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  • Question 1 - A 10-year-old girl presents with hyperkeratotic plaques on the extensor aspects of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with hyperkeratotic plaques on the extensor aspects of the skin and the scalp margin.
      A skin scraping KOH mount and fungal culture in Sabouraud Dextrose Agar from the skin and hair revealed no growth.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms is psoriasis.

      Psoriasis:
      Chronic plaque psoriasis is characterised by pinkish-red hyperkeratotic plaques, which occur mainly on extensor surfaces such as knees and elbows. The lower back, ears and scalp can also be involved.

      Koebner phenomenon: Psoriasis typically exhibits this phenomenon where new plaques of psoriasis occur particularly at sites of skin trauma.

      Diagnosis:
      Skin biopsy of psoriatic plaques reveals acanthosis and parakeratosis, reflecting increased skin turnover. Capillary dilatation within the dermis also occurs, surrounded by a mixed neutrophilic and lymphohistiocytic perivascular infiltrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation?
    ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The foramen ovale closes at birth when the pressure in the left atrium is higher than the pressure in the right atrium

      Explanation:

      In the prenatal heart, right-to-left atrial shunting of blood through the foramen ovale is essential for proper circulation. After birth, as the pulmonary circulation is established, the foramen ovale functionally closes as a result of changes in the relative pressure of the two atrial chambers, ensuring the separation of oxygen-depleted venous blood in the right atrium from the oxygenated blood entering the left atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 3 - A child is brought to the hospital by his mother, who complains that...

    Incorrect

    • A child is brought to the hospital by his mother, who complains that he has been running a fever and associated with a headache.

      Which of the following clinical features, if present, is suggestive of raised intracranial pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, bradycardia is a feature of raised intracranial pressure.

      The features of raised intracranial pressure include relative bradycardia and hypertension, altered consciousness, focal neurology and seizures.

      All other options are signs of shock but not raised intracranial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 4 - Which of the following cells synthesize surfactant? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cells synthesize surfactant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 2 pneumocytes

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary surfactant is a lipoprotein complex that is responsible for preventing the collapse of alveoli and increasing lung compliance.
      It is produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and secreted from the lamellar bodies of type 2 pneumocytes.

      Surfactant is essential for reducing surface tension at the air-water interface in the alveoli, thus preventing the collapse of alveoli during expiration. It is composed of dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine (DPPC), which is a phospholipid.

      In fetal development, production of surfactant begins around 26 weeks of gestation and reaches mature levels by 35 weeks.
      The deficiency of surfactant can result in neonatal respiratory distress syndrome or hyaline membrane disease, particularly in premature new-born babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 5 - In X linked dominant inheritance, what is the chance of an affected father's...

    Incorrect

    • In X linked dominant inheritance, what is the chance of an affected father's daughter inheriting the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      In the pattern of mendelian inheritance, X- linked dominant inheritance means that all who inherit the X chromosome will present with the condition. In the case of maternal x-linked inheritance sons and daughters have an equal chance of inheriting the condition as there is a 50% chance of inheriting the defective X chromosome from their mother as opposed to a non affected X chromosome from their father. However in paternal X-linked dominant inheritance, sons will be unaffected as they inherit a Y chromosome from their father while daughters are sure to inherit the defective X-chromosome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 6 - A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a...

    Incorrect

    • A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a discharging umbilicus. The cord separated at 10 days and there is no peri-umbilical swelling or erythema. There is a small red mass at the site of cord separation, which is discharging a small amount of yellow fluid. The GP had taken a swab of this which grew Staphylococcus epidermidis.

      The MOST appropriate course of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 1-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The baby most likely has umbilical granuloma – granulation tissue may persist at the base of the umbilicus after cord separation; the tissue is composed of fibroblasts and capillaries and can grow to more than 1 cm.
      Medical therapy is indicated only when an infection is present.
      Silver nitrate application to umbilical granulomas is usually successful. One or more applications may be needed. Care must be taken to avoid contact with the skin. Silver nitrate can cause painful burns. Small umbilical granulomas with a narrow base may be safely excised in the office setting. Large granulomas and those growing in response to an umbilical fistula or sinus do not resolve with silver nitrate and must be surgically excised in the operating room setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 7 - Intussusception is characterized by which of the following statements? ...

    Incorrect

    • Intussusception is characterized by which of the following statements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is associated with Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is one of the common causes of intestinal obstruction in children, resulting from the invagination or telescoping of one segment of the bowel into the other distal segment. It may induce bowel ischemia and necrosis, as well. It can occur as a complication of Meckel’s diverticulum. It usually occurs proximal to the ileocecal valve, and the most common presentation is ileocecal. Early signs and symptoms include cramping abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and pulling legs up to chest area. First line treatment includes resuscitation with IV fluids and nasogastric tube. It responds well to air-enema, which is also diagnostic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 8 - There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its...

    Incorrect

    • There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. Which of following is the best term which can describe the above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Standard deviation (root mean square deviation)

      Explanation:

      Standard deviation is defined as the measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. It measures the absolute variability of a distribution; the higher the dispersion or variability, the greater is the standard deviation and greater will be the magnitude of the deviation of the value from their mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with arachnodactyly? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with arachnodactyly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Tuner’s syndrome is not associated with arachnodactyly.

      Arachnodactyly is seen in the following conditions:
      – Marfan syndrome
      – Homocystinuria
      – Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
      – Congenital contractural arachnodactyly

      Other rare syndromes include:
      – Loeys-Dietz syndrome
      – Antley-Bixler syndrome
      – Marden-Walker syndrome
      – Lujan-Frinz syndrome
      – Haim-Munk syndrome
      – Marden-Walker syndrome
      – Spondylocostal dysostosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 10 - A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningococcaemia

      Explanation:

      Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lyme disease

      Explanation:

      Erythema Migrans is associated with Lyme disease, a tic transmitted infection caused by the spirochete Borrelia Burgdorferi. The rash usually appears at the bite site after 7 to 10 days. It is flat or slightly raised and migrates as the name suggests.

      Streptococcal throat infection and Crohn’s disease are both associated with erythema nodosum.

      Herpes simplex and Rheumatic fever may present with Erythema Multiforme and Erythema Marginatum respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you...

    Incorrect

    • Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you give?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Child should sleep on the back with legs towards the end of the cot

      Explanation:

      Cot death also know as SIDS or Sudden Infant Death syndrome. Putting a baby to sleep on his back has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 13 - Cafe-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cafe-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia

      Explanation:

      Cafe-au-lait spots is hyperpigmented lesions that vary in colour from light brown to dark brown, with borders that may be smooth or irregular. Causes include:

      Neurofibromatosis type I

      McCune-Albright syndrome

      Legius syndrome

      Tuberous sclerosis

      Fanconi anaemia

      Idiopathic

      Ataxia-telangiectasia

      Basal cell nevus syndrome

      Benign congenital skin lesion

      Bloom syndrome

      Chediak-Higashi syndrome

      Congenital nevus

      Gaucher disease

      Hunter syndrome

      Maffucci syndrome

      Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome

      Noonan syndrome

      Pulmonary Stenosis

      Silver-Russell syndrome

      Watson syndrome

      Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a little hirsute and has evidence of facial acne. She is within her predicted adult height and has normal breast and external genitalia development, however, there is excess hair over her lower abdomen and around her nipple area.

      Investigations were as follows:
      Hb 13.1 g/dl
      WCC 8.6 x109/l
      PLT 201 x109/l
      Na+ 139 mmol/l
      K+ 4.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 µmol/l
      17-OH progesterone 1.4 times the upper limit of normal
      Pelvic ultrasound: bilateral ovaries and uterus visualised.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Mild deficiencies of 21-hydroxylase or 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity may present in adolescence or adulthood with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and/or infertility. This is termed nonclassical adrenal hyperplasia.
      Late-onset or nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (NCAH) due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency is one of the most common autosomal recessive disorders. Reported prevalence ranges from 1 in 30 to 1 in 1000. Affected individuals typically present due to signs and symptoms of androgen excess.
      Treatment needs to be directed toward the symptoms. Goals of treatment include normal linear growth velocity, a normal rate of skeletal maturation, ‘on-time’ puberty, regular menstrual cycles, prevention of or limited progression of hirsutism and acne, and fertility. Treatment needs to be individualized and should not be initiated merely to decrease abnormally elevated hormone concentrations.
      Normal Ultrasound rules out Turner’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 16-year-old autistic boy who has had learning difficulties is found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old autistic boy who has had learning difficulties is found to have large testes. Which condition does the child most likely have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition that causes a range of developmental problems including learning disabilities and cognitive impairment. Usually, males are more severely affected by this disorder than females.
      Affected individuals usually have delayed development of speech and language by age 2. Most males with fragile X syndrome have mild to moderate intellectual disability, while about one-third of affected females are intellectually disabled. Children with fragile X syndrome may also have anxiety and hyperactive behaviour such as fidgeting or impulsive actions. They may have attention deficit disorder (ADD), which includes an impaired ability to maintain attention and difficulty focusing on specific tasks. About one-third of individuals with fragile X syndrome have features of autism spectrum disorder that affect communication and social interaction. Seizures occur in about 15 percent of males and about 5 percent of females with fragile X syndrome.
      Most males and about half of females with fragile X syndrome have characteristic physical features that become more apparent with age. These features include a long and narrow face, large ears, a prominent jaw and forehead, unusually flexible fingers, flat feet, and in males, enlarged testicles (macroorchidism) after puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - When measuring blood pressure in infants and children, which one of the following...

    Incorrect

    • When measuring blood pressure in infants and children, which one of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doppler methods of auscultation are especially helpful in infants

      Explanation:

      Using a Doppler device, you can estimate systolic BP even when the pulse is inaudible. Handheld and portable, the device uses ultrasound waves to detect the velocity of arterial blood flow. Helpful for patients with traumatic injuries or shock, the Doppler technique is also useful for children and patients whose BP is hard to hear because of oedema, obesity, vasoconstriction, or low cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 17 - A 3-year-old girl presents with pallor and marked gland enlargement. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presents with pallor and marked gland enlargement. She has been unwell for the past three weeks. She had a full term normal delivery with no neonatal problems. Her immunisations are up to date. There is no family or social history of note. On examination, her temperature is 37.6°C, and she looks pale and unwell. She has a few petechiae on the neck and palate, with moderate generalised lymphadenopathy and a 3 cm spleen. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma: The history is of enlarged reticuloendothelial system with abnormalities in all 3 cell lines of the bone marrow (pallor, fever and petechiae). The most likely diagnosis is therefore acute (lymphoblastic) leukaemia. Lymphadenopathy may be prominent: mediastinal nodes are characteristic of T-cell leukaemia. In lymphoma the marrow involvement tends to be much less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 18 - A child cannot wave goodbye or grasp objects with her fingers and thumb...

    Incorrect

    • A child cannot wave goodbye or grasp objects with her fingers and thumb but can sit briefly supported by leaning forward on her hands. She can reach and grasp objects with the whole hand and then pass it from one hand to the other and is babbling. What is her expected age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      At 7 months, children are expected to sit briefly leaning forward on their hands, reach and grasp objects, transfer objects from hand to hand, and babble. Children are usually expected to wave goodbye or grasp objects with their fingers or thumb at around 10 months and older.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 19 - A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows:
      Temp: 38.5
      BP: 125/75mmHg
      Pulse: 100/min
      On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dl
      White cell count (WCC) 14.0 x 109/l
      Platelets 380 x 109/l
      Sodium 145 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine 89 μmol/l
      Rheumatoid factor Negative
      Antinuclear antibody Negative
      Anti-dsDNA Negative
      ASO titre Not detected
      Electrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythm
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic Still's disease

      Explanation:

      People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.
      In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 20 - A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0 mmol/L before eating a large meal at 6pm, presents with difficulties raising his blood glucose after the meal. His parents gave him a slightly lower insulin dose with the meal than usual. Blood glucose levels are not rising above 6 mmol/L. Parents are worried and do not want to send him to bed. What is the single most appropriate advice for the parents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A fast acting glucose source would have been preferable to treat the hypoglycaemia and should be considered in the future

      Explanation:

      The boy presented with mild hypoglycaemia and should be managed at home with fast-acting carbs. He should not sleep immediately. His parents should monitor his blood glucose every hour without letting him sleep in between.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - What is the best study design to use when trying to determine a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the best study design to use when trying to determine a causal relationship between a certain factor and the onset of a rare disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Case-control

      Explanation:

      Case control studies are used to determine the relationship between exposure to a risk factor and the resultant outcomes. It finds patients in the general population who have a certain condition and retrospectively searches for past exposure to possible risk factors for the disease. Controls are people who do not have the disease found in the general population. This type of study is useful for rare diseases, and is less time consuming to conduct.

      While cohort studies can be used to study rare diseases they measure the relative risk of developing the disease over time based on exposure.

      Ecological or cross-sectional studies attempt take a snapshot of a whole population, and thus are inappropriate for rare diseases as larger sample numbers are needed. A randomised control trial is better suited to determine the effect of an intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 22 - A 15-year-old female presents with spasmodic abdominal pain for the past two days....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old female presents with spasmodic abdominal pain for the past two days. It is associated with vomiting and raised rashes on her legs. She also provides a history suggestive of dysentery.
      Full blood count and inflammatory markers were normal, but a urine dipstick reveals blood and proteins.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura

      Explanation:

      The initial symptoms of spasmodic abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and vomiting might point towards intussusception, but the peak incidence is in children aged 6-9 months. Considering that this child has additional symptoms of haematuria, proteinuria and a purpuric rash, it is more likely that the child has Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). HSP is an identifiable cause of intussusception.
      It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints. It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection. A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.
      Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 23 - What class of antibodies do the anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood...

    Incorrect

    • What class of antibodies do the anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood group A belong to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgM

      Explanation:

      The anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood group A belong to the IgM class of immunoglobulins.

      Note:
      IgM is the largest antibody formed of 5 antibodies attached together. This functions to agglutinate or clump antigens.
      The associated anti-A and anti-B antibodies are usually IgM produced in the first years of life by sensitisation to environmental substances such as food, bacteria, and viruses.

      Other options:
      – IgG is the most common antibody. It is a single antibody complex.
      – IgD is found on the surface of B-lymphocytes.
      – IgE is bound to tissue cells, especially mast cells and eosinophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 24 - Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inflammation of fat cells under the skin

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme is a skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like lesions. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting, mostly appearing on the distal extremities along with palmoplantar involvement. The disease affects the mucous membrane and orbits as well. The most common infectious cause is herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Inflammation of the adipocytes underlying the skin is referred to as erythema nodosum, and it is not a feature of EM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following is true regarding primitive reflexes in a 12-month-old infant?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding primitive reflexes in a 12-month-old infant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Moro reflex is absent

      Explanation:

      Primitive reflexes are central nervous system responses, many of which disappear as a child matures. Retention of these reflexes may point to atypical neurology such as in cerebral palsy or stroke. However, some persist into adulthood. The stepping reflex is present from birth and normally disappears by 6 weeks, while the moro reflex is present from birth to about 4 months. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex disappears by about 6 months. Reflexes that persist include the head righting reflex which develops at 6 months, and the parachute reflex which develops at 9 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 26 - A systolic murmur is heard in an asymptomatic, pink, term baby with normal...

    Incorrect

    • A systolic murmur is heard in an asymptomatic, pink, term baby with normal pulses and otherwise normal examination. There are no dysmorphic features on the routine first-day neonatal check.
      What is the MOST appropriate action to be taken immediately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-and post-ductal saturations

      Explanation:

      Certain CHDs may present with a differential cyanosis, in which the preductal part of the body (upper part of the body) is pinkish but the post ductal part of the body (lower part of the body) is cyanotic, or vice versa (reverse differential cyanosis). The prerequisite for this unique situation is the presence of a right-to-left shunt through the PDA and severe coarctation of the aorta or aortic arch interruption or severe pulmonary hypertension. In patients with severe coarctation of the aorta or interruption of the aortic arch with normally related great arteries, the preductal part of the body is supplied by highly oxygenated pulmonary venous blood via the LA and LV, whereas the post ductal part is supplied by deoxygenated systemic venous blood via the RA, RV, main pulmonary artery (MPA) and the PDA. In the new-born with structurally normal heart, a differential cyanosis may be associated with persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born. In the cases of TGA with coarctation of the aorta or aortic arch interruption, the upper body is mostly supplied by systemic venous blood via the RA, RV, and ascending aorta, whereas the lower body is supplied by highly oxygenated pulmonary venous blood via the LA, LV, MPA, and then the PDA. For accurate detection of differential cyanosis, oxygen saturation should be measured in both preductal (right finger) and post ductal (feet) parts of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 27 - A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After taking the medication the patient developed Steven-Johnson syndrome. Which particular antibiotic usually causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulphonamides

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a type of severe skin reaction. The most common cause is certain medications such as lamotrigine, carbamazepine, allopurinol, sulphonamide antibiotics, and nevirapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
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  • Question 28 - An 11-year-old boy was brought by his mother because she noticed that his...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy was brought by his mother because she noticed that his blood sugar level was high this morning.
      The boy was diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 6, following which his sugars have been under control with insulin. His mother insists that his mental, social, and physical development were all normal for his age.
      His is currently on a basal-bolus regime, where he takes insulin glargine at 9 pm every evening. What is the most likely explanation for the pattern shown by the boy's blood sugars?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dawn phenomenon

      Explanation:

      The patient’s sugar levels typically show the Dawn phenomenon.

      Dawn phenomenon:
      This is an early morning rise in blood glucose levels secondary to a rise in hormones that increase blood glucose levels. The question suggests that he is undergoing a pubertal growth spurt, suggesting that an increase in these hormones is what has led to the higher morning glucose levels.

      Other options:
      – Inactivity at night-time: It is expected, and insulin dose should be adequate despite inactivity during the night.
      – Inadequate bedtime insulin: It is possible that this is a contributing factor. However, inadequate background insulin is also likely to result in high blood glucose in the day, which the question does not suggest.
      – Somogyi effect: There are no features suggestive of nocturnal hypoglycaemia that can cause the Somogyi effect.
      – Nocturnal glycogenesis: Glycogenesis would result in hypoglycaemia, not hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant mother?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valves

      Explanation:

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a plasma protein produced by the embryonic yolk sac and the fetal liver. AFP levels in serum, amniotic fluid, and urine functions as a screening test for congenital disabilities, chromosomal abnormalities, as well as some other adult occurring tumours and pathologies.
      Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels are elevated in:
      – Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly)
      – Omphalocele
      – Gastroschisis
      – posterior urethral valves
      – nephrosis
      – GI obstruction
      – teratomas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 30 - Which is true regarding the histopathology of psoriasis?
    ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is true regarding the histopathology of psoriasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Histological features seen in psoriasis include acanthosis and parakeratosis

      Explanation:

      Histology of psoriasis is characterised by parakeratosis (cell nuclei within stratum corneum) and thickened projections of the prickle cell layer of keratinocytes (psoriasiform hyperplasia or acanthosis).

      Orthokeratosis refers to the formation of a pathological anuclear keratin layer in the skin.

      The stratum granulosum is actually thinned or absent in patients with psoriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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