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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man, following a fall at home, presents to his GP with...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man, following a fall at home, presents to his GP with acute localised chest pain, associated chronic postural lower back pain and chronic fatigue. On examination, he appears mildly anaemic and dehydrated, and has bruises over his arms and legs despite denying previous trauma. Furthermore, he has marked tenderness over his left lower rib cage, compatible with injured ribs, and tenderness over his lower lumbar spine. The rest of his clinical examination is normal.

      In order to establish a diagnosis of multiple myeloma, based on the patient's symptomology, which of the following combination of criteria is required?

      Your Answer: Abnormal bone scintigram and Bence Jones protein in the urine

      Correct Answer: >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy and radiographic survey demonstrating lytic lesions

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of multiple myeloma (MM) is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.

      Major criteria:
      1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per day

      Minor criteria:
      1. 10–30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
      3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
      4. Immunosuppression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 2 - Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is...

    Incorrect

    • Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is found to have oliguria and diagnosed with acute renal tubular necrosis.
       
      What is the most common complication and cause of death in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      In patients with acute renal tubular necrosis, infection in the form of gram-negative septicaemia is the most common cause of death, especially while the patient is awaiting spontaneous recovery of their renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old male patient is found to have an elevated serum paraprotein level...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male patient is found to have an elevated serum paraprotein level of 35g/L. Bone marrow aspirate reveals 32% monoclonal plasma cell infiltrate. He has no evidence of anaemia, renal impairment, hypercalcaemia, or lytic lesions.

      What should be the next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observe and monitor

      Explanation:

      The patient is asymptomatic but matches the diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma (MM). Therefore, the underlying diagnosis of this condition is smouldering multiple myeloma (SMM). SMM is an early precursor to MM. Its treatment is typically to watch and wait.

      MM is a neoplasm of the bone marrow plasma cells. Peak incidence is in patients aged 60–70 years.

      Clinical features of MM include:
      1. Ostealgia, osteoporosis, pathological fractures (typically vertebral), and osteolytic lesions
      2. Lethargy
      3. Infections
      4. Hypercalcaemia
      5. Renal failure
      6. Other features: amyloidosis e.g. macroglossia, carpal tunnel syndrome; neuropathy; hyperviscosity

      Diagnosis of MM is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.

      Major criteria:
      1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per day

      Minor criteria:
      1. 10–30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
      3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
      4. Immunosuppression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 4 - A 64 year old woman with ankylosing spondylitis presents with cough, weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old woman with ankylosing spondylitis presents with cough, weight loss and tiredness. Her chest x-ray shows longstanding upper lobe fibrosis. Three sputum tests stain positive for acid fast bacilli (AFB) but are consistently negative for Mycobacterium tuberculosis on culture.
       
      Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycobacterium avium intracellular complex

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infection in immunocompetent hosts generally manifests as cough, sputum production, weight loss, fever, lethargy, and night sweats. The onset of symptoms is insidious.
      In patients who may have pulmonary infection with MAC, diagnostic testing includes acid-fast bacillus (AFB) staining and culture of sputum specimens.

      The ATS/IDSA guidelines include clinical, radiographic, and bacteriologic criteria to establish a diagnosis of nontuberculous mycobacterial lung disease.

      Clinical criteria are as follows:

      Pulmonary signs and symptoms such as cough, fatigue, weight loss; less commonly, fever and weight loss; dyspnoea

      Appropriate exclusion of other diseases (e.g., carcinoma, tuberculosis).

      At least 3 sputum specimens, preferably early-morning samples taken on different days, should be collected for AFB staining and culture. Sputum AFB stains are positive for MAC in most patients with pulmonary MAC infection. Mycobacterial cultures grow MAC in about 1-2 weeks, depending on the culture technique and bacterial burden.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 5 - A 41-year-old yoga instructor presents with a 2-month history of left-hand weakness. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old yoga instructor presents with a 2-month history of left-hand weakness. She has no significant past medical history. On examination, there is mild weakness of the left upper and lower limbs with a right sided facial weakness, which spares the forehead. Which of the following is the most likely location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right pons

      Explanation:

      The pons is above the level of decussation of the corticospinal tracts so a pontine lesion would cause a contralateral limb weakness.
      The facial motor nucleus is located in the pons and supplies the ipsilateral facial muscles.
      A right cerebral lesion would give left upper and lower limb weakness. It would also cause a left sided facial weakness.
      A left cerebral lesion would give right upper and lower limb weakness with right facial weakness.
      Finally, a cervical spinal cord lesion would not cause a facial weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements regarding macular degeneration is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding macular degeneration is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wet macular degeneration carries the worst prognosis

      Explanation:

      Traditionally two forms of macular degeneration are seen:
      – Dry (geographic atrophy) macular degeneration is characterized by drusen – yellow round spots in Bruch’s membrane.
      – Wet (exudative, neovascular) macular degeneration is characterized by choroidal neovascularization. Leakage of serous fluid and blood can subsequently result in a rapid loss of vision. This carries the worst prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 7 - A 26 year old male admits to you that he was sexually abused...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old male admits to you that he was sexually abused in his childhood. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of inhibitions

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an anxiety disorder caused by stressful, frightening or distressing events.

      PTSD is a lasting consequence of traumatic ordeals that cause intense fear, helplessness, or horror, such as a sexual or physical assault, the unexpected death of a loved one, an accident, war, or natural disaster. Families of victims can also develop PTSD, as can emergency personnel and rescue workers.

      PTSD is diagnosed after a person experiences symptoms for at least one month following a traumatic event. However symptoms may not appear until several months or even years later. The disorder is characterized by three main types of symptoms:
      -Re-experiencing the trauma through intrusive distressing recollections of the event, flashbacks, and nightmares.
      -Emotional numbness and avoidance of places, people, and activities that are reminders of the trauma.
      -Increased arousal such as difficulty sleeping and concentrating, feeling jumpy, and being easily irritated and angered.

      The goal of PTSD treatment is to reduce the emotional and physical symptoms, to improve daily functioning, and to help the person better cope with the event that triggered the disorder. Treatment for PTSD may involve psychotherapy (a type of counselling), medication, or both.

      Certain antidepressant medications are used to treat PTSD and to control the feelings of anxiety and its associated symptoms including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants. Mood stabilizers such are sometimes used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - In which condition is the sniff test useful in diagnosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which condition is the sniff test useful in diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerve provides the primary motor supply to the diaphragm, the major respiratory muscle.
      Phrenic nerve paralysis is a rare cause of exertional dyspnoea that should be included in the differential diagnosis. Fluoroscopy is considered the most reliable way to document diaphragmatic paralysis. During fluoroscopy a patient is asked to sniff and there is a paradoxical rise of the paralysed hemidiaphragm. This is to confirm that the cause is due to paralysis rather than unilateral weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 9 - A 60-year old female suddenly started seeing a curtain-like shadow in her field...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year old female suddenly started seeing a curtain-like shadow in her field of vision with flashes of lights and subsequent loss of vision, which prompted her to visit her ophthalmologist. What do you think is the most appropriate treatment in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Flashes of light, presence of floaters and loss of vision (often described as a black curtain closing in on the visual field) are symptoms that strongly indicate retinal detachment. The fundoscopy findings of retinal tears support this diagnosis. Therefore, surgery of retina must be done to treat this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 10 - Choose the correct definition regarding the standard error of the mean: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct definition regarding the standard error of the mean:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Standard deviation / square root (number of patients)

      Explanation:

      The SEM is an indicator of how close the sample mean is to the population mean. In reality, however, only one sample is extracted from the population. Therefore, the SEM is estimated using the standard deviation (SD) and a sample size (Estimated SEM). The SEM computed by a statistical program is an estimated value calculated via this process.

      Estimated Standard Error of the Mean (SEM)=SDn√

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competiung in an iron...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competiung in an iron man triathlon. His blood results are as follows:
      Na+: 122 mmol/L,
      K+: 3.4 mmol/L,
      Urea: 3.2 mmol/L,
      Creatinine: 69 umol/l.

      During assessment he becomes increasingly obtunded and goes on to have multiple tonic clonic seizures. What is the most appropriate treatment from the list below to improve his neurological status?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertonic saline

      Explanation:

      Over consumption of fluids, prolonged race duration and inadequate training all can predispose to acute hyponatraemia.
      Mild symptoms include a decreased ability to think, headaches, nausea, and an increased risk of falls. Severe symptoms include confusion, seizures, and coma. Normal serum sodium levels are 135 – 145 mEq/liter (135 – 145 mmol/L). Hyponatremia is generally defined as a serum sodium level of less than 135 mEq/L and is considered severe when the level is below 120 mEq/L.
      The correct treatment to give is hypertonic saline. Decompressive craniotomy would help alleviate raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral oedema however is not an appropriate first line treatment. Demeclocycline is used for SIADH and mannitol is more likely to be used in the context of traumatic brain injury.
      Hyponatremia is corrected slowly, to lessen the risk of the development of central pontine myelinolysis (CPM), a severe neurological disease involving a breakdown of the myelin sheaths covering parts of nerve cells. During treatment of hyponatremia, the serum sodium (salt level in the blood) should not rise by more than 8 mmol/L over 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old woman presents with weight loss, palpitations, diarrhoea and cessation of periods....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with weight loss, palpitations, diarrhoea and cessation of periods. She has been treated by her GP for anxiety. Examination reveals a single nodule on the left of her thyroid, about 1.5 cm in diameter.
      Thyroid scan shows increased uptake within the nodule with reduced activity throughout the rest of the gland.
      Thyroid function tests showed a free thyroxine of 30 pmol/l (9–25 pmol/l), TSH < 0.05 mU/l (0.5–5).
      Based on these findings, what would be the definitive treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radioactive iodine therapy

      Explanation:

      Patients who have autonomously functioning nodules should be treated definitely with radioactive iodine or surgery.
      Na131 I treatment – In the United States and Europe, radioactive iodine is considered the treatment of choice for Toxic Nodular Goitre. Except for pregnancy, there are no absolute contraindications to radioiodine therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is worried she may be depressed.

      On examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease and a gold-yellow ring at the periphery of the iris in both eyes. Her serum copper level is low.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      This patient has Wilson’s disease. They Kayser-Fleischer ring (ring that encircles the iris) is diagnostic of this. Low serum copper is seen in Wilson’s disease. With the Kayser-Fleischer ring, this makes all of the other answer choices incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 60 yr. old male smoker and a known hypertensive presented with central...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old male smoker and a known hypertensive presented with central chest pain radiating to the back. On examination he was tachycardic and hypotensive. His ECG showed inferior ST elevation and his transoesophageal echocardiogram showed a double lumen in the ascending aorta. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dissecting aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      The classic history in this high risk patient is suggestive of a dissecting aortic aneurysm. His transoesophageal echocardiogram confirms the diagnosis. ST elevation in ECG is probably due to the extension of the dissection of the aorta which results in compromised coronary blood supply.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 15 - Which one of the following skin conditions is matched correctly with its treatment?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following skin conditions is matched correctly with its treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      One of the options of Psoriasis treatment is vitamin D analogues i.e. calcipotriol. Acne is exacerbated by steroids. Erythema nodosum can be caused by various diseases and the treatment of the primary condition resolves the symptoms. Lipomas requires surgery, whereas Steven-Johnson syndrome requires use of steroids and eliminating the culprit drug, which is one of the most common causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 60–year-old woman comes to the hospital for chemotherapy for breast cancer.
    On...

    Incorrect

    • A 60–year-old woman comes to the hospital for chemotherapy for breast cancer.
      On examination, her pulse is 120 bpm and regular and BP is 90/60. Her JVP is not seen, her heart sounds are normal, and her chest is clear. There is evidence of a right mastectomy. Abdominal and neurological examination is normal.
      Short synacthen test was ordered and the results came as follows:
      Time (min):
      0,
      30,
      60.
      Cortisol (nmol/l):
      90,
      130,
      145.

      Which two of the following would be your immediate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous normal saline six-hourly

      Explanation:

      Synacthen test interpretation:
      – Basal Cortisol level should be greater than 180nmol/L
      – 30min or 60min Cortisol should be greater than 420nmol/L (whatever the basal level)
      – The increment should be at least 170nmol/L, apart from in severely ill patients where adrenal output is already maximal.
      The patient’s results show that she has Acute Adrenal Insufficiency
      The guidelines include the following recommendations for emergency treatment:
      Administer hydrocortisone: Immediate bolus injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone intravenously or intramuscularly followed by continuous intravenous infusion of 200 mg hydrocortisone per 24 hours (alternatively, 50 mg hydrocortisone per intravenous or intramuscular injection every 6 h)
      Rehydrate with rapid intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of isotonic saline infusion within the first hour, followed by further intravenous rehydration as required (usually 4-6 L in 24 h; monitor for fluid overload in case of renal impairment and elderly patients)
      Contact an endocrinologist for urgent review of the patient, advice on further tapering of hydrocortisone, and investigation of the underlying cause of the disease, including the diagnosis of primary versus secondary adrenal insufficiency
      Tapering of hydrocortisone can be started after clinical recovery guided by an endocrinologist; in patients with primary adrenal insufficiency, mineralocorticoid replacement must be initiated (starting dose 100 μg fludrocortisone once daily) as soon as the daily glucocorticoid dose is below 50 mg of hydrocortisone every 24 hours

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following is the mechanism of action of bivalirudin in acute...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the mechanism of action of bivalirudin in acute coronary syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reversible direct thrombin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Bivalirudin is a competitive, direct thrombin inhibitor. It inhibits both free and clot-bound thrombin and thrombin-induced platelet aggregation. Thrombin enables fibrinogen conversion to fibrin during the coagulation cascade. So inhibition of fibrinogen conversion to fibrin inhibits thrombus development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend. Though there is little previous history, the friend believes that he has been suffering from depression for several years, and his medications have been changed by his general practitioner quite recently.
      On examination the patient is agitated and confused, his pupils are dilated. He also has tremors, excessive sweating, and grinding of teeth. His heart rate is 118 beats/min, which is regular, and is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is serotonin syndrome.

      The serotonin syndrome is a cluster of symptoms and signs (range from barely perceptible tremor to life-threatening hyperthermia and shock).
      It may occur when SSRIs such as citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine, fluoxetine, paroxetine, and sertraline that impair the reuptake of serotonin from the synaptic cleft into the presynaptic neuron are taken in combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors or tricyclic antidepressants. It has also been reported following an overdose of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) alone.

      Treatment:
      Most cases of serotonin syndrome are mild and will resolve with removal of the offending drug alone.
      After stopping all serotonergic drugs, management is largely supportive and aimed at preventing complications.
      Patients frequently require sedation, which is best facilitated with benzodiazepines.
      Antipsychotics should be avoided because of their anticholinergic properties, which may inhibit sweating and heat dissipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 19 - A 51-year-old real estate agent takes hydrocortisone 20mg in the mornings and 5mg...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old real estate agent takes hydrocortisone 20mg in the mornings and 5mg at night for Addison’s disease. The endocrinology consultant would like her to take prednisolone instead.

      What dose of prednisolone should be started?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 mg

      Explanation:

      1mg Prednisolone = 4mg hydrocortisone, so the actual equivalent daily dose is 7mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 20 - A 70 year old female presented with throbbing and continuous headache and loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old female presented with throbbing and continuous headache and loss of vision. Her ESR was elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Giant Cell Arteritis (Temporal Arteritis) is the most probable diagnosis. GCA should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache in patients 50 years of age or older with an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Temporal artery biopsy remains the criterion standard for diagnosis of this granulomatous vasculitis. High-dose corticosteroid therapy is the universally accepted treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 21 - A 62-year-old man presents with haematuria. Cystoscopy is carried out which reveals transitional...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with haematuria. Cystoscopy is carried out which reveals transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder.

      Occupational exposure to which of the following is a recognised risk factor for bladder cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aniline dye

      Explanation:

      The risk factors for bladder cancer are:

      1. Smoking
      2. Exposure to aniline dyes in the printing and textile industry
      3. Exposure to rubber manufacturing
      4. Cyclophosphamides
      5. Schistosomiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 22 - A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic hepatitis B. The mothers latest results are as follows: HBsAg: Positive, HBeAg: Positive.

      What is the most appropriate strategy for reducing the vertical transmission rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      The Green Book guidelines report in an active infection (HBeAg+ and HBsAg+) to give the vaccine as well as immunoglobulin. If antibodies are present it is not active infection (anti-Hbe) and then in that case only the vaccine, and no immunoglobulin, would be given. The presence of HBeAg means a person is infectious and can transmit to other people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months back...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months back was started on treatment with tamoxifen. Which of the following is most likely a complaint of this patient during her review today?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hot flushes

      Explanation:

      The most likely complaint of this patient would be hot flushes.

      Alopecia and cataracts are listed in the BNF as possible side-effects. They are however not as prevalent as hot flushes, which are very common in pre-menopausal women.

      Tamoxifen is a Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) which acts as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. It is used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer

      Adverse effects:
      Menstrual disturbance: vaginal bleeding, amenorrhoea
      Hot flushes – 3% of patients stop taking tamoxifen due to climacteric side-effects.
      Venous thromboembolism.
      Endometrial cancer
      Tamoxifen is typically used for 5 years following the removal of the tumour.

      Raloxifene is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer.

      Although antagonistic with respects to breast tissue tamoxifen may serve as an agonist at other sites. Therefore the risk of endometrial cancer is increased cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B2-microglobulin

      Explanation:

      B2-microglobulin is a useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma (MM). Raised levels imply a poorer prognosis. Low levels of albumin are also associated with a poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 25 - Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria

      Explanation:

      Sunlight, especially its ultraviolet radiation component, can cause increased or additional types of damage in predisposed individuals, such as those taking certain phototoxic drugs, or those with certain conditions associated with photosensitivity, including:
      – Psoriasis
      – Atopic eczema
      – Erythema multiforme
      – Seborrheic dermatitis
      – Autoimmune bullous diseases (immunobullous diseases)
      – Mycosis fungoides
      – Smith–Lemli–Opitz syndrome
      – Porphyria cutanea tarda
      Also, many conditions are aggravated by strong light, including:
      – Systemic lupus erythematosus
      – Sjögren’s syndrome
      – Sinear Usher syndrome
      – Rosacea
      – Dermatomyositis
      – Darier’s disease
      – Kindler-Weary syndrome
      Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) belongs to the group inborn errors of metabolism and most patients with AIP are not light sensitive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - A 77-year-old retired engineer presents with a burning sensation around his right eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old retired engineer presents with a burning sensation around his right eye. On examination, an erythematous blistering rash can be seen in the right trigeminal distribution. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

      Explanation:

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) describes the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It accounts for around 10% of case of shingles. Features include a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the actual eye itself, and Hutchinson’s sign: a rash on the tip or side of the nose, indicating nasociliary involvement and is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 27 - A 76 year old female who is admitted to the ward complains that...

    Incorrect

    • A 76 year old female who is admitted to the ward complains that she is experiencing visual hallucinations. She was admitted following a decline in mobility that was thought to be secondary to a urinary tract infection. Improvements have been seen clinically and biochemically while she has been admitted and she is currently awaiting discharge.

      Upon review, she states that she has seen wolves walking around her bed. She has a background of hypertension, depression and age-related macular degeneration. What is the most appropriate step in this patient's management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the patient

      Explanation:

      Charles Bonnet syndrome (CBS) involves visual hallucinations due to eye disease, usually associated with a sharp decline in vision. The phenomenon is seen in patients with moderate or severe visual impairment. It can occur spontaneously as the vision declines or it may be precipitated, in predisposed individuals, by concurrent illness such as infections elsewhere in the body.

      It is not clear why CBS develops or why some individuals appear to be predisposed to it. It is particularly noted in patients with advanced macular degeneration. It has been suggested that reduced or absent stimulation of the visual system leads to increased excitability of the visual cortex (deafferentation hypothesis). This release phenomenon is compared to phantom limb symptoms after amputation.

      CBS is much more common in older patients because conditions causing marked visual loss are more common in older people. However, it can occur at any age and has been described in children.
      The prevalence is hard to assess due to considerable under-reporting, perhaps because patients frequently fear that it is a sign of mental illness or dementia. However, it is thought to occur in:
      About 10-15% of patients with moderate visual loss.
      Possibly up to 50% of people with severe visual loss.
      Presentation:
      The nature of the hallucination depends on the part of the brain that is activated. The hallucinations may be black and white or in colour. They may involve grids/brickwork/lattice patterns but are typically much more complex:

      The hallucinations are always outside the body.
      The hallucinations are purely visual – other senses are not involved.
      The hallucinations have no personal meaning to the patient.
      Hallucinations may last seconds, minutes or hours.
      CBS tends to occur in a ‘state of quiet restfulness’. This may be after a meal or when listening to the radio (but not when dozing off).
      Symptoms also have a tendency to occur in dim lighting conditions.
      Patients may report high levels of distress, with some patients reporting anger, anxiety and even fear associated with the hallucinations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A 76-year-old retired store owner presents with severe pain around his right eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old retired store owner presents with severe pain around his right eye and vomiting. On examination, the right eye is red and decreased visual acuity is noted.

      Which of the following options is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical pilocarpine + intravenous acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      In acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) there is a rise in IOP secondary to an impairment of aqueous outflow. Management options include reducing aqueous secretions with acetazolamide and inducing pupillary constriction with topical pilocarpine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease characterized by patches of skin typically red, dry, itchy, and scaly. Psoriasis can affect the nails and produces a variety of changes in the appearance of finger and toe nails including pitting and onycholysis. Nail psoriasis occurs in 40–45% of people with psoriasis affecting the skin and has a lifetime incidence of 80–90% in those with psoriatic arthritis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 30 - A 40-year-old female patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is diagnosed with type 1 renal tubular acidosis. What is the most probable sequela of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrocalcinosis

      Explanation:

      Distal renal tubular acidosis is due to defective proton secretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the distal tubule caused by dysfunction of the H+/K+ antiporter on the apical membrane. This leads to failure of H+ excretion thereby causing systemic acidosis and potassium depletion. Inability to lower the urine pH below 5.3 in the presence of systemic acidosis is the diagnostic hallmark of type I or distal renal tubular acidosis. Hypercalciuria, hypocitraturia and elevated urinary pH observed in distal renal tubular acidosis can lead to nephrocalcinosis and may cause renal calculi, obstructive uropathy and renal failure necessitating surgical or endoscopic stone extraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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