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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old lady is complaining of mucopurulent vaginal discharge. On examination, copious amounts of thick mucoid material is found to be draining out of a large cervical erosion. She has had regular pap smears since 16 years of age, which have all been normal. Her last smear was done 4 months prior.
What is the best next step in her management?Your Answer: Cauterisation of the cervix.
Explanation:The best next step in management would be to remove the cervical ectropion using cautery. This would usually be performed under anaesthesia. It can take up to a month to heal following the procedure. Vaginal pessaries and antibiotics are typically not effective.
Indications for a cone biopsy include an abnormal pap smear, lesion suspected to be a CIN on colposcopic examination that cannot be fully visualised as well if there is a histological discrepancy between the smear and biopsy. Colposcopic examination is also unnecessary at this stage since she has not complained of any abnormal per vaginal bleed nor is her last pap smear abnormal.
Since the discharge is now affecting the patient’s life, treatment should be given so reassuring her that no treatment is needed is not appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum in a non pregnant state?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone
Explanation:The corpus luteum is formed from the granulosa cells of the mature follicle. The structure functions as a transient endocrine organ which secretes mainly progesterone with additional secretion of oestradiol and inhibin, which serve to suppress FSH levels. In the event of no pregnancy, the corpus luteum stops producing progesterone and degenerates into the corpus albicans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk of developing endometrial carcinoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome
Explanation:The factor associated with the greatest relative risk for endometrial carcinoma is polycystic ovary syndrome, which has a relative risk of 75. The use of long-term high doses of postmenopausal oestrogen carries an estimated risk of 10-20. Living in North America or Europe also has an estimated risk of 10-20.
A lower relative risk is associated with nulliparity, obesity, infertility, late menopause, older age, and white race- The relative risk associated with these factors falls into the range of 2-5. Early menarche, higher education or income levels, menstrual irregularities, and a history of diabetes, hypertension, gall bladder disease, or thyroid disease have a relative risk of around 1.5-2.0.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 27 year old women presents with a history of vaginal spotting and cramping abdominal pain. She has an 8 week history of amenorrhoea. On examination urine pregnancy test is positive and the cervix is closed. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Threatened Miscarriage
Explanation:Miscarriage is a pregnancy that ends spontaneously before the foetus reaches the age of viability i.e. before 24 weeks of gestation. In a threatened miscarriage the USG findings are of a foetus present in the uterus and on speculum examination the cervical OS is closed, in an inevitable miscarriage the cervical OS is opened. In an incomplete miscarriage the uterus contains the retained products of conception and the cervical OS is open. complete miscarriage contains no retained products of conception and the cervix is closed as the bleeding as resolved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. She has been using an IUCD for one year now and wants to know the cause of her current condition. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PID
Explanation:IUCD is a risk factor for PID and PID has the clinical picture already described. However, fibroids should also be excluded since they may present in the same way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are asked to consult on a young woman with a pre-existing cardiac defect. She wants to become pregnant in the near future and seeks advice about what risks to her health that this will create. You tell that the highest maternal mortality rates are associated with which of the following cardiac defects:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome
Explanation:Eisenmenger’s syndrome is one where there is communication between the systemic and pulmonary system, along with increased pulmonary vascular resistance, either to systemic level or above systemic level (right to left shunt). A would-be mother must be informed that to become pregnant would incur a 50% risk of dying. Even if she survives, fetal mortality approaches 50% as well.
– Severe symptomatic aortic stenosis has a mortality in pregnancy of about 20%. Prevention of reduction in preload is necessary in all obstructive cardiac lesions. Balloon valvuloplasty can be done in pregnancy.
– Due to the increased blood volume and cardiac output in pregnancy, mitral stenosis can lead to severe pulmonary oedema. Balloon valvuloplasty can be done in pregnancy.
– Ebstein anomaly is a malformation of the tricuspid valve- It is usually not associated with maternal mortality.
– Atrial-septal defects rarely cause complications in pregnancy, labour, or delivery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Evidence from meta-analysis of RCTs is what level of evidence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ia
Explanation:The levels of evidence range from I-IV:
1a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) or metanalysis of randomized controlled trials: highest level of evidence.
1b: Individual randomized controlled trial (with narrow confidence interval)
1c: All or none randomized controlled trials
2a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) of cohort studies
2b: Individual cohort study or low quality randomized controlled trials (e.g. <80% follow-up)
2c: Outcomes Research; ecological studies
3a: Systematic review (with homogeneity) of case-control studies
3b: Individual case-control study
4: Case series (and poor quality cohort and case-control studies)
5: Expert opinion without explicit critical appraisal, or based on physiology, bench research or first principles. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Excessive increased level of β-HCG is expected in:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Twin pregnancy
Explanation:Human chorionic gonadotropin levels dynamically increase during early gestation and the levels are significantly greater in viable pregnancies than in ectopic gestation, biochemical pregnancy, or spontaneous abortions. Similarly, the hCG concentrations are significantly higher in multiple pregnancy as compared with singleton.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Regarding placental anatomy:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fetal blood vessels develop in the mesenchymal core of the chorionic villi
Explanation:The chorionic plate represents the fetal surface of the placenta, which in turn is covered by the amnion. The amnion is composed of a single layered epithelium and the amnionic mesenchyme, an avascular connective tissue. The amnionic mesenchyme is only weakly attached to the chorionic mesenchyme and can easily be removed from the delivered placenta. The chorionic mesenchyme contains the chorionic vessels that are continuous with the vessels of the umbilical cord. Within the mesoderm of secondary villi, haematopoietic progenitor cells develop and start to differentiate. At about day 20 post-conception, first placental blood cells and endothelial cells develop independent of the vascular system of the embryo proper.13 14 The development of first placental vessels transforms the respective villi into tertiary villi.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the definition of puberty in girls?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Becoming capable of sexual reproduction
Explanation:Puberty is the process of reproductive and sexual development and the maturation which changes a child into an adult.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which one of the following factors commonly indicate repetitive late decelerations on cardiography (CTG)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fetal hypoxia
Explanation:Repetitive late decelerations can be caused by fetal hypoxia which results in constriction of the vessels to circulate blood from the peripheries to more important organs of the body like the brain and heart etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at full term.
6 hours ago, she spontaneously began labour. The membranes ruptured two hours ago and the liquor was stained with meconium.
On cardiotocography (CTG) was conducted and it showed some intermittent late decelerations, from 140 to 110 beats/min.
On vaginal examination, her cervix is 5 cm dilated. The foetus is in cephalic presentation, in the left occipitotransverse (LOT) position, with the bony head at the level of the ischial spines (IS).
Due to the deceleration pattern, a fetal scalp pH estimation was performed and the pH was measured at 7.32.
An hour later, the CTG showed the following pattern over a period of 30 minutes:
Baseline 140/min,
Baseline variability 1/min,
Accelerations None evident,
Decelerations: Two decelerations were evident, with the heart rate falling to 80/min, and with each lasting 4 minutes.
Another vaginal examination is conducted and her cervix is now 8cm dilated, but otherwise unchanged from one hour previously.
What would be the next best line management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate delivery by Caesarean section.
Explanation:The next best line of management is immediate delivery via Caesarean section ( C section).
This is because of the change in cardiotocography (CTG). The pattern became much more severe with a virtual lack of short-term variability and prolonged decelerations. These changes indicate the necessity for an immediate C section as the cervix is not fully dilated.
As immediate delivery is indicated, another pH assessment is unnecessary as it would delay delivery and increase the likelihood of fetal hypoxia.
Delivery by ventose, in a primigravida where the cervix is only 8cm dilated is not indicated as it would allow the labour to proceed or augmenting with Syntocinon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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The following are true for dizygotic twins EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Both twins are identical & of the same sex
Explanation:Dizygotic means two (di) fertilized eggs (zygotes). Dizygotic twins occur when two eggs are fertilized by two separate sperm. Dizygotic twins are also known as fraternal or non-identical twins. They are the most common type of twins.
Unlike monozygotic twins (also known as identical twins), dizygotic twins do not share the same genes. Monozygotic twins share 100 percent of each other genes. Dizygotic twins share only 50 percent. This is the same genetic similarity found between siblings conceived and born at different times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which one of the following aetiological factors causes a reduction in the risk of fibroids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Risk of fibroids is more common among African ethnicity and is also related to obesity and early puberty. The role of combined oral contraceptive pills is still debatable and its results are conflicting, whereas the risk of fibroids decreases with the increase in number of pregnancies. i.e. multiparous women have a lower risk of fibroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old lady complains of a mild discomfort in her lower abdomen. She attained menopause 6 years ago whereas her last vaginal examination 2 years prior, was normal. She now has a palpable mass measuring 8cm in diameter in the left ovarian area.
Which is the best next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admission to hospital for early surgical exploration.
Explanation:This lady should be admitted to hospital for early surgical exploration. Taking into account her age, mild abdominal discomfort and a palpable lower abdominal mass, it is imperative that ovarian malignancy be ruled out as soon as possible. Patients with ovarian malignancy often present in advanced stages of cancer as the symptoms tend to be occult and non-specific. Other things to include in her workup would be her CA125 level. Any form of hormonal therapy is contraindicated until ovarian malignancy has been ruled out. A pap smear is not relevant here since we are suspecting an ovarian malignancy rather than cervical. Evaluation of her mass takes priority over an assessment for osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she plans to get pregnant soon. However, she is worried about how she should change her diet once she becomes pregnant already.
Which of the following is considered the best to give to the patient in addition to giving folic acid?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iodine
Explanation:There is evidence that folic acid, iodine and vitamin D are important for reproductive outcomes. Folic acid and iodine supplementation is recommended for women planning to conceive and in pregnancy.
The recommended dose of folic acid for women without special considerations planning to conceive is 400-500 mcg. The recommended dose of folic acid for women with special considerations is 2-5 mg per day.
Women planning a pregnancy, including those with thyroid disease, should take iodine supplements in the dose of 150 mcg per day prior to and during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A sexually active young woman comes in with frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Dysuria and dyspareunia are also present. The genital region seems to be quite reddish.
What is the potential danger associated with this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased risk of cervical cancer
Explanation:TV infection is associated with both LR and HR-HPV infection of the cervix, as well as with ASC-US and HSIL. The signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis are present in this patient. Trichomonas vaginalis is the reason.
Increased vaginal discharge that is frothy, yellowish, and has an unpleasant odour are among the symptoms. It’s frequently linked to dyspareunia and dysuria. Normally, the genital area is red and painful.In both men and women, trichomoniasis can cause preterm labour and raise the risk of infertility. Both the patient and the partner must be treated at the same time.
The active infection can be treated with a single oral dose of metronidazole 2 g taken with food.
To avoid disulfiram-like symptoms, alcohol should be avoided during the first 24-48 hours after treatment. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 36 year old patient is diagnosed with cervical cancer and staging investigations show there is parametrial involvement but it is confined within the pelvic wall and does not involve the lower 1/3 vagina. There is no evidence of hydronephrosis. What FIGO stage is this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2B
Explanation:It is stage 2B. Stage I: is strictly confined to the cervix; extension to the uterine corpus should be disregarded. The diagnosis of both Stages IA1 and IA2 should be based on microscopic examination of removed tissue, preferably a cone, which must include the entire lesion.
2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma:
Stage IA: Invasive cancer identified only microscopically. Invasion is limited to measured stromal invasion with a maximum depth of 5 mm and no wider than 7 mm.
Stage IA1: Measured invasion of the stroma no greater than 3 mm in depth and no wider than 7 mm diameter.
Stage IA2: Measured invasion of stroma greater than 3 mm but no greater than 5 mm in depth and no wider than 7 mm in diameter.Stage IB: Clinical lesions confined to the cervix or preclinical lesions greater than Stage IA. All gross lesions even with superficial invasion are Stage IB cancers.
Stage IB1: Clinical lesions no greater than 4 cm in size.
Stage IB2: Clinical lesions greater than 4 cm in size.Stage II: carcinoma that extends beyond the cervix, but does not extend into the pelvic wall. The carcinoma involves the vagina, but not as far as the lower third.
Stage IIA: No obvious parametrial involvement. Involvement of up to the upper two-thirds of the vagina.
Stage IIB: Obvious parametrial involvement, but not into the pelvic sidewall.Stage III: carcinoma that has extended into the pelvic sidewall. On rectal examination, there is no cancer-free space between the tumour and the pelvic sidewall. The tumour involves the lower third of the vagina. All cases with hydronephrosis or a non-functioning kidney are Stage III cancers.
Stage IIIA: No extension into the pelvic sidewall but involvement of the lower third of the vagina.
Stage IIIB: Extension into the pelvic sidewall or hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney.Stage IV: carcinoma that has extended beyond the true pelvis or has clinically involved the mucosa of the bladder and/or rectum.
Stage IVA: Spread of the tumour into adjacent pelvic organs.
Stage IVB: Spread to distant organs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32 year old patient has a transvaginal ultrasound scan that shows a mass in the left ovary. It is anechoic, thin walled, is without internal structures and measures 36mm in diameter. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Functional cyst
Explanation:The diagnosis of functional ovarian cyst is made when the cyst measures more than 3 cm and rarely grows more than 10 cm. It appears as a simple anechoic unilocular cyst on USS. It is usually asymptomatic. If it is symptomatic then laparoscopic cystectomy should be performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension, was admitted to the labour ward. She is at 36 weeks of pregnancy and is keen to have her baby delivered via caesarean section.
Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give to the patient given her situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Caesarean section
Explanation:Pulmonary hypertension (PH) is an increase of blood pressure in the pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, or pulmonary capillaries, leading to shortness of breath, dizziness, fainting, and other symptoms, all of which are exacerbated by exertion. PH in pregnancy carries a 25–56% maternal mortality rate with a mixture of intrapartum and postpartum deaths.
Current recommendations for management of PH in pregnancy include termination of pregnancy if diagnosed early, or utilizing a controlled interventional approach with early nebulized prostanoid therapy and early elective caesarean section under regional anaesthesia. Other recommended therapies for peripartum management of PH include sildenafil and nitric oxide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid cycle. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue pills as usual.
Explanation:Breakthrough bleeding, or spotting, refers to when vaginal bleeding occurs between menstrual cycles. It may look like light bleeding or brown discharge.
Spotting is the most common side effect of birth control pills. It happens because the body is adjusting to changing levels of hormones, and the uterus is adjusting to having a thinner lining.
Taking the pill as prescribed, usually every day and at the same time each day, can help prevent bleeding between periods.
All other options are incorrect as this is a common side effect and will resolve on its own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Whilst reviewing a 34 year old patient with amenorrhoea in clinic they tell you they have gained over 10kg in weight in the past 8 weeks and have noticed worsening acne. Routine bloods taken that morning show a random glucose 11.1mmol/l, normal thyroid function tests and negative pregnancy test. BP is 168/96 mmHg. You suspect Cushing's. What would the most appropriate investigation be to conform the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone suppression test
Explanation:In Cushing’s syndrome there is excess cortisol. Causes are broadly divided into 2 types: ACTH dependent disease: excess ACTH from the pituitary (Cushing’s disease), ectopic ACTH-producing tumours or excess ACTH administration. Non-ACTH-dependent: adrenal adenomas, adrenal carcinomas, excess glucocorticoid administration. The recommended diagnostic tests for the presence of Cushing’s syndrome are 24-hour urinary free cortisol, 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test and late-night salivary cortisol. There are several other tests that may also be performed to find the cause. ACTH and cortisol measured together may show if this is ACTH dependent or not. MRI pituitary and CT abdo and pelvis may show if tumour is the cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You see a patient on the ward who is acutely short of breath and perform an ABG. The results are as follows
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory Acidosis
Explanation:This patient has acidosis as the pH is low <7.35 The pO2 is irrelevant. The pCO2 is raised i.e. the respiratory system is causing acidosis. The patient is acidotic so this is a respiratory acidosis The Base Excess is normal. You would typically expect the base excess to rise but metabolic compensation is slower than respiratory compensation so this picture may be seen acutely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 24 year old patient presents as 24 weeks pregnant with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days
Explanation:The treatment of Chlamydia includes avoidance of intercourse, use of condoms and antibiotic treatment. Erythromycin 500mg orally QID for 7 days or Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 7 days or Ofloxacin 200mg orally BD for 7 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28 year old patient is treated for hydatidiform mole with methotrexate. What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
Explanation:Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist. It inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR). DHFR catalyses the conversion of dihydrofolate to the active tetrahydrofolate which is required for DNA synthesis. It is either administered as a single intramuscular injection or multiple fixed doses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old, 10-weeks pregnant woman comes to you complaining of right iliac fossa pain, which is more when she tries to stand up or cough. She also had a history of appendectomy, done 12 years ago.
Physical examination reveals mild tenderness in right iliac fossa, without any rebound tenderness or guarding.
Among the following options which will be the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Round ligament pain
Explanation:The given case can be diagnosed as round ligament pain, which is common during pregnancy. This happens as a result to the stretching of round ligament in pelvis to occupy the growing uterus. The round ligament pain usually gets worse with movements or straining and will be relieved by rest or warm application.
As the abdominal examination of patient is unremarkable, conditions like ovarian cyst rupture, ectopic pregnancy and intestinal obstruction are a very unlikely to be the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes that last for about three days each month.
These symptoms have been ongoing for the past 12 months.
She reports that pubertal breast changes started about four years ago, however she has not yet had her first period.
On examination of her abdomen there is no evidence of any suprapubic mass or tenderness when she is not in pain.
Blood tests indicate that she is ovulating.
From the following developmental abnormalities, identify the one that is most likely to be the cause of her abdominal pain.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis.
Explanation:The clinical evaluation indicates that the patient is ovulating but has not started menstruating. These observations suggest that the pain she is experiencing on a monthly basis could be related to ovulation or there could be an obstruction preventing the flow of menstrual blood from the uterus.
Uterine or vaginal anomalies that can obstruct menstrual flow include imperforate hymen, absent vagina, a transverse vaginal septum, or cervical obstruction.
If the cause was an obstruction to the flow, the retained menstrual products would have developed into a suprapubic mass (hematometra/ haematocolpos). However, no palpable mass was detected on abdominal examination.
Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis (correct answer) is the only condition that would result in no endometrial development; consequently there was no palpable mass observed and no menstrual loss that could be shed was present. A pelvic (lower abdominal) ultrasound examination can confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her cervical screening test. According to the study, she has a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion as well as HPV non-16 and 18 subtypes. She had never previously had a cervical screening.
What is the best course of action for her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 12 months
Explanation:An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.
As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:
– Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
– Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.All other options are not acceptable for the above mentioned reasons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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The transvaginal ultrasound of a 37 year old woman reveals a left ovarian mass. The mass is a unilocular cyst with diffuse homogenous ground glass echoes as a result of hemorrhagic debris. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endometrioma
Explanation:An endometrioma, also known as a chocolate cyst is a benign ovarian cyst that occurs as a result of the trapping of endometriosis tissue inside the ovary. The findings on transvaginal ultrasound are often a unilocular cyst, with ground glass echogenicity due to haemorrhage. Other benign masses that can be evaluated using transvaginal ultrasound are functional cysts, serous and mucinous cystadenomas and mature teratomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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