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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady is diagnosed with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) of the cervix after standard pap smear testing. She was referred to a gynaecologist, who effectively treated her. This patient has now been returned to you.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Annual human papilloma virus typing
Correct Answer: Colposcopy and cervical cytology at 4 to 6 months
Explanation:Monitoring after treatment for HSIL includes:
– colposcopy and cervical cytology at 4 to 6 months followed by HPV typing at 12 months and annually until a negative test is obtained on 2 subsequent check ups.
-2 yearly screening interval can be done afterwards. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Stages of labour
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The third stage ends with the delivery of the placenta and membranes
Explanation:First stage: The latent phase is generally defined as beginning at the point at which the woman perceives regular uterine contractions. A definition of active labour in a British journal was having contractions more frequent than every 5 minutes, in addition to either a cervical dilation of 3 cm or more or a cervical effacement of 80% or more.
Second stage: fetal expulsion begins when the cervix is fully dilated, and ends when the baby is born.
Third stage: placenta delivery – The period from just after the foetus is expelled until just after the placenta is expelled is called the third stage of labour or the involution stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for Diazepam overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flumazenil
Explanation:Flumazenil is used for benzodiazepine overdose.
Naloxone is used for opioid overdose.
Parvolex (N-acetyl cysteine) is used for paracetamol overdose.
Protamine can be used for Heparin reversal.
Beriplex can be used for Warfarin reversal. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 34 year old white primigravida in her first trimester had established moderate hypertension before becoming pregnant. She currently has a blood pressure of 168/108 mm Hg. You are considering how to best manage her hypertension during the pregnancy. Which one of the following is associated with the greatest risk of fetal growth retardation if used for hypertension throughout pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atenolol (Tenormin)
Explanation:Atenolol and propranolol are associated with intrauterine growth retardation when used for prolonged periods during pregnancy. They are class D agents during pregnancy. Other beta-blockers may not share this risk.
Methyldopa, hydralazine, and calcium channel blockers have not been associated with intrauterine growth retardation. They are generally acceptable agents to use for established, significant hypertension during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to hospital with very severe hypertension. This is her second pregnancy. In the United Kingdom, what is the first line of treatment for hypertension whilst pregnant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Atenolol is considered teratogenic and has two main risks: fetal bradycardia and neonatal apnoea. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are also known to be teratogenic (even though large-scale studies are difficult to conduct during pregnancies).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeks’ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with irregular uterine contractions for the past 24 hours and has concerns about premature delivery. She delivered her first child at 38 weeks of gestation and her second at 39 weeks gestation. On examination, BP and urinalysis have come back normal. Her symphysis-fundal height measures 27cm, the uterus is lax and non-tender. Fetal heart rate is 148/min. She also undergoes a pelvic examination along with other investigations.
Which findings would suggest that delivery is most likely going to happen before 30 weeks’ of gestation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The cervix is closed, but the fetal fibronectin test on cervical secretions is positive.
Explanation:Predisposing factors of preterm delivery include a short cervix (or if it shortens earlier than in the third trimester), urinary tract or sexually transmitted infections, open cervical os, and history of a previous premature delivery. Increased uterine size can also contribute to preterm delivery and is seen with cases of polyhydramnios, macrosomia and multiple pregnancies. The shorter the cervical length, the greater the risk of a premature birth.
In this case, the risk of bacterial vaginosis and candidiasis contributing to preterm delivery would be lower than if in the context of an open cervical os. However, the risk of premature delivery is significantly increased if it is found that the fetal fibronectin test is positive, even if the os is closed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following regarding the use of tocolytics is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Use of a tocolytic drug is not associated with a clear reduction in perinatal or neonatal mortality, or neonatal morbidity
Explanation:Tocolytics are used to suppress contractions. The Canadian preterm labour trial which remains a very influential tocolytic trial to date concluded that tocolytics such as a beta agonist have no significant benefit on perinatal mortality or morbidity or prolong pregnancy to term however it did reduce the number of women delivering within 2 days by 40%. This 48 hour window is the only reason for the use of tocolytics.
Choice of tocolytic (NICE)
1st line: Nifedipine
2nd line: Oxytocin receptor antagonists e.g. atosiban -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A young female patient presents at a family clinic seeking advice about her options for contraception. She is considering taking combined OCPS but is worried about the risk of cancer with long term use.
Which of the following is increased by OCPs?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervical cancer
Explanation:The risks of breast and cervical cancers are increased in women who use oral contraceptives, whereas the risks of endometrial, ovarian, and colorectal cancers are reduced.
Women who have used oral contraceptives for 5 or more years have a higher risk of cervical cancer than women who have never used oral contraceptives. The longer a woman uses oral contraceptives, the greater the increase in her risk of cervical cancer.
One study found a 10% increased risk for less than 5 years of use, a 60% increased risk with 5–9 years of use, and a doubling of the risk with 10 or more years of use. However, the risk of cervical cancer has been found to decline over time after women stop using oral contraceptives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 18-year-old girl arrives at the ER with severe abdominal pain. When it started, she was in the school band. She says the pain began 30 minutes ago in the left lower region and didn't radiate. On a scale of 1 to 10, the discomfort is a 7 and is not accompanied by nausea, vomiting, or diarrhoea. Menarche began at the age of thirteen. Her menses were erratic at first, but she has had regular periods for the past six months.
Her vital signs are stable, and she has no fever. She uses combination oral contraceptives and is sexually active. She denies taking any other drugs. A flat abdomen with regular peristalsis is revealed on physical examination. Pelvic examination indicates a regular vagina with a normal-appearing cervix. There is no mucopurulent cervical discharge. Bimanual examination is remarkable with a tender 5-cm mass in the left adnexa.
A pregnancy test result is negative. A pelvic sonogram exhibits a normal intrauterine pregnancy and a 5 X 6 cm complex mass of the left ovary, with focal areas of calcification.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic teratoma
Explanation:Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.
Most mature cystic teratomas can be diagnosed at ultrasonography (US) but may have a variety of appearances, characterized by echogenic sebaceous material and calcification.
Follicular cysts are simple fluid-filled cysts and never have calcifications.
Mucinous cystadenoma usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence However, calcifications are not usually seen.
Brenner tumour is also a benign epithelial ovarian tumour but it is solid, occurring most often in women over 50 years of age.
Serous cystadenoma also does not show calcifications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding oestrogen is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is produced in the corpus luteum
Explanation:Oestrogen is secreted by the corpus luteum and is responsible for the proliferation of the endometrium to prepare it for the implantation of the zygote.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Engagement of the foetus can be defined as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: When the greatest biparietal diameter of the fetal head passes the pelvic inlet
Explanation:Engagement means when the fetal head enters the pelvic brim/inlet and it usually takes place 2 weeks before the estimated delivery date i.e. at 38 weeks of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Branches V2 and V3 of the Trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1st
Explanation:1st Arch = Trigeminal V2 & V3 (CN V) 2nd Arch = Facial (CN VII) 3rd Arch = Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) 4th and 6th Arches = Vagus (CN X)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following is regarded as the current Gold standard in the diagnosis of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rotterdam
Explanation:The Rotterdam criteria was developed and expanded by the European Society of Human Reproduction and Embryology/American Society for Reproductive Medicine Rotterdam consensus (ESHRE/ASRM) in 2003 and is now the Gold standard in the diagnosis of PCOS. The criteria requires two of three features: anovulation, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries seen on ultrasound.
The National Institute of Child Health and Human Development (NICHD) attempted to define PCOS in 1990 but omitted ultrasonographic evidence of polycystic ovaries which is considered to be diagnostic of PCOS.
The Androgen Excess Society (AES) served to confirm hyperandrogenism as the central event in the development of PCOS.
The ROME III criteria is used for Irritable Bowel Disease and is therefore not applicable to PCOS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 15
Incorrect
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At what week in pregnancy is testing for gestational diabetes (GD) advised
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: As soon as possible after booking if past history of GD
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justified to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specificity for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges. The women should be tested as soon as possible after booking if there is a history of GD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 16
Incorrect
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If both parents have beta-thalassaemia minor, what is the chance of their male offspring having beta thalassemia major?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:This is not an X-linked condition so the sex of the child makes no difference to the inheritance. Any child will have a 1 in 4 chance of having beta thalassaemia major.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 8 week pregnant female presents to the ob-gyn with bleeding from the vagina for the last two days. Bimanual examination reveals the uterus to be 8 weeks in size. On speculum examination, the cervical os is closed. How would the fetal viability be confirmed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Indication for a transvaginal ultrasound during pregnancy include:
– to monitor the heartbeat of the foetus
– look at the cervix for any changes that could lead to complications such as miscarriage or premature delivery
– examine the placenta for abnormalities
– identify the source of any abnormal bleeding
– diagnose a possible miscarriage
– confirm an early pregnancyThis is an ultrasound examination that is usually carried out vaginally at 6-10 weeks of pregnancy.
The aims of this scan are to determine the number of embryos present and whether the pregnancy is progressing normally inside the uterus.
This scan is useful for women who are experiencing pain or bleeding in the pregnancy and those who have had previous miscarriages or ectopic pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old college student comes to your clinic for contraception guidance. For the past three months, she has had migraine-like headaches once or twice a month. For the past two years, she has been taking combined oral contraceptive pills.
Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stopping the combined oral contraceptive pills and starting progesterone only pills (POP)
Explanation:Combined oral contraceptives are a safe and highly effective method of birth control, but they can also raise problems of clinical tolerability and/or safety in migraine patients. It is now commonly accepted that, in migraine with aura, the use of combined oral contraceptives is always contraindicated, and that their intake must also be suspended by patients suffering from migraine without aura if aura symptoms appear.
Discontinuation of contraception could risk in pregnancy. Barrier methods can be used but aren’t as effective as pills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the main reason for the active management of the third stage of labour?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevent postpartum haemorrhage
Explanation:According to the WHO, active management of the third stage of labour has been shown to decrease the risk of postpartum haemorrhage in vaginal births worldwide. Per the guidelines from the International Federation of Gynaecologists and Obstetricians (FIGO), the active management of the third stage is summarised as follows:
1. The administration of a uterotonic (oxytocin, ergometrine or misoprostol), within one minute of fetal delivery,
2.Controlled cord traction with manual support to the uterus until placental delivery
3. Fundal massage immediately after placental delivery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 24 year old female patient undergoes an STI screen due to development of dysuria 5 days earlier. The results are positive for chlamydia infection. With regard to contact tracing what is the recommended action regarding tracing and informing sexual partners in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All sexual partners past 6 months
Explanation:In case a person tests positive for chlamydia, all sexual partners over the period of 6 months should to contacted and started on appropriate antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 22
Incorrect
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WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life per 1000 births
Explanation:The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life per 1000 births.
According to WHO the perinatal period commences at 22 completed weeks (154 days) of gestation and ends seven completed days after birth. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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After 2yearsof marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41has been unable to conceive. Her husband's sperm analysis is normal, and he has no additional abnormalities. The fallopian tube looks to be blocked.
What is the best course of action for her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suggest her to lose weight
Explanation:This patient has been unable to conceive for over a year, and her fallopian tubes are blocked. Her body mass index is 42.
Because she has obstructed Fallopian tubes, in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) is an alternative to getting pregnant for this patient.
A woman with a BMI over 35, on the other hand, will need twice as many IVF rounds to conceive as a woman of normal weight.
As a result, the greatest advise for successful IVF would be to decrease weight as the first step in management.
Obese (BMI less than 40) patients’ IVF success chances are reduced by 25% and 50%, respectively. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The COCP (Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill) causes all of the following biochemical effects EXCEPT which one?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elevate FSH
Explanation:Remember patients with PCOS have elevated LH. COCPs suppress synthesis and secretion of FSH and the mid-cycle surge of LH, thus inhibiting the development of ovarian follicles and ovulation COCPs reduce hyperandrogenism as reduced LH secretion results in decreased ovarian synthesis of androgens. Furthermore they stimulate the liver to produce Sex Hormone Binding Globulin which leads to decreased circulating free androgens. Other mechanisms include reduction in adrenal androgen secretion and inhibition of peripheral conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone and binding of dihydrotestosterone to androgen receptors
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy. She is complaining of mild vaginal bleeding for the past 12 hours, along with bouts of mild cramping lower abdominal pain.
On vaginal examination, the cervical os is closed with mild discharge containing blood clots and an ultrasonography confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal heart rate.
Which among of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Threatened abortion
Explanation:Uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix along with sonographic visualization of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity are diagnostic of threatened abortion.
Abortion does not always follow a uterine bleeding in early pregnancy, sometimes not even after repeated episodes or large amounts of bleeding, that is why the term “threatened” is used in this case. In about 90 to 96% cases, the pregnancy continues after vaginal bleeding if occured in the presence of a closed os and a detectable fetal heart rate. Also as the gestational age advances its less likely the condition will end in miscarriage.
In cases of inevitable abortion, there will be dilatation of cervix along with progressive uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissue can be either felt or seen through the cervical os and the passage of this tissue occurs within a short time.
In case were the membranes have ruptured, partly expelling the products of conception with a significant amounts of placental tissue left in the uterus is called as incomplete abortion. During the late first and early second trimesters this will be the most common presentation of an abortion. Examination findings of this includes an open cervical os with gestational tissues observed in the cervix and a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age and a partially contracted uterus. The amount of bleeding will vary but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock, with painful contractions and an ultrasound revealing tissues in the uterus.
An in utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20 weeks of gestation is called as a missed abortion. In this case the women may notice that the symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have disappeared and they don’t ‘feel pregnant’ anymore. Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix remains closed and the ultrasound done reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.
In case of complete abortion, miscarriage occurs before the 12th week and the entire contents of conception will be expelled out of uterus. If this case, the physical examination will show a small and well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix. There is scant vaginal bleeding with only mild cramping and ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus without any extra-uterine pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman comes to your doctor's office for a breast cancer screening. For the past year, she has been on combination hormone replacement treatment (HRT). Mammography is the sole accessible form of breast cancer screening, and she is predicted to have dense breast tissue due to HRT.
Which of the following is the best HRT and breast cancer screening suggestion for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue HRT and perform mammography as recommended for other women
Explanation:Among a variety of imaging modalities developed for breast cancer screening, mammography is the best-studied and the only imaging technique that has been shown to decrease mortality as demonstrated in multiple randomized trials. However, it is important to know that, even in the best circumstances, mammography may miss up to 20 percent of underlying breast cancers.
Women on HRT are likely to have dense breast. Dense breasts are associated with an increased risk of breast cancer and can decrease the sensitivity of mammography for small lesions. Nevertheless, we do not alter our general approach to age- and risk-based screening based on breast density. However, for women with dense breasts, we do prefer digital mammography over film mammography, due to greater sensitivity; digital mammography is the modality typically used for mammography in most locations in the United States.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 36 year old woman has a pelvic ultrasound scan showing multiple fibroids. What is the most common form of fibroid degeneration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyaline degeneration
Explanation:Hyaline degeneration is the most common form of fibroid degeneration. Fibroids:
Risk Factors
– Black Ethnicity
– Obesity
– Early Puberty
– Increasing age (from puberty until menopause)
Protective Factors
– Pregnancy
– Multiparity -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed by a nurse practitioner at a family planning facility. A high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion is visible on the Pap smear (HGSIL).
Colposcopy was performed in the office. The impression is of acetowhite alterations, which could indicate infection by HPV. Chronic cervicitis is present in your biopsies, but there is no indication of dysplasia.
Which of the following is the most suitable next step in this patient's care?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conization of the cervix
Explanation:When cervical biopsy or colposcopy doesn’t explain the severity of the pap smear results cone biopsy is done. In 10% of biopsies, results will be different from that of the pap smear as in this patient with pap smear showing HSIL and colposcopy showing chronic cervicitis.
In such cases conization is indicated. Repeating the pap smear could risk prompt management of a serious problem. No destructive procedure, ablation or cryotherapy, should be done before diagnosis is certain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements is related to testicular feminization syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There are usually normal testes
Explanation:Androgen insensitivity (testicular feminization) syndrome is a rare inherited form of male pseudo hermaphroditism that occurs in phenotypically normal women with adequate breast development, normal external genitalia, a vagina of variable depth, absent uterus, and sparse or absent pubic hair and axillary hair. Testosterone levels are normal or elevated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chromosomal analysis (Karyotyping)
Explanation:Standard karyotyping is the best confirmatory test for the diagnosis of Turner syndrome among patients who have some doubtful clinical presentations. It is done on peripheral blood mononuclear cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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