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  • Question 1 - Which of the following hormones inhibits Galactopoiesis and Lactogenesis postpartum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hormones inhibits Galactopoiesis and Lactogenesis postpartum?

      Your Answer: hPL

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Galactopoiesis and Lactogenesis are stimulated by Prolactin. Dopamine released under hypothalamic control inhibits Prolactin production. Note oestrogen and progesterone inhibit lactogenesis up until term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 2 - Which statement given below is correct regarding the management of deep venous thrombosis...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement given below is correct regarding the management of deep venous thrombosis during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin therapy is contraindicated throughout pregnancy but safe during breast feeding

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is considered as a hypercoagulable state with an increased risk for the development of conditions like deep venous thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Among these two PE is the considered the most significant cause for maternal death in Australia.
      A pregnant women with venous thromboembolism should be treated with heparin as warfarin is contraindicated. Warfarin should be avoided throughout pregnancy and especially during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy as it crosses the placenta. Intake of warfarin at 6-12 weeks of pregnancy can results in fetal warfarin syndrome which is characterised by:
      – A characteristic nasal hypoplasia
      – Short fingers with hypoplastic nails
      – Calcified epiphyses, namely chondrodysplasia punctuta which is evident by stippling of epiphyses on X-ray.
      – Intellectual disability
      – Low birth weight
      Recent studies show that the risk of fetal warfarin syndrome is around 5 % more in babies of women who require warfarin throughout pregnancy and the risk is always dose dependent.
      Later exposure to warfarin, as in after 12 weeks, is mostly associated with central nervous system anomalies like microcephaly, hydrocephalus, agenesis of corpus callosum, Dandy-Walker malformation which is characterised by complete absence of cerebellar vermis along with enlarged fourth ventricle and mental retardation. Eye anomalies such as optic atrophy, microphthalmia, and Peter anomaly which is the dysgenesis of the anterior segment are also found in association. Newborns exposed to warfarin in all three trimesters are prone to present with blindness. Other complications found in neonates exposed to warfarin are perinatal intracranial hemorrhage and other major bleeding episodes.

      Warfarin is not secreted into the breast milk and is so safe to use during the postpartum period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT)...

    Incorrect

    • A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT) as a means of contraception. Over the past year, her cycles varied in length from 24 to 30 days with menses lasting 4 days. They do not have sexual intercourse when she is on her period.
      Which regimen would be the most suitable to minimise the chances of getting pregnant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle, commence intercourse two days after temperature elevation of 0.3°C and continue thereafter.

      Explanation:

      The best regimen would be to have no intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle and then commence it two days after a temperature rise of 0.3C and continue then onwards. When deciding the best contraceptive method, one has to consider two factors-the duration of survival of sperm in the uterus and body temperature in relation to ovulation. For this case, since her cycle length varies from 24 to 30 days, the earliest time in which ovulation would occur would be 14 days before her shortest cycle i.e. day 10. Intercourse has to be avoided from day 4 of her cycle just in case the current cycle is short because sperm can survive up to 6 days in the uterus. Day 4 would be the day her menses would end and as this couple avoids intercourse during her menstruation, there would be no intercourse during the follicular phase of her cycle.

      During ovulation, her serum progesterone levels would start to increase, causing a 0.3°C to 0.4°C increase in her body temperature within 2-3 days of ovulating. This elevation in temperature would remain until close to when her period starts. The ovum can only be fertilised for roughly 24 hours after ovulation has taken place. Resuming sexual intercourse once her temperature has risen for 2 days would suggest that ovulation had already taken place 3-4 days earlier and so it is unlikely for pregnancy to occur.

      Options that include intercourse during any part of her follicular phase is not correct. Hence, the only option that satisfies the above criteria would be intercourse avoidance during her follicular phase and to resume 2 days following a rise of 0.03°C in body temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HCG

      Explanation:

      The following hormones are excreted from the anterior pituitary gland: TSH, GN, ACTH, LH, FSH, MSH, PRL.
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG, or human chorionic gonadotrophin) is a placental hormone secreted by syncitiotrophoblasts during the second week of gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she...

    Incorrect

    • A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is 39+6 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes. What is the likelihood of spontaneous labour starting within 24 hours?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60%

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, term refers to the gestational period from 37 0 to 41 6 weeks. Preterm births occur between 24 0 and 36 6 weeks. 60% of the women will go into labour with in 24 hours in PPROM. After 24 hours have past without any contraction and the gestation age is more than 34 week than prostaglandins can be used to augment labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 6 - The test used to diagnose ovulation on day 21 in a 28 days...

    Incorrect

    • The test used to diagnose ovulation on day 21 in a 28 days menstrual cycle is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      After ovulation, the dominant follicle turns into a corpus luteum and begins to secrete progesterone. To confirm ovulation, serum progesterone or its metabolite in urine, can be measured. A single serum progesterone level >3 ng/ml in mid‐luteal phase has been used to retrospectively detect ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 7 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding the development of external...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding the development of external genitalia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The genital fold forms the scrotum in males

      Explanation:

      Genital folds lead to the formation of the scrotum in males while in females they form the posterior labial commissure. Genital tubercles form the labia majora whereas the tubercle itself becomes the mons pubis. The labia minora is formed by the urogenital folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 8 - Regarding the rectus sheath which of the following statements are true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the rectus sheath which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Above the arcuate line the internal oblique divides into two lamellae

      Explanation:

      The rectus sheath is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal and external oblique muscles and the transversus abdominus muscle. The internal oblique divides into two lamellae and encloses the rectus muscle. Anteriorly it fuses with the aponeurosis of the external oblique and posteriorly with that of the transverus abdominus. Below the arcuate line the aponeurosis of all the flat muscles lies anteriorly and posteriorly it is only enclosed by the transveralis fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 9 - A 20-year-old primigravida at her 16 weeks of gestation, presented with the history...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old primigravida at her 16 weeks of gestation, presented with the history of lower vaginal pressure, vaginal spotting and lower back pain.
      Transvaginal ultrasound shows cervical shortening to 2 cm, cervical dilation, and protrusion of fetal membranes into the cervical canal. Findings confirms the woman has developed non-specific symptoms of cervical insufficiency which may lead to premature delivery.
      Which among the following is the most appropriate management in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reinforcement of the cervical ring with nonabsorbable suture material

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned in the given case has developed clinical features of cervical insufficiency and the possible treatment options include:
      1- Cerclage, which is the technique used for the reinforcement of cervical ring with nonabsorbable suture material and is indicated based on ultrasonographic findings. It is the treatment of choice when cervical shortening is detected by ultrasonography before 22 to 24 weeks of gestation.

      2- Vaginal progesterone is used to reduce the risk of preterm delivery in women who have a prior history of idiopathic preterm delivery or cervical shortening, which is confirmed in the current pregnancy also by ultrasonography.This method is applicable only to those women who do not meet the criteria for Cerclage.

      All the other options of management are incorrect in the given case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A patient who has been seen in fertility clinic phones regarding the timing...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has been seen in fertility clinic phones regarding the timing of her progesterone blood test. She has regular 35 day menstrual cycles. When testing for ovulation what day of her cycle should she have the test on?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 28

      Explanation:

      When testing for ovulation the best test is to check the progesterone level. The mid luteal progesterone levels should be checked 7 days prior to the next period. That will be the 28th day in a 35 day cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
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  • Question 11 - During the inflammatory phase of wound healing what is the predominant cell type...

    Incorrect

    • During the inflammatory phase of wound healing what is the predominant cell type found in the wound during days 3-4?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      Wound healing is initiated when inflammation begins. Macrophages predominate after neutrophils and peak 3-4 days after inflammation begins. They destroy and phagocytose the organism and debris using enzymes. The next step is the resolution of inflammation and healing of the wound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old lady at 16 weeks of gestation who had histories of second-trimester...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old lady at 16 weeks of gestation who had histories of second-trimester pregnancy losses, presented with backache and pre-menstrual-like cramping along with increased vaginal discharge for the past one week.
      Pelvic examination shows that her cervix is dilated by 4 cm and effaced 80%.
      What will be the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical insufficiency

      Explanation:

      This woman has signs and symptoms suggestive of cervical insufficiency, whose clinical features include pelvic pressure, premenstrual-like cramping and backache with increased vaginal discharge. Usually these symptoms will persist for several days to weeks.
      Cervical insufficiency is seen between 14 – 20 weeks of gestation, which is presented as soft effaced cervix, with minimal dilation on physical examination and a 4 cm dilated and more than 80% effaced cervix will be the clinical presentation in a more advanced case.

      Placental abruption presents with painful vaginal bleeding, whereas Placenta Previa presents as painless vaginal bleeding. Both cases will lead to shock but will not show any features of cervical insufficiency.

      Anaemia, polyhydramnios, large for gestational age uterus and severe hyperemesis gravidarum are the commonly associated symptoms of a twin pregnancies.

      New menstrual cycle after an abortion is expected to be presented with cervical dilation however signs of effacement will not be present along with it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 13 - What is the most common cause of premature menopause in the UK? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of premature menopause in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause is most commonly idiopathic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial depolarisation

      Explanation:

      P wave = Atrial depolarisation
      QRS complex = Ventricular depolarisation
      T wave = Ventricular repolarisation
      U wave = repolarisation of the interventricular septum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
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  • Question 15 - When consenting someone for laparoscopy you discuss the risk of vascular injury. The...

    Incorrect

    • When consenting someone for laparoscopy you discuss the risk of vascular injury. The incidence of vascular injury during laparoscopy according to the BSGE guidelines is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.2/1000

      Explanation:

      Major vessel injury is the most important potential complication when undertaking laparoscopy. It’s incidence is 0.2/1000. Bowel Injury is more common at 0.4/1000

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She is in the 26th week of gestation and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her second child was born macrosomic with shoulder dystocia, which was a very difficult labour.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Watchful waiting till she goes in labour

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication associated with fetal macrosomia and may result in neurological dysfunction. Fetal macrosomia is generally defined as birth weight – 4,000 g. It occurs in about 10% of pregnancies and one of the most important predictors of fetal macrosomia is previous macrosomic infant(s). The recurrence rate of fetal macrosomia is above 30%. Other risk factors are maternal diabetes, multiparity, prolonged gestation, maternal obesity, excessive weight gain, male foetus, and parental stature- Not all cases of fetal macrosomia lead to shoulder dystocia and the occurrence of this complication is only 0.5%-1% of all pregnancies.

      To make clinical decision regarding management of the patient, it is important to understand that there are other factors that lead to shoulder dystocia, such as the mother’s anatomy. While statistics suggest that there’s a tendency to choose elective Caesarean delivery for suspected macrosomia, it is believed that most of procedures are unnecessary, as evidence has shown the number of complications are not reduce- Also while it is logical to consider induction of labour at the 37th week of pregnancy, it is associated with increased Caesarean deliveries because of failed inductions. The recommended course of action is watchful waiting till the patient goes in labour.

      → Induce labour at the 37th week of gestation is not the best course of action, as it is associated with high failure rate, which often leads to Caesarean delivery.
      → Schedule elective Caesarean delivery is considered unnecessary in patients who do not have diabetes. Statistics have shown no evidence that Caesarean delivery reduces the rate of complications.
      → Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation is incorrect. The strategies used to predict fetal macrosomia are risk factors, Leopold’s manoeuvres, and ultrasonography. Even when they are combined, they are considered inaccurate; much less ultrasonography alone.
      → At this point, blood glucose control in pregnancies associated with diabetes seems to have desired results in preventing macrosomia- A weight loss program is usually not recommended- Instead, expectant management should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following drugs is associated with reduced milk production whilst breastfeeding?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is associated with reduced milk production whilst breastfeeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cabergoline

      Explanation:

      Domperidone and metoclopramide are D2 dopamine receptor antagonists. They are primarily used to promote gastric motility. They are also known as galactagogues and they promote the production of milk. Cabergoline and bromocriptine are prolactin inhibitors and they reduce milk production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - A 34 weeks pregnant patient has a blood pressure of 149/98. Urine dipstick...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 weeks pregnant patient has a blood pressure of 149/98. Urine dipstick shows protein 3+. You send a for a protein:creatinine ratio. What level would be diagnostic of significant proteinuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: >30 mg/mmol

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia is defined as hypertension of at least 140/90 mmHg recorded on at least two separate occasions and at least 4 hours apart and in the presence of at least 300 mg protein in a 24 hour collection of urine, arising de novo after the 20th week of pregnancy in a previously normotensive woman and resolving completely by the sixth postpartum week. Significant proteinuria = urinary protein: creatinine ratio >30 mg/mmol or 24-hour urine collection result shows greater than 300 mg protein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and Pap smear. She has a single partner who uses condoms during contraception. Her menstrual cycle is regular and around four weeks long. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She is otherwise healthy with no symptoms suggesting a problem with her genital tract. Per vaginal examination is performed revealing a 4 cm cystic swelling in the right ovary. What would be the best next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: See her again in six weeks and arrange an ultrasound examination if the cyst is still present.

      Explanation:

      Because of the high possibility of spontaneous resolution and the fact that if the cystic mass was verified ultrasonically, a conservative policy would almost probably be proposed for at least another six weeks, an ultrasound examination is not necessary at this time. If the cyst is still present at the six-week check, an ultrasound examination is required, as it is likely that the cyst is a benign tumour or possibly endometriosis. It’s quite improbable that it’s cancer.
      Additional tests, such as computed tomography (CT) examination and potentially surgical removal or drainage, may be required in the future, although not at this time.
      This cyst in a young lady is almost probably of physiological origin, especially given its size. The woman should be informed, but a follow-up examination is required. The most suitable next action is to return in six weeks, as the cyst is most likely physiologic and will most likely dissipate naturally by then. The following appointment should not take place during the same menstrual cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends through the vaginal mucosa into the perineal muscle and fascia. The external anal sphincter appears to be in tact. How would you classify this tear?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2nd

      Explanation:

      If the external anal sphincter is in tact then this is a 1st or 2nd degree tear. As the perineal muscles are involved this is 2nd degree tear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 21 - A 24 year old female patient undergoes an STI screen due to development...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old female patient undergoes an STI screen due to development of dysuria 5 days earlier. The results are positive for chlamydia infection. With regard to contact tracing what is the recommended action regarding tracing and informing sexual partners in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All sexual partners past 6 months

      Explanation:

      In case a person tests positive for chlamydia, all sexual partners over the period of 6 months should to contacted and started on appropriate antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 22 - Herpes Simplex is which type of virus ...

    Incorrect

    • Herpes Simplex is which type of virus

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: double stranded DNA

      Explanation:

      Herpes simplex is a double stranded DNA virus. There are two viral types, HSV-1 and HSV-2. The majority of orolabial infections are caused by HSV-1. These infections are usually acquired during childhood through direct physical contact such as kissing. Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection and is most commonly caused by HSV-2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 23 - A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow up.
      On pelvic ultrasound you noted a decrease in amniotic fluid, and all her previous scans were normal.
      When asked she recollected on experiencing an episode of urinary incontinence yesterday, were she had wet her undergarment with a sudden gush of clear fluid.
      Considering the presentation, which of the following is MOST likely the cause of oligohydramnios in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature preterm rupture of membrane

      Explanation:

      This patient presenting with oligohydramnios in her third trimester and had reported an episode of sudden gush of fluid secondary to ruptured membrane which she had mistaken to be “urinary incontinence”.  Hence, the most likely cause of oligohydramnios in this patient will be premature preterm rupture of membrane (PPROM).

      An amniotic fluid volume which is less than expected for gestational age is called as Oligohydramnios and is typically diagnosed by ultrasound examination. This condition can be qualitatively described as reduced amniotic fluid volume and quantitatively as amniotic fluid index ≤5 cm or a single deepest pocket <2 cm. Oligohydramnios either can be idiopathic or may have a maternal, fetal or placental cause. Fetal prognosis in this case depends on several factors like the underlying cause, the severity of loss ie. reduced versus no amniotic fluid state and the gestational age at which oligohydramnios occurred. As an adequate volume of amniotic fluid is critical for the normal fetal movements, for fetal lung development and for cushioning the fetus and umbilical cord from uterine compression, so pregnancies complicated with oligohydramnios are at higher risk for fetal deformation, pulmonary hypoplasia and umbilical cord compression.
      Oligohydramnios is also associated with an increased risk for fetal or neonatal death, which can either be related to the underlying cause of reduction in amniotic fluid volume or due to the sequelae caused due to reduced amniotic fluid volume. The amniotic fluid volume reflects the balance between fluid production and movement of fluid out of the amniotic sac and the most common mechanisms behind oligohydramnios are fetal oliguria/anuria or fluid loss due to rupture of membranes; also reduction in the amount of lung fluid or increased swallowing do not play major roles in this. Idiopathic cases as in idiopathic oligohydramnios, may be due to alterations in the expression of water pores like aquaporin 1 and aquaporin 3, present in fetal membranes and placenta.

      Causes of oligohydramnios
      a) Maternal causes includes:
      – Medical or obstetric conditions associated with uteroplacental insufficiency like preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, collagen vascular disease, nephropathy, thrombophilia.
      – Intake of medications like angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, trastuzumab.
      b) Placental causes are:
      – Abruption of placenta
      – Twin polyhydramnios-oligohydramnios sequence which is the Twin to twin transfusion
      – Placental thrombosis or infarction
      c) Fetal cases leading to oligohydramnios are:
      – Chromosomal abnormalities
      – Congenital abnormalities which are associated with impaired urine production
      – Growth restriction
      – Demise
      – Post-term pregnancy
      – Ruptured fetal membranes
      – Infections
      – Idiopathic causes

      During First trimester: Etiology of oligohydramnios during the first trimester is often unclear. As the gestational sac fluid is primarily derived from the fetal surface of the placenta via transamniotic flow from the maternal compartment and secretions from the surface of the body of the embryo reduced amniotic fluid prior to 10 weeks of gestation is rare.

      During Second trimester: Fetal urine begins to enter the amniotic sac and fetus begins to swallow amniotic fluid by the beginning of second trimester, therefore, during this period any disorders related to the renal/urinary system of the fetus begins to play a prominent role in the etiology of oligohydramnios. Some of such anomalies include intrinsic renal disorders like cystic renal disease and obstructive lesions of the lower urinary tract like posterior urethral valves or urethral atresia. Other common causes of oligohydramnios in the second trimester are maternal and placental factors and traumatic or nontraumatic rupture of the fetal membranes.

      During Third trimester: Oligohydramnios which is first diagnosed in the third trimester is often associated with PPROM or with conditions such as preeclampsia or other maternal vascular diseases leading to uteroplacental insufficiency. Oligohydramnios frequently accompanies fetal growth restriction as a result of uteroplacental insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 24 - Regarding the structure of the detrusor muscle. Which of the following is true?...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the structure of the detrusor muscle. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The detrusor is divided into 3 layers consisting of inner and outer layers of longitudinal smooth muscle with a middle circular smooth muscle layer

      Explanation:

      The urinary bladder is composed of the transitional epithelium, followed by the lamina propria made up of the fibroelastic connective tissue. The muscularis layer covers the lamina propria which is made up of three poorly defined layers of smooth muscles; the inner longitudinal, middle circular and the outer longitudinal layer. The bladder is covered on the superior surface and the lateral surface by the peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 25 - Which one of the following statements is related to testicular feminization syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is related to testicular feminization syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There are usually normal testes

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity (testicular feminization) syndrome is a rare inherited form of male pseudo hermaphroditism that occurs in phenotypically normal women with adequate breast development, normal external genitalia, a vagina of variable depth, absent uterus, and sparse or absent pubic hair and axillary hair. Testosterone levels are normal or elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal discharge, which has started last night after she had sex with her husband.
      Speculum examination shows, pooling of straw-colored fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix. The cervical os is closed and there is leaking of liquor from cervical os when she is asked to cough or strain.
      Which among the following best explains these clinical findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)

      Explanation:

      Presentation in the given case is classic for premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which was probably caused due to trauma during intercourse.
      Premature rupture of membrane (PROM) is defined as the rupture of embryonic membranes before the onset of labor, regardless of the age of pregnancy. If occured before 37 weeks of gestation, it is termed as preterm PROM (PPROM.)

      A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina is the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes (ROM), regardless of gestational age, however nowadays many women presents with continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid or a sensation of wetness within the vagina or on the perineum. Presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or its pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix are considered as the pathognomonic symptom of ROM. Assessment of fetal well-being, the position of the fetus, placental location, estimated fetal weight and presence of any anomalies in PROM and PPROM are done with ultrasonographic studies.

      Retained semen will not result in the findings mentioned in this clinical scenario as it have a different appearance.

      Infections will not be a cause for this presentation as it will be associated with characteristic features like purulent cervical discharge, malodorous vaginal discharge, etc. Pooling of clear fluid in the posterior fornix is pathognomonic for ROM.

      Urine leakage is common during the pregnancy, but it is not similar to the clinical scenario mentioned above.

      Absence of findings like cervical dilation and bulging membranes on speculum exam makes cervical insufficiency an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 27 - A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked to review her ultrasound. There is a solid collection of echoes with numerous small (3-10 mm) anechoic spaces. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Molar Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      This is typical appearance of molar pregnancy. This used to be referred to as ‘snowstorm sign’ as with older poorer resolution ultrasound the anechoic species looked like a snowstorm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
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  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old woman complains of a lump in her right breast after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman complains of a lump in her right breast after a history of trauma to her right breast 2 weeks ago. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis may occur following a traumatic injury to the breast. The lump is usually firm, round, and painless.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - Regarding blood volume in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding blood volume in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood volume slowly increases by 40-50%

      Explanation:

      Maternal blood volume expands during pregnancy to allow adequate perfusion of vital organs, including the placenta and foetus, and to anticipate blood loss associated with delivery. The rapid expansion of blood volume begins at 6–8 weeks gestation and plateaus at 32–34 weeks gestation. While there is some increase in intracellular water, the most marked expansion occurs in extracellular fluid volume, especially circulating plasma volume. This expanded extracellular fluid volume accounts for between 8 and 10 kg of the average maternal weight gain during pregnancy. Overall, total body water increases from 6.5 to 8.5 L by the end of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 30 - A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her pregnancy. Pap smear reveals that she has HSIL. What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) on cervical cytology should be evaluated with colposcopy. Principles of management of pregnant women include the following:
      – An immediate diagnostic excisional procedure should NOT be performed.
      – When colposcopy is performed during pregnancy:
      – Endocervical sampling with a curette and endometrial sampling should NOT be performed, as there is a risk of disturbing the pregnancy; however, the endocervical canal may be sampled gently with a cytobrush.
      – Cervical biopsy should be performed only if a lesion is present that appears to be high grade or suspicious for cancer.
      – If the examination is unsatisfactory, repeating the colposcopy after 6 to 12 weeks should allow visualization of the entire squamocolumnar junction.

      There is no indication for inducing abortion or performing a hysterectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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