrathoracic pressure and air is drawn into the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A diagnosis of a brain tumour has been established.

      Which of the following anatomical points in the visual pathway has the lesion occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Homonymous quadrantanopia is not a disease; it is a clinical finding that points towards a lesion of the optic radiations coursing through the temporal lobe.
      Homonymous superior quadrantanopia is caused by damage to the contralateral inferior parts of the posterior visual pathway: the inferior optic radiation (temporal Meyer loop), or the inferior part of the occipital visual cortex below the calcarine fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are examining the lower limbs of a 54 year old man who...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the lower limbs of a 54 year old man who presented after falling from a ladder at home. During your neurological assessment you note a weakness of hip flexion. Which of the following nerves is the most important for flexion of the thigh at the hip joint:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Flexion of the thigh at the hip joint is produced by the sartorius, psoas major, iliacus and pectineus muscles, assisted by the rectus femoris muscle, all innervated by the femoral nerve (except for the psoas major, innervated by the anterior rami of L1 – 3).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - At which vertebral level does the spinal cord normally end in adults? ...

    Incorrect

    • At which vertebral level does the spinal cord normally end in adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L1/L2

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord starts at the foramen magnum, where it is continuous with the medulla oblongata, which is the most caudal portion of the brainstem.

      It then extends inferiorly through the vertebral canal. In adults, it usually ends at the level of the first or second lumbar vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are reviewing a patient following a fall from a horse. You suspect...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient following a fall from a horse. You suspect they may have an Erb's palsy as a result of a brachial plexus injury. Regarding Erb's palsy, which one of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erb's palsy may result in loss of sensation of the regimental badge area.

      Explanation:

      Erb’s palsy is caused by damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots and thus primarily involves the musculocutaneous, suprascapular and axillary nerves. It commonly result from an excessive increase in the angle between the neck and the shoulder e.g. a person thrown from a motorbike or horseback or during a difficult birth. There is loss or weakness of abduction, lateral rotation and flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm and loss of sensation on the lateral arm. A characteristic ‘Waiter’s tip’ deformity may be present where the limb hangs limply by the side, medially rotated by the unopposed action of pectoralis major with the forearm pronated due to paralysis of the biceps brachii.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A well recognised adverse effect of metoclopramide is which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • A well recognised adverse effect of metoclopramide is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute dystonic reaction

      Explanation:

      Side effects of metoclopramide are commonly associated with extrapyramidal effects and hyperprolactinemia. Therefore its use must be limited to short-term use. Metoclopramide can induce acute dystonic reactions which involve facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crises. These dystonic effects are more common in the young girls and young women, and in the very old. These symptoms usually occur shortly after starting treatment with this drug and subside within 24 hours of stopping it. Abortion of dystonic attacks can be carried out by injection of an antiparkinsonian drug like procyclidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates piriformis.
    The piriformis muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates piriformis.
      The piriformis muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nerve to piriformis

      Explanation:

      Piriformis is innervated by the nerve to piriformis, which is a direct branch from the sacral plexus (S1 and S2).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A man presents to the emergency department with an injury that has damaged...

    Incorrect

    • A man presents to the emergency department with an injury that has damaged the opponens pollicis muscle.

      Which of the following statements regarding the opponens pollicis muscle is considered correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It flexes the first metacarpal bone at the carpometacarpal joint

      Explanation:

      Opponens pollicis is a muscle of thenar eminence, it is triangular in shape and lies deep to flexor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis brevis. It originates from the flexor retinaculum, tubercles of scaphoid and trapezium, abductor pollicis longus tendon.

      Its insertion is in the radial side of the base of proximal phalanx of thumb. It is supplied by the median nerve (C8, T1). It receives blood supply from superficial arch.

      It flexes the metacarpal bone medially across the palm, also rotating it medially, causing opposition, the palmar aspect of the terminal segment of thumb contacts the flexor aspects of any other digit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25 year old man has sustained a fracture to the surgical neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old man has sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of the humerus after falling from his bike. Examination suggests an axillary nerve injury. The clinical features expected to be seen in this patient are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness of shoulder abduction

      Explanation:

      Axillary nerve injury results in:
      1. weakness of arm abduction (paralysis of deltoid),
      2. weakness of lateral rotation of the arm (paralysis of teres minor)
      3. loss of sensation over the regimental badge area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following occurs at the transverse thoracic plane: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following occurs at the transverse thoracic plane:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bifurcation of the trachea

      Explanation:

      A way to help remember the structures transected by the transverse thoracic plane is CLAPTRAP:
      C: cardiac plexus
      L: ligamentum arteriosum
      A: aortic arch (inner concavity)
      P: pulmonary trunk
      T: tracheal bifurcation (carina)
      R: right-to-left movement of the thoracic duct (posterior to the oesophagus)
      A: azygos vein drains into superior vena cava
      P: pre-vertebral fascia and pre-tracheal fascia end

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for the symptoms of a patient...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for the symptoms of a patient who presented with ophthalmic herpes zoster and a few vesicles on the nose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      Hutchinson sign relates to involvement of the tip of the nose from facial herpes zoster. It implies involvement of the external nasal branch of the nasociliary nerve which is a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.

      The nasociliary branch of the trigeminal nerve innervates the apex and lateral aspect of the nose, as well as the cornea. Therefore, lesions on the side or tip of the nose should raise suspicion of ocular involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What kind of function loss do you anticipate in a 22-year-old guy who...

    Incorrect

    • What kind of function loss do you anticipate in a 22-year-old guy who had a laceration to his arm, resulting in nerve damage in the antecubital fossa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opposition of thumb

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of median nerve injury include tingling or numbness in the forearm, thumb, and three adjacent fingers, as well as gripping weakness and the inability to move the thumb across the palm.

      Because the thenar muscles and the flexor pollicis longus are paralyzed, flexion, abduction, and opposition of the thumb at the MCPJ and IPJ are gone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - CSF is reabsorbed from subarachnoid space via which of the following structures: ...

    Incorrect

    • CSF is reabsorbed from subarachnoid space via which of the following structures:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arachnoid granulations

      Explanation:

      From the subarachnoid cisterns in the subarachnoid space, CSF is reabsorbed via arachnoid granulations which protrude into the dura mater, into the dural venous sinuses and from here back into the circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following movements does the iliacus muscle produce? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following movements does the iliacus muscle produce?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexion of the thigh at the hip joint

      Explanation:

      The iliacus flexes the thigh at the hip joint when the trunk is stabilised. It flexes the trunk against gravity when the body is supine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following clinical features would you least expect to see in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features would you least expect to see in a lesion of the frontal lobe:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

      Explanation:

      Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing results from damage to the primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe. Incontinence may occur due to damage of the cortical micturition centre in the prefrontal cortex. Primitive reflexes and inability to problem solve may occur due to damage to the prefrontal cortex. Motor weakness of the contralateral limb with UMN signs may occur due to damage of the primary motor cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 22 year old male has been stabbed and is brought to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old male has been stabbed and is brought to the ED with a stab wound to his upper limb. On examination, the patient is unable to flex the distal interphalangeal joints of the ring and little finger. However, the proximal interphalangeal joint is intact. The most likely affected nerve is which of the following, and at which level is this occurring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve at elbow

      Explanation:

      The medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus is innervated by the ulnar nerve. Paralysis of this muscle results in loss of flexion at the distal interphalangeal joint of the ring and little finger.
      Flexion at the proximal interphalangeal joint is preserved as this is a function of the flexor digitorum superficialis which is innervated by the median nerve.
      The ulnar nerve is not correct as ulnar nerve injury at the wrist would not affect the long flexors, and the injury must have been more proximal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The corpus spongiosum is ventral in the erect penis.

      Explanation:

      Because the anatomical position of the penis is erect, the paired corpora cavernosa are defined as dorsal in the body of the penis and the single corpus spongiosum as ventral. The nerves and vessels lie superficial to the corpus cavernosum. The urethra lies within the corpus spongiosum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A patient suffers an injury to his thigh that damages the nerve that...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers an injury to his thigh that damages the nerve that innervates pectineus.
      Which of the following nerves has been damaged in this case? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Pectineus is innervated by the femoral nerve. It may also receive a branch from the obturator nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - All of the following typically occurs as part of normal passive expiration except:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following typically occurs as part of normal passive expiration except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contraction of the internal intercostal muscles

      Explanation:

      Passive expiration is produced primarily by relaxation of the inspiratory muscles (diaphragm and external intercostal muscles) in addition to the elastic recoil of the lungs.
      In expiration, several movements occur. There are:
      1. depression of the sternal ends of the ribs (‘pump handle’ movement),
      2. depression of the lateral shafts of the ribs (‘bucket handle’ movement) and
      3. elevation of the diaphragm.
      These result in a reduction of the thorax in an anteroposterior, transverse and vertical direction respectively. There is then a decreased intrathoracic volume and increased intrathoracic pressure and air is forced out of the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Depression of the eyeball is primarily produced by which of the following muscles: ...

    Incorrect

    • Depression of the eyeball is primarily produced by which of the following muscles:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectus and superior oblique

      Explanation:

      Depression of the eyeball is produced by the inferior rectus and the superior oblique muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 12-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after accidentally falling...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after accidentally falling off the monkey bars. Witnesses of the accident reported that, when the patient fell, he hit his right hand on a bar and a loud thump was heard. On examination, the hand is oedematous, tender and erythematous. On ultrasound, a rupture of the flexor carpi ulnaris is noted.

      Which of the following statements is true regarding the flexor carpi ulnaris?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It acts to adduct the hand at the wrist joint

      Explanation:

      Flexor carpi ulnaris is a fusiform muscle located in the anterior compartment of the forearm. It belongs to the superficial flexors of the forearm, along with pronator teres, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis. Flexor carpi ulnaris is the most medial of the superficial flexors.

      Innervation of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle is from the brachial plexus via the ulnar nerve (C7-T1).

      Flexor carpi ulnaris receives its arterial blood supply via three different routes. Proximally, a branch of the posterior ulnar recurrent artery supplies the muscle as it passes between the humeral and ulnar heads. Branches of the ulnar artery supply the middle and distal parts of the muscle, with an accessory supply also present distally via the inferior ulnar collateral artery.

      Due to its position and direction in the forearm, flexor carpi ulnaris can move the hand sideways as well as flexing it. Contracting with flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris produces flexion of the hand at the wrist joint. However, when it contracts alongside the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle in the posterior compartment, their counteracting forces produce adduction of the hand at the wrist, otherwise known as ulnar deviation or ulnar flexion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
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  • Question 29 - Compression of this nerve can cause weakness in the left leg while walking...

    Incorrect

    • Compression of this nerve can cause weakness in the left leg while walking and thigh adduction weakness at the hip joint.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obturator nerve

      Explanation:

      The obturator nerve is a sensory and motor nerve that emerges from the lumbar plexus and innervates the thigh.

      This nerve supplies motor innervation to the medial compartment of the thigh, making it necessary for thigh adduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An injury to the brachial plexus can cause Erb's palsy. The following is...

    Incorrect

    • An injury to the brachial plexus can cause Erb's palsy. The following is expected to happen to a patient suffering from this condition, except for which one:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness of medial rotation of the arm

      Explanation:

      Erb’s palsy can be caused by a traumatic force downward on the upper arm and shoulder that damages the upper root of the brachial plexus.

      The patient will lose shoulder abduction (deltoid, supraspinatus), shoulder external rotation (infraspinatus), and elbow flexion as a result of this condition (biceps, brachialis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

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