00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new partner and she are arranging a trip to Thailand. She has no contraindications.
      What is the best piece of advice?

      Your Answer: Condoms

      Correct Answer: Oral contraceptive pills and condoms

      Explanation:

      OCPs should be started in this patient as well as condoms to prevent likely sexually transmitted infections.

      Condoms alone are not effective for prevention of pregnancy.

      OCPs alone do not prevent from sexually transmitted infections.

      It is not appropriate to inform the parents and the patient hasn’t refused any advice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening test was referred to see a gynaecologist at your clinic. Colposcopy reveals abnormal cells higher in the cervical canal.
      What is the next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cone biopsy

      Explanation:

      If abnormal cells are found high up in the cervical canal, it is critical to consider doing a cone biopsy to rule out any cervical malignancy. A cone-shaped section of the cervix containing the abnormal cells is removed under general anaesthesia.
      Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure is a way of removing the abnormal cells from the cervix using a wire loop. First a speculum is inserted to open the vagina so the uterus can be seen. Then a solution is applied to the surface of the cervix to make the areas of abnormal cells easier to see. It is done under local anaesthesia.

      Cone biopsy is the only acceptable option to rule out malignancy. Cryotherapy, chemotherapy and radiotherapy are management options once malignancy has been confirmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischial Spine

      Explanation:

      The ischial spines and palpable through the vagina and are used as landmarks to assess the decent of the fetal head from the cervix. It also serves as a landmark for giving the pudendal block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You see a patient who gave birth earlier in the day. She was...

    Incorrect

    • You see a patient who gave birth earlier in the day. She was taken off warfarin during pregnancy and is currently on LMWH. She intends to breastfeed for the first 6-8 weeks and wants advice regarding restarting warfarin. Which of the following is appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recommence warfarin in 5-7 days

      Explanation:

      The use of anticoagulants during pregnancy is a complicated issue because warfarin is teratogenic if used in the first trimester, and is linked with fetal intracranial haemorrhage in the third trimester (mainly at doses 5 mg daily). Low molecular weight heparin may be insufficient at preventing thrombosis in women with mechanical prosthetic heart valves, where the risk of valve thrombus is 10 per cent. Anticoagulation is essential in patients with congenital heart disease who have pulmonary hypertension, or artificial valve replacements, and in those in or at risk of atrial fibrillation. The options are either to continue warfarin for the pregnancy, or replace it with heparin between 6 and 12 weeks gestation to avoid the teratogenic risk. Warfarin should be started a week after delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - During the menstrual cycle which hormone typically reaches its peak level on day...

    Incorrect

    • During the menstrual cycle which hormone typically reaches its peak level on day 21 (assuming a 28 day cycle)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      LH, FSH and Oestrogen have their peaks just before ovulation on day 14 whereas progesterone peaks around day 21.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which two nerves provide the primary cutaneous sensory innervation to the labia majora?...

    Incorrect

    • Which two nerves provide the primary cutaneous sensory innervation to the labia majora?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal and pudendal

      Explanation:

      The Pudendal provides cutaneous innervation to the posterior external genitalia via one of its terminal branches called the perineal nerve (this further branches into the posterior labial nerves or posterior scrotal nerve in men). The ilioinguinal nerve provides anterior sensation via the anterior labial nerves (anterior scrotal nerve in men). The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve contributes some fibres to the skin of the mons pubis and labia majora in females. The posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh sometimes overlaps sensory areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 77 year old woman undergoes staging investigations for endometrial carcinoma. This shows...

    Incorrect

    • A 77 year old woman undergoes staging investigations for endometrial carcinoma. This shows invasion of the inguinal lymph nodes. What is this patients 5-year survival?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Lymph node involvement means that the carcinoma is stage 4. The 5 year survival of stage 4 endometrial carcinoma is 16%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the main reason for the active management of the third stage...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main reason for the active management of the third stage of labour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevent postpartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      According to the WHO, active management of the third stage of labour has been shown to decrease the risk of postpartum haemorrhage in vaginal births worldwide. Per the guidelines from the International Federation of Gynaecologists and Obstetricians (FIGO), the active management of the third stage is summarised as follows:
      1. The administration of a uterotonic (oxytocin, ergometrine or misoprostol), within one minute of fetal delivery,
      2.Controlled cord traction with manual support to the uterus until placental delivery
      3. Fundal massage immediately after placental delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at her 18 weeks gestational age...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at her 18 weeks gestational age for an unscheduled visit due to right-sided groin pain. She describes the pain as sharp in nature, which is occurring with movement and exercise and that the pain will be alleviated with application of a heating pad. She denies any change in urinary or bowel habits and there is no fever or chills.
      What would be the most likely etiology of pain in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Round ligament pain

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with classic symptoms of round ligament pain.
      Round ligaments are structures which extends from the lateral portion of the uterus below to the oviduct and will travel downward in a fold of peritoneum to the inguinal canal to get inserted in the upper portion of the labium majus. As the gravid uterus grows out of pelvis during pregnancy, these ligaments will stretch, mostly during sudden movements, resulting in a sharp pain. Due to dextrorotation of uterus, which occurs commonly in pregnancy, the round ligament pain is experienced more frequently over the right side. Usually this pain improves by avoiding sudden movements, by rising and sitting down gradually, by the application of local heat and by using analgesics.

      As the patient is not experiencing any symptoms like fever or anorexia a diagnosis of appendicitis is not likely. Also in pregnant women appendicitis often presents as pain located much higher than the groin area as the growing gravid uterus pushes the appendix out of pelvis.

      As the pain is localized to only one side of groin and is alleviated with a heating pad the diagnosis of preterm labor is unlikely. In addition, the pain would persist even at rest and not with just movement in case of labor.

      As the patient has not reported of any urinary symptoms diagnosis of urinary tract infection is unlikely.

      Kidney stones usually presents with pain in the back and not lower in the groin. In addition, with a kidney stone the pain would occur not only with movement, but would persist at rest as well. So a diagnosis of kidney stone is unlikely in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal...

    Incorrect

    • In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis. The risk of early onset neonatal Group B Streptococcus sepsis can be reduced by screening for Group B streptococcus status and by the use of intrapartum antibiotics.
      From the below given statements, which is false regarding Group B streptococcus screening and intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: For elective caesarian section before the commencement of labour give antibiotics prophylaxis is recommended, irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage

      Explanation:

      A rectovaginal swab taken for Group B streptococci culture should be done in women presenting with threatened preterm labour

      If labour is establishes, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be commenced and continued until delivery. In cases were labour is not establish, prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be ceased and should be re-established only if the culture is found to be positive, that too at the time of onset of labour.

      Strategies acceptable for reducing early onset Group B streptococci sepsis includes universal culture-based screening using combined low vaginal plus or minus anorectal swab at 35-37 weeks gestation or a clinical risk factor based approach.

      No additional prophylaxis is recommended irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage, for elective cesarean section before the commencement of labour. However, if a woman who commences labour or has spontaneous rupture of the membranes before her planned Caesarean section is screened positive for Group B streptococci, she should receive intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis while awaiting delivery.

      Although there is little direct evidence to guide this practice, consideration of the above mentioned evidences it is recommendation that, every women with unknown Group B streptococci status at the time of delivery should be managed according to the presence of intrapartum risk factors.
      All women at increased risk of early onset Group B streptococci sepsis must be offered an intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis with IV penicillin-G or ampicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Passmed