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Question 1
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A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last week during a routine physical examination. Two years ago, the patient had bilateral reduction mammoplasty for breast hyperplasia. Her paternal grandmother died of breast cancer at the age of 65, thus she doesn't take any drugs or have any allergies.
A fixed lump in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast is palpated during a breast examination. In the upper outer quadrant of the right breast, mammography reveals a 3 × 3-cm spiculated tumour with coarse calcifications. A hyperechoic mass can be seen on ultrasonography of the breast. The mass is removed with concordant pathologic findings, and a core biopsy reveals foamy macrophages and fat globules.
Which of the following is the best plan of action for this patient's management?Your Answer: MRI of the breast
Correct Answer: Reassurance and routine follow-up
Explanation:Fat necrosis is a benign (non-cancerous) breast condition that can develop when an area of fatty breast tissue is injured. It can also develop after breast surgery or radiation treatment.
There are different stages of fat necrosis. As the fat cells die, they release their contents, forming a sac-like collection of greasy fluid called an oil cyst. Over time, calcifications (small deposits of calcium) can form around the walls of the cyst, which can often be seen on mammograms. As the body continues to repair the damaged breast tissue, it’s usually replaced by denser scar tissue. Oil cysts and areas of fat necrosis can form a lump that can be felt, but it usually doesn’t hurt. The skin around the lump might look thicker, red, or bruised. Sometimes these changes can be hard to tell apart from cancers on a breast exam or even a mammogram. If this is the case, a breast biopsy (removing all or part of the lump to look at the tissue under the microscope) might be needed to find out if the lump contains cancer cells. These breast changes do not affect your risk for breast cancer.
Mastectomy, axillary node dissection and radiation therapy are all management options for malignancy which this patient doesn’t have.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
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Question 3
Incorrect
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After 2yearsof marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41has been unable to conceive. Her husband's sperm analysis is normal, and he has no additional abnormalities. The fallopian tube looks to be blocked.
What is the best course of action for her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suggest her to lose weight
Explanation:This patient has been unable to conceive for over a year, and her fallopian tubes are blocked. Her body mass index is 42.
Because she has obstructed Fallopian tubes, in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) is an alternative to getting pregnant for this patient.
A woman with a BMI over 35, on the other hand, will need twice as many IVF rounds to conceive as a woman of normal weight.
As a result, the greatest advise for successful IVF would be to decrease weight as the first step in management.
Obese (BMI less than 40) patients’ IVF success chances are reduced by 25% and 50%, respectively. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischial Spine
Explanation:The ischial spines and palpable through the vagina and are used as landmarks to assess the decent of the fetal head from the cervix. It also serves as a landmark for giving the pudendal block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are asked to review the early pregnancy ultrasound scan of a 27 year old lady. The transvaginal ultrasound results show a gestational sac of 26mm with no fetal pole and no fetal heartbeat. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Miscarriage
Explanation:Ultrasound findings in early pregnancy can help determine the viability of an intrauterine pregnancy. In the absence of a fetal heartbeat and no visible fetal pole, the mean gestational sac diameter should be measured. A sac diameter of less than 25mm on a transvaginal ultrasound scan is likely an indication of a miscarriage. In the presence of a fetal heartbeat, the crown-rump length should be less than 7mm according to NICE guidelines. Further scans are indicated 14 days later to confirm the diagnosis. The diagnosis of ‘pregnancy of uncertain viability’ is given in situations where there is inadequate ultrasound evidence to diagnose a miscarriage, such as a developing sac but no visualisation of a foetus with a heartbeat.
Ultrasound findings for partial molar pregnancy are an enlarged placenta with multiple diffuse anechogenic patches, while findings in a complete molar pregnancy include an enlarged uterus with multiple small anechogenic spaces (snowstorm appearance), or the bunch of grapes sign representing hydropic trophoblastic villi. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 6
Incorrect
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At what stage of gestation does maternal immunoglobulin G transfer to the foetus start?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12 weeks
Explanation:Transportation of the maternal IgG through the placenta starts around the 12 week of gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female G2P1 is in labour at the 38th week of gestation. Her membranes ruptured about 8 hours ago. At the moment, she is having contractions lasting 60 seconds every 4 minutes and is 8 cm dilated. The fetal heart tone baseline is currently 80/min with absent variability. The pregnancy was uneventful and she had regular prenatal check-ups.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maternal position change and oxygen
Explanation:This patient is towards the end of the first stage of labour and is having complications. Labour is divided into 3 stages. The first stage begins at regular uterine contractions and ends with complete cervical dilatation at 10 cm. It has a latent phase and an active phase- The active phase is usually considered to have begun when cervical dilatation reaches 4 cm. So this patient is in the active phase of the first stag- The second stage begins with complete cervical dilatation and ends with the delivery of the foetus. The third stage of labour is the period between the delivery of the foetus and the delivery of the placenta and fetal membranes.
This patient’s contractions seem adequate and yet the fetal heart tone with baseline 80/min and absent variability suggests fetal distress. This is category III of the fetal heart rate pattern because the baseline rate is < 110/min with absent variability. It is usually predictive of abnormal acid-base status. The recommended actions are maternal position change and oxygen administration, discontinuation of labour stimulus such as oxytocin, treatment of possible underlying conditions, and expedited delivery.
→ Magnesium sulphate infusion is mainly used to prevent eclamptic seizures and despite no evidence of its effectiveness as a tocolytic agent, it is used sometimes to reduce risks of preterm birth.
→ Fetal scalp pH monitoring would help determine if there is indeed an acidosis and should be done before deciding whether a Caesarean section is necessary, but maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
→ Ultrasonography may be used for preinduction cervical length measurement or if the active stage has already started- It is considered more accurate than digital pelvic exam in the assessment of fetal descent; however, at this point maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
→ Immediate Caesarean section would be done if fetal scalp pH monitoring revealed a pH < 7.20. At this point, the best next step is maternal position change and oxygen administration. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin levels increase during stress
Explanation:Causes of Hyperprolactinemia: Prolactinomas, Medication (phenothiazines, metoclopramide, risperidone, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, oestrogens, verapamil), Stress, Pregnancy, Hypothyroidism, Kidney disease, Chest trauma
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying for 2.5 years. The semen analysis shows azoospermia. You perform a full examination of the male partner which reveals Height 192cm, BMI 20.5, small testes and scant facial hair. You decide to organise karyotyping. What is the result likely to show?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 47XXY
Explanation:Klinefelter syndrome is associated with testicular atrophy, eunuchoid body shape, tall, long extremities, female hair distribution and gynaecomastia. It is a common cause of hypogonadism seen during fertility workup.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You review a patient who is 34 weeks pregnant. She complains of gradually worsening itching over the past 6 weeks particularly to the hands and feet which is worse at night. You order some bloods. Which of the following would you normally expect to increase in the 3rd trimester?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ALP
Explanation:ALP can rise to up to 3 times the normal non-pregnant value in the 3rd trimester. All of the other tests above typically decrease during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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