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  • Question 1 - A 25 year old lady visits her regular doctor to have a skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old lady visits her regular doctor to have a skin lesion excised from her thigh. At her 3 month follow-up appointment, the doctor notes that the scar is contracting. Which of the following allows this process to happen?

      Your Answer: Fibroblasts

      Correct Answer: Myofibroblasts

      Explanation:

      Answer: Myofibroblasts

      Fibroblasts are a type of cell which have mesenchymal origin and can exhibit either non-contractile or highly contractile phenotype. Under normal conditions, fibroblasts function to maintain tissue homeostasis by regulating the turnover of extracellular matrix (ECM). When tissues are injured, however, fibroblasts around the injured region differentiate into myofibroblasts, a type of highly contractile cells that produce abundant ECM proteins. While the mechanisms of wound healing are not completely understood, it has become clear that both fibroblasts and myofibroblasts play a critical role in the wound healing process. Specifically, the traction forces of fibroblasts and coordinated contraction of myofibroblasts are believed to be responsible for wound contraction and closure. However, excessive myofibroblast activity, accompanied by elevated levels of mechanical stress in the healing region, often causes scar tissue formation, and in the worst case, contracture of tissues (e.g. Dupuytren’s contracture), leading to local immobilization and loss of function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 2 - A 64 year old man who has undergone a total hip replacement is...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old man who has undergone a total hip replacement is given an infusion of packed red cells. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely to occur as a result of this treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyrexia

      Explanation:

      Acute transfusion reactions present as adverse signs or symptoms during or within 24 hours of a blood transfusion. The most frequent reactions are fever, chills, pruritus, or urticaria, which typically resolve promptly without specific treatment or complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
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  • Question 3 - A 53 year old woman is admitted to the hospital with a femoral...

    Incorrect

    • A 53 year old woman is admitted to the hospital with a femoral shaft fracture that occurred suddenly whilst running outside.
      On examination, there is no neurovascular deficit distal to the fracture site. However, there is a large firm nodule in the left lobe of the thyroid, with no associated lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Follicular thyroid cancer

      Explanation:

      Follicular thyroid cancer accounts for 15% of thyroid cancer and occurs more commonly in women over 50 years of age. Thyroglobulin (Tg) can be used as a tumour marker for well-differentiated follicular thyroid cancer. Follicular cells are the thyroid cells responsible for the production and secretion of thyroid hormones.

      It is impossible to distinguish between follicular adenoma and carcinoma on cytological grounds. If fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) suggests follicular neoplasm, thyroid lobectomy should be performed to establish the histopathological diagnosis. Features for the diagnosis of follicular carcinoma are capsular invasion and vascular invasion by tumour cells. Capsular invasion should be carefully evaluated and discriminated from the capsular rupture due to FNA penetration resulting in WHAFFT (worrisome histologic alterations following FNA of thyroid).

      – Follicular carcinoma tends to metastasize to lung and bone via the bloodstream.
      – Papillary thyroid carcinoma commonly metastasizes to cervical lymph nodes.
      – HMGA2 has been proposed as a marker to identify malignant tumours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      0
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  • Question 4 - A 35 year old man arrives at the ED with abdominal pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old man arrives at the ED with abdominal pain. He is from Zimbabwe. Radiological scan of the abdomen reveals calcification of the urinary bladder. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schistosoma haematobium

      Explanation:

      The ova of Schistosoma haematobium are deposited in the wall of the bladder and ureters, where they evoke a granulomatous inflammatory reaction with eventual calcification of the bladder wall. The typical presentation is painful terminal haematuria. Secondary bacterial infection may occur, particularly with Pseudomonas, Proteus or Salmonella, especially following instrumentation of the bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
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  • Question 5 - A 33 year old African woman presents with complaints of continuous dribbling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old African woman presents with complaints of continuous dribbling of urine after the birth of her second child. The woman denies any complications associated with her pregnancies except for prolonged labour. She is otherwise healthy and feels well. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vesicovaginal fistula

      Explanation:

      Vesicovaginal fistula (VVF) is an abnormal opening between the bladder and the vagina that results in continuous and unremitting urinary incontinence. It is one of the most distressing complications of gynaecologic and obstetric procedures. Vesicovaginal fistulae should be suspected in patients with continuous dribbling incontinence after prolonged labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
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  • Question 6 - A 4 year old girl falls off the monkey bars in the park...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old girl falls off the monkey bars in the park and lands on her left forearm. She is rushed to the hospital and on examination, she has bony tenderness and bruising. X-ray shows unilateral cortical disruption and development of periosteal haematoma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Greenstick fracture

      Explanation:

      A greenstick fracture is a fracture in a young, soft bone in which the bone bends and breaks. Greenstick fractures occur most often during infancy and childhood when bones are soft.
      Some clinical features of a greenstick fracture are similar to those of a standard long bone fracture – greenstick fractures normally cause pain at the injured area. As these fractures are specifically a paediatric problem, an older child will be protective of the fractured part and babies may cry inconsolably. As per a standard fracture, the area may be swollen and either red or bruised. Greenstick fractures are stable fractures as a part of the bone remains intact and unbroken so this type of fracture normally causes a bend to the injured part, rather than a distinct deformity, which is problematic.
      Radiographic features
      -usually mid-diaphyseal
      -occur in tandem with angulation
      -incomplete fracture, with cortical breach of only one side of the bone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 33 year old woman presents to the ER after being involved in...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old woman presents to the ER after being involved in a road traffic accident. Her knee has hit the dashboard. Examination reveals a posteriorly displaced tibia. Injury to which of the following structures has resulted in this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      The posterior drawer test is a physical exam technique that is done to assess the integrity of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). The PCL is attached to the posterior intercondylar area of the tibia and passes anteriorly, medially, and upward to attach to the lateral side of the medial femoral condyle.
      This ligament prevents backward displacement of the tibia or forward sliding of the femur. Injury to the ligament allows displacement of the tibia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 8 - A 5 year old boy is taken to the doctor by his father....

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old boy is taken to the doctor by his father. He has had an earache for the past day and he is constantly pulling and touching his ear. His father noticed a foul smelling discharge leaking from his ear after which the earache resolved. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute otitis media

      Explanation:

      Acute otitis media (AOM) is a painful type of ear infection. It occurs when the area behind the eardrum, the middle ear, becomes inflamed and infected.

      The following behaviours in children often mean they have AOM:
      – fits of fussiness and intense crying (in infants)
      – clutching the ear while wincing in pain (in toddlers)
      – complaining about a pain in the ear (in older children).

      Perforation of the tympanic membrane is not unusual as the process advances, most frequently in posterior or inferior quadrants. Before or instead of a single perforation, an opaque serum like exudate is sometimes seen oozing through the entire tympanic membrane.

      With perforation and in the absence of a coexistent viral infection, the patient generally experiences rapid relief of pain and fever. The discharge initially is purulent, though it may be thin and watery or bloody; pulsation of the otorrhea is common. Otorrhea from acute perforation normally lasts 1-2 days before spontaneous healing occurs. Otorrhea may persist if the perforation is accompanied by mucosal swelling or polypoid changes, which can act as a ball valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 33 year old man with fulminant ulcerative colitis underwent a subtotal colectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old man with fulminant ulcerative colitis underwent a subtotal colectomy. Which type of stoma would most likely be fashioned?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: End ileostomy

      Explanation:

      Subtotal colectomy is resection of the entire right, transverse, left and part of the sigmoid colon. The rectal stump is closed and an end ileostomy fashioned in the right iliac fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 5 year old boy is rushed to the A&E department after accidentally...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old boy is rushed to the A&E department after accidentally inhaling a Brazil nut. He is seen to be extremely distressed and cyanotic and imaging shows that it is lodged in the left main bronchus. Which of the following is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange immediate transfer to theatre for bronchoscopy

      Explanation:

      A small number of foreign body aspirations are incidentally found after chest radiography or bronchoscopic inspection. Patients may be asymptomatic or may be undergoing testing for other diagnoses. If present, physical findings may include stridor, fixed wheeze, localized wheeze, or diminished breath sounds. If obstruction is severe, cyanosis may occur. Signs of consolidation can accompany post obstructive pneumonia.

      Bronchoscopy can be used diagnostically and therapeutically. Most aspirated foreign bodies are radiolucent. Radiologic procedures do not have extreme diagnostic accuracy, and aspiration events are not always detected. Rigid bronchoscopy usually requires heavy intravenous sedation or general anaesthesia. The rigid bronchoscope has important advantages over the flexible bronchoscope. The larger diameter of the rigid bronchoscope facilitates the passage of various grasping devices, including a flexible bronchoscope. A better chance of quick, successful extraction and better capabilities of suctioning clotted blood and thick secretions are offered by the rigid bronchoscope. The paediatric flexible bronchoscope lacks a hollow working channel through which instruments may be inserted or blood and secretions may be aspirated.
      Unlike the flexible bronchoscope, the patient can be ventilated through the rigid scope; therefore, ventilation of the patient can be maintained. Rigid bronchoscopy is the procedure of choice for removing foreign bodies in children and in most adults. Success rates for extracting foreign bodies are reportedly more than 98%. Large solid and semisolid objects are best managed emergently in the operating room with a rigid bronchoscope and appropriate grasping instruments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 11 - A 51 year old contractor is referred to the clinic with gynaecomastia. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 51 year old contractor is referred to the clinic with gynaecomastia. The following list are the medications that he has been taking. Which medication is least likely to cause gynaecomastia?

      Medications list:
      Carbimazole,
      Spironolactone,
      Chlorpromazine,
      Cimetidine,
      Methyldopa.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbimazole

      Explanation:

      Carbimazole was not found to cause gynaecomastia.

      Drugs frequently causing gynecomastia:
      Antiandrogens – Bicalutamide, flutamide, finasteride, dutasteride
      Antihypertensive – Spironolactone
      Antiretroviral – Protease inhibitors (saquinavir, indinavir, nelfinavir, ritonavir, lopinavir), reverse transcriptase inhibitors (stavudine, zidovudine, lamivudine)
      Environmental exposure – Phenothrin (antiparasitic)
      Exogenous hormones – Oestrogens, prednisone (male teenagers)
      Gastrointestinal drugs – H2 histamine receptor blockers (cimetidine)

      Mnemonic for causes of gynaecomastia: METOCLOPRAMIDE

      M etoclopramide
      E ctopic oestrogen
      T rauma skull/tumour breast, testes
      O rchitis
      C imetidine, Cushings
      L iver cirrhosis
      O besity
      P araplegia
      R A
      A cromegaly
      M ethyldopa
      I soniazid
      D igoxin
      E thionamide

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old male falls on the back of his hand. On x-ray, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male falls on the back of his hand. On x-ray, he has a fractured distal radius demonstrating volar displacement of the fracture. What eponymous term is used to describe this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smith's

      Explanation:

      The Frykman classification of distal radial fractures is based on the AP appearance and encompasses the eponymous entities of Colles fracture, Smith fracture, Barton fracture, chauffeur fracture.

      Colles fractures are very common extra-articular fractures of the distal radius that occur as the result of a fall onto an outstretched hand. They consist of a fracture of the distal radial metaphyseal region with dorsal angulation and impaction, but without the involvement of the articular surface.
      Colles fractures are the most common type of distal radial fracture and are seen in all adult age groups and demographics. They are particularly common in patients with osteoporosis, and as such, they are most frequently seen in elderly women.

      Smith fractures, also known as Goyrand fractures in the French literature 3, are fractures of the distal radius with associated volar angulation of the distal fracture fragment(s). Classically, these fractures are extra-articular transverse fractures and can be thought of like a reverse Colles fracture.
      The term is sometimes used to describe intra-articular fractures with volar displacement (reverse Barton fracture) or juxta-articular fractures

      Barton fractures are fractures of the distal radius. It is also sometimes termed the dorsal type Barton fracture to distinguish it from the volar type or reverse Barton fracture.
      Barton fractures extend through the dorsal aspect to the articular surface but not to the volar aspect. Therefore, it is similar to a Colles fracture. There is usually associated with dorsal subluxation/dislocation of the radiocarpal joint.

      Chauffeur fractures (also known as Hutchinson fractures or backfire fractures) are intra-articular fractures of the radial styloid process. The radial styloid is within the fracture fragment, although the fragment can vary markedly in size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 13 - A 13 year old girl presents to the clinic with weight loss and...

    Incorrect

    • A 13 year old girl presents to the clinic with weight loss and bloody diarrhoea. Examination of the abdomen is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease

      Explanation:

      Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease

      The inflammatory bowel diseases (IBDs), including ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease, are chronic inflammatory disorders of the gastrointestinal tract most often diagnosed in adolescence and young adulthood, with a rising incidence in paediatric populations. Inflammatory bowel disease is caused by a dysregulated mucosal immune response to the intestinal microflora in genetically predisposed hosts. Although children can present with the classic symptoms of weight loss, abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhoea, many present with nonclassical symptoms of isolated poor growth, anaemia, or other extraintestinal manifestations.

      Colorectal Carcinoma (CRC) is rare in patients less than 20 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old male cuts the corner of his lip whilst shaving. Over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male cuts the corner of his lip whilst shaving. Over the next few days, a large purplish lesion appears at the site which bleeds on contact. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Pyogenic granuloma (lobular capillary haemangioma) is a relatively common benign vascular lesion of the skin and mucosa whose exact cause is unknown
      The name pyogenic granuloma is a misnomer since the condition is not associated with pus and does not represent a granuloma histologically. Pyogenic granuloma of the oral cavity is known to involve the gingiva commonly. Extragingivally, it can occur on the lips, tongue, buccal mucosa, palate, and the like. A history of trauma is common in such sites. The aetiology of the lesion is not known, though it was originally believed to be a botryomycotic infection. It is theorized that pyogenic granuloma possibly originates as a response of tissues to minor trauma and/or chronic irritation, thus opening a pathway for the invasion of nonspecific microorganisms, although microorganisms are seldom demonstrated within the lesion. Pathogenesis of pyogenic granuloma is still debatable.
      Patients with pyogenic granuloma may report a painless glistening red lesion that bleeds spontaneously or after irritation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Skin Lesions
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  • Question 15 - A 33-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic accident. He complains of lower abdominal pain. On examination, a fracture of the pelvis along with distended, tender bladder is observed.

      What should be the best step of management for distended bladder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suprapubic catheter

      Explanation:

      This patient has possible urethral injury based on the history. Urethral catheterisation is contraindicated in this situation.

      Up to 10% of male pelvic fractures are associated with urethral or bladder injuries. Urethral injury occurs mainly in males. It has two types.

      1.Bulbar rupture:
      a. most common
      b. mostly associated with straddle-type injury, e.g. from bicycles
      c. presentation with a triad of urinary retention, perineal haematoma, and blood at the meatus

      2. Membranous rupture:
      a. can be extra- or intraperitoneal
      b. occurs commonly due to pelvic fracture
      c. symptomology may include penile or perineal oedema/haematoma
      d. prostate displaced upwards (high-riding prostate)

      Ascending urethrogram is carried out in patients of suspected urethral injury. Suprapubic catheter is surgically placed and is indicated in:
      1. External genitalia injuries (i.e. the penis and the scrotum)
      2. Injury to the urethra caused by penetration, blunt trauma, continence- or sexual pleasure–enhancing devices, and mutilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E department after being shot in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E department after being shot in the back, in the lumbar region. On examination, he has increased tone and hyperreflexia of his right leg and hemianaesthesia of his left leg.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brown-Sequard syndrome

      Explanation:

      This is a case of Brown-Sequard syndrome.

      Brown-Sequard syndrome is caused by hemisection of the spinal cord following stab injuries or lateral vertebral fractures. It results in ipsilateral paralysis (pyramidal tract), and also loss of proprioception and fine discrimination(dorsal columns). Pain and temperature sensations are lost on the contralateral side. This is because the fibres of the spinothalamic tract have decussated below the level of the cord transection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 17 - A 37 year old firefighter notices a swelling in his left hemiscrotum and...

    Incorrect

    • A 37 year old firefighter notices a swelling in his left hemiscrotum and visits his family doctor. A left sided varicocele was noticed when he was examined. The ipsilateral testis is normal on palpation. Which of the following would be the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Abdominal Ultrasound is the imaging method of choice for varicocele.
      A varicocele is abnormal dilation and enlargement of the scrotal venous pampiniform plexus which drains blood from each testicle. While usually painless, varicoceles are clinically significant because they are the most commonly identified cause of abnormal semen analysis, low sperm count, decreased sperm motility, and abnormal sperm morphology. Varicoceles are far more common (80% to 90%) in the left testicle. If a left varicocele is identified, there is a 30% to 40% probability it is a bilateral condition.

      There are three theories as to the anatomical cause:

      – The Nutcracker effect which occurs when the left internal spermatic vein gets caught between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. This entrapment causes venous compression and spermatic vein obstruction.
      – Failure of the anti-reflux valve where the internal spermatic vein joins the left renal vein. This failure causes reflux and retrograde flow in the testicular vein.
      – Angulation at the juncture of the left internal spermatic vein and the left renal vein.

      Varicoceles are usually asymptomatic. The patient may describe a bag of worms if the varicocele is large enough. Varicoceles present as soft lumps above the testicle, usually on the left side of the scrotum. Patients may sometimes complain of pain or heaviness in the scrotum.
      A sudden onset of varicocele in a man over the age of 30 years requires the exclusion of renal tumours, particularly in elderly patients. In such cases it is necessary to extend diagnostic ultrasonography with abdominal examination. The diagnosis of varicocele is based on medical history and physical examination, which involves palpation and observation of the scrotum at rest and during the Valsalva manoeuvre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
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  • Question 18 - A 43-year-old female with liver cirrhosis is recovering following an emergency paraumbilical hernia...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old female with liver cirrhosis is recovering following an emergency paraumbilical hernia repair. She has been slow to resume oral intake and has been receiving regular boluses of normal saline for oliguria. Which of the following intravenous fluids should be considered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human albumin solution 4.5%

      Explanation:

      In a surgical patient, hepatic dysfunction translates into an increased risk of infection, haemorrhage, thrombosis, and a prolonged half-life of numerous drugs (e.g., opioids and benzodiazepines). The associated imbalance of neuroendocrine mediators (e.g., vasopressin, renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, and nitric oxide) also potentiates sodium and fluid retention, resulting in a background hyperdynamic circulation with splanchnic venous congestion and systemic vasodilation.
      In emergency surgery, stress response to the underlying condition, anaesthesia, and surgical trauma increase the risk of hepatic decompensation and associated multi-system failure. Changes in hepatic perfusion with shock and fluid shifts further compromise hepatocellular synthetic and excretory functions. In addition, endotoxemia from gram-negative sepsis potentiates platelet aggregation and creates a state of low-grade disseminated intravascular coagulation.
      Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system with hypersecretion of vasopressin acts as compensatory mechanisms to preserve arterial pressure and replenish effective circulating volume when blood is pooled in the splanchnic territory. With the progression of cirrhosis, avidity for water and sodium increases, and dilutional hyponatremia results from water retention. In advanced cases, exacerbation of these abnormalities leads to hepatorenal syndrome (HRS). HRS is characterized by a rapid decline in renal function with low urinary excretion of sodium due to severe renal vasoconstriction and diminished or absent cortical perfusion. This syndrome is potentially reversible but carries an extremely poor prognosis.

      Owing to raised intra-abdominal pressure due to ascites and muscle weakness from decreased muscle mass and malnutrition, umbilical and inguinal hernia incidence is higher in patients with cirrhosis.
      If the patient with cirrhosis has umbilical hernia with obstructive symptoms such as intermittent incarceration or trophic skin changes, surgical repair should be considered.

      Euvolemia and electrolyte homeostasis should be maintained under strict clinical and laboratory monitoring. Acute kidney injury in the absence of hemodynamic instability, use of nephrotoxic drugs, or parenchymal renal disease suggests the diagnosis of hepatorenal syndrome. Additional diagnostic criteria include no improvement in renal function after volume expansion with albumin and diuretic withdrawal. Treatment of hepatorenal syndrome requires the use of splanchnic vasoconstrictors (terlipressin, noradrenalin, or midodrine) and albumin infusion. Improved renal function has been demonstrated with medical treatment, but a mortality benefit is only ultimately achieved with liver transplantation. TIPS placement and renal and hepatic replacement therapies can be indicated as bridging strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old man presents with a five-month history of intermittent retrosternal chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents with a five-month history of intermittent retrosternal chest pain along with episodes of dysphagia to liquids. An upper GI endoscopy is performed and no mucosal abnormality is seen.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motility disorder

      Explanation:

      Dysphagia that is episodic and nonprogressive and varies between solids and liquids is more likely to represent a motility disorder. It may also associated with retrosternal chest pain.

      Motility disorder is a condition where the nerves and muscles in the gastrointestinal tract are not working together correctly, which cause difficulty in the digestive process. These conditions include chronic intractable constipation, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), chronic intestinal pseudo-obstruction, gastroparesis, Hirschsprung’s disease, and oesophageal achalasia, among other disorders.

      In addition to imaging studies, these conditions are usually evaluated with manometry studies which measure the pressure in different areas of the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
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  • Question 20 - A 33 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a tender...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a tender mass in the right groin area. Red streaks are also noted on the thigh that are extending from a small abrasion. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphadenitis

      Explanation:

      Lymphadenitis is the inflammation or enlargement of a lymph node. Lymph nodes are small, ovoid nodules normally ranging in size from a few millimetres to 2 cm. They are distributed in clusters along the course of lymphatic vessels located throughout the body. The primary function of lymph nodes is to filter out microorganisms and abnormal cells that have collected in lymph fluid. Lymph node enlargement is a common feature in a variety of diseases and may serve as a focal point for subsequent clinical investigation of diseases of the reticuloendothelial system or regional infection. The majority of cases represent a benign response to localized or systemic infection. The red streaks that are noted along the line of lymphatics are indicative of lymphadenitis.

      Groin masses are common and include:
      Herniae
      Lipomas
      Lymph nodes
      Undescended testis
      Femoral aneurysm
      Saphena varix

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

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