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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman undergoes a laparotomy for a perforated duodenal ulcer and broad-spectrum...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman undergoes a laparotomy for a perforated duodenal ulcer and broad-spectrum antibiotics are administered. However, she develops hearing impairment postoperatively.

      Which of the following agents is responsible for this adverse effect?

      Your Answer: Ampicillin

      Correct Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Ototoxicity is a recognised adverse reaction with the aminoglycoside antibiotics.

      Gentamicin belongs to a class of drugs known as aminoglycoside antibiotics. It is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is most affective against aerobic gram-negative rods. Gentamicin acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis. This creates a pool of inactive bacterial ribosomes that can no longer re-initiate and translate new proteins.

      The hearing loss produced by gentamicin is known as gentamycin-induced ototoxicity. The antibiotic itself is not dangerous. It becomes toxic when it binds to iron in the blood and produces destructive chemical agents known as free radicals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 64 year old man who sustained an iatrogenic injury to both the...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old man who sustained an iatrogenic injury to both the ureters after undergoing a subtotal colectomy, develops renal failure. Labs show an elevated serum potassium level of 6.9 mmol/L. The ECG is most likely to show which of the following abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Early ECG changes of hyperkalaemia, typically seen at a serum potassium levels of 5.5-6.5 mEq/L, include the following:
      – Tall, peaked T waves with a narrow base (best seen in precordial leads)
      – Shortened QT interval
      – ST-segment depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a road traffic...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a road traffic accident. He has sustained a flail chest injury and is hypotensive on arrival at the hospital. Examination shows an elevated jugular venous pressure and auscultation of the heart reveals muffled heart sounds.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with a classical picture of cardiac tamponade, suggested by Beck’s triad: hypotension, raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), and muffled heart sounds.

      Cardiac tamponade is a clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space, resulting in reduced ventricular filling and subsequent haemodynamic compromise. This condition is a medical emergency, the complications of which include pulmonary oedema, shock, and death.

      Patients with cardiac tamponade have a collection of three medical signs known as Beck’s triad. These are low arterial blood pressure, distended neck veins, and distant, muffled heart sounds. The diagnosis may be further supported by specific ECG changes, chest X-ray, or an ultrasound of the heart. If fluid increases slowly, the pericardial sac can expand to contain more than 2 L; however, if the increase is rapid, as little as 200 mL can result in tamponade.

      Management options may include pericardiocentesis, surgery to create a pericardial window, or a pericardiectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old male presents to the clinic with a recurrent thyroid cyst. It...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents to the clinic with a recurrent thyroid cyst. It has been drained on three different occasions. Each time the cyst is aspirated and cytology is reassuring. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Resection of the ipsilateral thyroid lobe

      Explanation:

      Aspiration is the treatment of choice in thyroid cysts, but the recurrence rates are high (60%–90% of patients), particularly with repeated aspirations and large-volume cysts.
      Percutaneous ethanol injection (PEI) has been studied in several large randomized controlled studies, with reported success in 82–85% of the cases after an average of 2 sessions, with a volume reduction of more than 85% from baseline size.
      PEI may also be considered for hyperfunctioning nodules, particularly if a large fluid component is present. It has a success rate ranging from 64% to 95%, with a mean volume reduction of 66%, but recurrences are more common and the number of sessions required to achieve good response is higher (about 4 sessions per patient). PEI is a safe procedure, with the most common reported adverse effects being local pain, dysphonia, flushing, dizziness, and, rarely, recurrent laryngeal nerve damage.
      Surgery, Lobectomy is also a reasonable therapy for cystic lesions, as an alternative to the previously mentioned procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 4-year-old boy develops a persistent fever following an open appendicectomy for gangrenous...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy develops a persistent fever following an open appendicectomy for gangrenous appendicitis. On examination, he has erythema of the wound and some abdominal distension. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an abdominal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Post-operative fever is very common.
      It is known to occur after all types of surgical procedures, irrespective of the type of anaesthesia.
      Postoperative fever can occur after minor surgical procedures but is rare and depends on the type of procedure. Overall, both abdominal and chest procedures result in the highest incidence of postoperative fever.

      In this case:
      Acute Fever
      Fever occurs in the first week (1 to 7 POD)
      POD 7 (5 to 10): Wound infection: Risk increases if the patient is immunocompromised (e.g., diabetic), abdominal wound, duration of surgery greater than 2 hours or contamination during surgery. Signs include erythema, warmth, tenderness, discharge.
      Rule out abscess or collections by physical exam plus ultrasound if needed. If an abscess is present, drainage and antibiotics are needed. Prevention is by careful surgical technique and prophylactic antibiotics (e.g., intravenous cefazolin at the time of induction of anaesthesia as well as postoperatively if needed)

      Other causes of Postoperative fever:
      An Immediate Fever
      Fever occurs immediately after surgery or within hours on postoperative days (POD) 0 or 1.
      – Malignant hyperthermia: high-grade fever (greater than 40 C), occurs shortly after inhalational anaesthetics or muscle relaxant (e.g., halothane or succinylcholine), may have a family history of death after anaesthesia. Laboratory studies will reveal with metabolic acidosis and hypercalcemia. If not readily recognized, it can cause cardiac arrest. The treatment is intravenous dantrolene, 100% oxygen, correction of acidosis, cooling blankets, and watching for myoglobinuria.
      – Bacteraemia: High-grade fever (greater than 40 C) occurring 30 to 40 minutes after the beginning of the procedure (e.g., Urinary tract instrumentation in the presence of infected urine). Management includes blood cultures three times and starting empiric antibiotics.
      – Gas gangrene of the wound: High-grade fever (greater than 40 C) occurring after gastrointestinal (GI) surgery due to contamination with Clostridium perfringens; severe wound pain; treat with surgical debridement and antibiotics.
      – Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction: Fevers, chills, and malaise 1 to 6 hours after surgery (without haemolysis). Management: Stop transfusion (rule out haemolytic transfusion reaction) and give antipyretics (avoid aspirin in the thrombocytopenic patient).

      B. Acute Fever
      – Fever occurs in the first week (1 to 7 POD).
      POD 1 to 3: atelectasis: After prolonged intubation, the presence of upper abdominal incision, inadequate postoperative pain control, lying supine. Should be prevented by incentive spirometry, semi-recumbent position, adequate pain control, early ambulation. Clinically may be asymptomatic or with increased work of breathing, respiratory alkalosis, chest x-ray with volume loss. Treatment includes spirometry, chest physiotherapy, semi-recumbent position (improves expansion of alveoli by preventing pressure from intra-abdominal organs on the diaphragm and hence improving functional residual capacity)
      – POD 3: Unresolved atelectasis resulting in pneumonia (respiratory symptoms, Chest x-ray with infiltrate or consolidation, sputum culture, empiric antibiotics and modify according to culture result and sensitivity), or development of urinary tract infection (urine analysis and culture, treat with empiric antibiotics and modify according to culture result and sensitivity)
      – POD 5: Thrombophlebitis (may be asymptomatic or symptomatic, diagnose with Doppler ultrasound of deep leg and pelvic veins and treat with heparin)
      – POD 7: Pulmonary embolism (tachycardia, tachypnoea, pleuritic chest pain, ECG with right heart strain pattern (a low central venous pressure goes against diagnosis), arterial blood gas with hypoxemia and hypocapnia, confirm diagnosis with CT angiogram, and treat with heparin, if recurrent pulmonary embolism while anticoagulated with therapeutic INR, Inferior vena cava filter placement is the next step

      C. Subacute Fever
      Fever occurs between postoperative weeks 1 and 4.
      – POD 10: Deep infection (pelvic or abdominal abscess and if abdominal abscess could be sub-hepatic or sub-phrenic). A digital rectal exam to rule out the pelvic abscess and CT scan to localize intra-abdominal abscess. Treatment includes re-exploration vs. radiological guided percutaneous drainage
      Drugs: Diagnosis of exclusion includes rash and peripheral eosinophilia

      D. Delayed Fever
      Fever after more than 4 weeks.
      Skin and soft tissue infections (SSTI)
      Viral infections

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
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  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is struck by a car....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is struck by a car. On arrival in the emergency department, she has a systolic blood pressure of 105 mmHg and a pulse rate of 126 bpm. Abdominal examination demonstrates diffuse tender abdomen and some bruising of the left flank. The FAST scan is normal.

      What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an urgent abdominal CT scan

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history and examination point towards a significant visceral injury. FAST scan is associated with a false-negative result in pregnancy which makes the normal result, in this scenario, less reassuring. CT scan of the abdomen remains the gold standard for diagnosis.

      Sonography and FAST scanning are established in pregnancy and provide the advantage of avoiding ionising radiations. However, the sensitivity of the FAST scan is reduced in pregnancy especially with advanced gestational age. CT scan remains the first-line investigation in major trauma where significant visceral injury is suspected. The maximum permitted safe dose of radiation in pregnancy is 5 mSv.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 65 year old man with a longstanding history of severe osteoarthritis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man with a longstanding history of severe osteoarthritis of the hip is scheduled to undergo a total hip replacement. The skin has been prepared and antibiotics administered. Which of the following would be the most important precaution in reducing the risk of infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laminar flow theatre

      Explanation:

      Laminar flow theatres aim to reduce the number of infective organisms in the theatre air by generating a continuous flow of bacteria free air. In laminar flow theatres air may be ‘changed’ in theatre more than 300 times per hour compared to standard positive pressure theatre rates of 15-25 air changes per hour.
      Shaving skin on the ward increases infection rates and extended chemoprophylaxis increases the risk of antibiotic associated diarrhoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 69 year old woman presents with chest pain. She has undergone esophagogastrectomy...

    Incorrect

    • A 69 year old woman presents with chest pain. She has undergone esophagogastrectomy for carcinoma of the distal oesophagus. The next day, a brisk bubbling is noticed in the chest drain when the suction is applied. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Air leak from lung

      Explanation:

      The possible causes of post-operative pneumothorax after thoracotomy and esophagectomy include lung parenchymal leak/injury, bronchopleural fistula, ruptured bullae and malpositioned chest drains. When suction is applied to the chest drainage system, active and persistent bubbling may be seen. Although an anastomotic leak may produce a small pneumothorax, a large volume air leak is more indicative of lung injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 34-year-old man with poorly controlled Crohn's disease is nutritionally compromised. A decision...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man with poorly controlled Crohn's disease is nutritionally compromised. A decision is made to start TPN.

      Which of the following routes should be the most appropriate for its administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal jugular vein via a central venous catheter

      Explanation:

      Since TPN solutions irritate the veins, they are best administered via a central line. The femoral route has a higher incidence of line-associated sepsis and is, thus, best avoided in this setting.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has laid down guidelines for identifying patients as malnourished or at risk of malnourishment, in order to start oral, enteral, or parenteral nutrition support, alone or in combination.

      Following patients are identified as malnourished:
      1. BMI <18.5 kg/m2
      2. Unintentional weight loss of >10% within the last 3–6 months
      3. BMI <20 kg/m2 and unintentional weight loss of >5% within the last 3–6 months

      Following patients are at risk of malnutrition:
      1. Eaten nothing or little for >5 days and/or likely to eat little or nothing for the next 5 days or longer
      2. Poor absorptive capacity and/or
      3. High nutrient loss and/or
      4. High metabolic rate

      Considering the method of parenteral nutrition:
      1. For feeding <14 days, consider feeding via a peripheral venous catheter
      2. For feeding >30 days, use a tunnelled subclavian line,
      continuous administration in severely unwell patients
      3. If feed needed for >2 weeks, consider changing from continuous to cyclical feeding
      4. Do not give >50% of daily regime to unwell patients in the first 24–48 hours
      5. In surgical patients, if malnourished with unsafe swallow or a non-functional GI tract or perforation, consider perioperative parenteral feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 25 year old lady visits her regular doctor to have a skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old lady visits her regular doctor to have a skin lesion excised from her thigh. At her 3 month follow-up appointment, the doctor notes that the scar is contracting. Which of the following allows this process to happen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myofibroblasts

      Explanation:

      Answer: Myofibroblasts

      Fibroblasts are a type of cell which have mesenchymal origin and can exhibit either non-contractile or highly contractile phenotype. Under normal conditions, fibroblasts function to maintain tissue homeostasis by regulating the turnover of extracellular matrix (ECM). When tissues are injured, however, fibroblasts around the injured region differentiate into myofibroblasts, a type of highly contractile cells that produce abundant ECM proteins. While the mechanisms of wound healing are not completely understood, it has become clear that both fibroblasts and myofibroblasts play a critical role in the wound healing process. Specifically, the traction forces of fibroblasts and coordinated contraction of myofibroblasts are believed to be responsible for wound contraction and closure. However, excessive myofibroblast activity, accompanied by elevated levels of mechanical stress in the healing region, often causes scar tissue formation, and in the worst case, contracture of tissues (e.g. Dupuytren’s contracture), leading to local immobilization and loss of function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 33 year old woman, with invasive ductal carcinoma, presents with a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old woman, with invasive ductal carcinoma, presents with a lesion suspicious for metastatic disease in the left lobe of her liver. Past history includes wide local excision and axillary node clearance (5 nodes present) of the tumour. It is oestrogen receptor negative and HER 2 positive with vascular invasion. Which of the following agents will be the most beneficial in this setting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trastuzumab

      Explanation:

      The treatment approach primarily depends on the histopathologic classification and the disease stage and involves a combination of surgical management, radiation therapy, and systemic therapy. Surgical management is either breast-conserving therapy (BCT) or mastectomy. Systemic therapy has significantly improved in recent years with the development of hormone therapy (tamoxifen) and targeted therapy (trastuzumab). The most important prognostic factors are lymph node status, tumour size, patient’s age, and tumour receptor status (hormone receptors and HER2).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 34 year old man is suffering from septic shock and receives an...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old man is suffering from septic shock and receives an infusion of Dextran 70. Which of the following complications may potentially ensue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaphylaxis

      Explanation:

      Dextran 40 and 70 have a higher rate of causing anaphylaxis than either gelatins or starches.

      Dextrans are branched polysaccharide molecules, with dextran 40 and 70 available. The high-molecular-weight dextran 70 may persist for up to eight hours. They inhibit platelet aggregation and leucocyte plugging in the microcirculation, thereby, improving flow through the microcirculation. They are primarily used in sepsis.
      Unlike many other intravenous fluids, dextrans are a recognised cause of anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 54 year old man undergoes Milligan Morgan haemorrhoidectomy. He had no associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old man undergoes Milligan Morgan haemorrhoidectomy. He had no associated co-morbidities. Which of the following would be the best option for immediate post operative analgesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caudal block

      Explanation:

      Open haemorrhoidectomy is traditionally viewed as a painful procedure. Most operations are performed under general or regional anaesthesia. Following excisional haemorrhoidectomy, severe pain is not unusual, a well placed caudal anaesthetic will counter this. A pudendal nerve block is an alternative but is less effective than a caudal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old female presents with a long history of obstructed defecation and chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents with a long history of obstructed defecation and chronic constipation. She often strains to open her bowels for long periods and occasionally notices that she has passed a small amount of blood. On examination, she has an indurated area located anteriorly approximately 3cm proximal to the anal verge. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Solitary rectal ulcer syndrome

      Explanation:

      Solitary rectal ulcer syndrome is a rare disorder that involves straining during defecation, a sense of incomplete evacuation, and sometimes passage of blood and mucus by rectum.
      The syndrome is poorly named because associated lesions may be solitary or multiple and ulcerated or nonulcerated; they range from mucosal erythema to ulcers to small mass lesions.
      Lesions are typically located in the anterior rectal wall within 10 cm of the anal verge.
      It is probably caused by localized ischemic injury or prolapse of the distal rectal mucosa. Diagnosis is clinical with confirmation by flexible sigmoidoscopy and biopsy. Treatment is a bowel regimen for mild cases, but surgery is sometimes needed if rectal prolapse is the cause.

      The cardinal symptom of Fissure in ano is pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 33 year old firefighter is recovering from an appendicectomy where the operation...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old firefighter is recovering from an appendicectomy where the operation was complicated by the presence of perforation. On observation, he is seen to be vomiting and his urine output is decreasing. Which intravenous fluid should be initially administered, pending analysis of his urea and electrolyte levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hartmann's solution

      Explanation:

      Compound Sodium Lactate (Hartmann’s) is used:
      • for intravenous fluid and electrolyte replacement
      • as a source of bicarbonate in the treatment of mild to moderate metabolic acidosis associated with dehydration or associated with potassium deficiency
      • as a vehicle for intravenous drug delivery, if the drugs are compatible with the solutions

      The total amount of electrolytes per litre are: sodium 131 mmol, potassium 5mmol, chloride 112 mmol, calcium 2mmol, bicarbonate (as lactate) 28 mmol.
      The osmolality is approximately 255 mOsm/kg water. The solutions are isotonic, sterile, non-pyrogenic and do not contain antimicrobial agent or added buffers. The pH range is 5.0 to 7.0. Compound Sodium Lactate

      Ringer’s lactate solution (RL), also known as sodium lactate solution and Hartmann’s solution, is a mixture of sodium chloride, sodium lactate, potassium chloride, and calcium chloride in water. It is used for replacing fluids and electrolytes in those who have low blood volume or low blood pressure.

      Hartmann’s solution is often preferred over normal saline as it contains both fluids and electrolytes. The solution is also associated with fewer adverse effects and it can be administered to both adults and children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 6 year old boy previously diagnosed with a rare genetic disorder requires...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy previously diagnosed with a rare genetic disorder requires long term drug therapy for his condition. The drug needs to be administered intravenously. Lately, the child has been pulling at the current system of Hickman line and the parents are requesting an alternate. Which of the following would be the best alternative method?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Portacath device

      Explanation:

      Portacaths are usually inserted when there is a need for long term access to a vein. This might be to provide medication, special intravenous feeding, fluids, blood and blood product transfusion and blood tests. Broviacs would pose the same core problems as a Hickman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
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  • Question 17 - A 44 year old woman suffers 20% partial and full thickness burns in...

    Incorrect

    • A 44 year old woman suffers 20% partial and full thickness burns in a garage fire. There is also an associated inhalational injury. Her doctors have decided to administer intravenous fluids to replace fluid loss. Which of the following intravenous fluids should be used for initial resuscitation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hartmann's solution

      Explanation:

      The goal of fluid management in major burn injuries is to maintain the tissue perfusion in the early phase of burn shock, in which hypovolemia finally occurs due to steady fluid extravasation from the intravascular compartment.

      Burn injuries of less than 20% are associated with minimal fluid shifts and can generally be resuscitated with oral hydration, except in cases of facial, hand and genital burns, as well as burns in children and the elderly. As the total body surface area (TBSA) involved in the burn approaches 15–20%, the systemic inflammatory response syndrome is initiated and massive fluid shifts, which result in burn oedema and burn shock, can be expected.

      The ideal burn resuscitation is the one that effectively restores plasma volume, with no adverse effects. Isotonic crystalloids, hypertonic solutions and colloids have been used for this purpose, but every solution has its advantages and disadvantages. None of them is ideal, and none is superior to any of the others.
      Crystalloids are readily available and cheaper than some of the other alternatives. RL solution, Hartmann solution (a solution similar to RL solution) and normal saline are commonly used. There are some adverse effects of the crystalloids: high volume administration of normal saline produces hyperchloremic acidosis, RL increases the neutrophil activation after resuscitation for haemorrhage or after infusion without haemorrhage. d-lactate in RL solution containing a racemic mixture of the d-lactate and l-lactate isomers has been found to be responsible for increased production of ROS. RL used in the majority of hospitals contains this mixture. Another adverse effect that has been demonstrated is that crystalloids have a substantial influence on coagulation. Recent studies have demonstrated that in vivo dilution with crystalloids (independent of the type of the crystalloid) resulted in a hypercoagulable state.
      Despite these adverse effects, the most commonly used fluid for burn resuscitation in the UK and Ireland is Hartmann’s solution (adult units 76%, paediatric units 75%). Another study has revealed that RL is the most popular type of fluid in burn units located in USA and Canada.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
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  • Question 18 - A 54 year old man, underwent an Ivor Lewis esophagectomy for oesophageal carcinoma....

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old man, underwent an Ivor Lewis esophagectomy for oesophageal carcinoma. How should he be fed post operatively?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgically inserted jejunostomy feeding tube

      Explanation:

      Jejunostomy feeding (enteral feeding) is now the standard of care in most feeding protocols after esophagectomy. The feeding regimen consists of a gradually increasing volume of feeds in the first five to seven days. Patients should resume oral intake as soon as possible after surgery. In hospital, all forms of enteral access appear to be safe. Out of hospital, the ability to provide home feeding by feeding jejunostomy is likely where meaningful nutritional improvements can be made. Improving nutrition and related quality of life in the early months might improve the long-term outcome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
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  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old man sustains a Holstein-Lewis fracture of the left arm. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man sustains a Holstein-Lewis fracture of the left arm. Which of the following nerves is at risk of damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      Holstein-Lewis fracture is a fracture of the distal third of the humerus resulting in entrapment of the radial nerve. The radial nerve is one of the major peripheral nerves of the upper limb. It innervates all the muscles in the extensor compartments of the arm.

      Conservative treatment for this fracture includes reduction and use of a functional brace. However, vascular injury may require open surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      0
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  • Question 20 - A 20-year-old woman presents with a posteriorly-sited anal fissure. Treatment with stool softeners...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with a posteriorly-sited anal fissure. Treatment with stool softeners and topical GTN have failed to improve the condition.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Injection of botulinum toxin

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate management option to consider, after GTN or other topical nitrates have failed, is botulinum toxin injection. In males, a lateral internal sphincterotomy would be an acceptable alternative. In a female who has yet to conceive, this may predispose to an increased risk of sphincter dysfunction. Moreover, division of the external sphincter would result in faecal incontinence and is not a justified treatment for anal fissure.

      Anal fissures are a common cause of painful, bright red rectal bleeding. Most fissures are idiopathic and present as a painful mucocutaneous defect in the posterior midline (90% cases). Fissures are more likely to be anteriorly located in females, particularly if they are multiparous. Diseases associated with fissure-in-ano include:
      1. Crohn’s disease
      2. Tuberculosis
      3. Internal rectal prolapse

      Diagnostic options are as follows:
      In most cases, the defect can be visualised as a posterior midline epithelial defect. Where symptoms are highly suggestive of the condition and examination findings are unclear, an examination under anaesthesia may be helpful. Atypical disease presentation should be investigated by colonoscopy and EUA, with biopsies of the area.

      For management of anal fissure:
      1. Stool softeners are important as hard stools may tear the epithelium and result in recurrent symptoms. The most effective first-line agents are topically applied GTN (0.2%) or Diltiazem (2%) paste.
      2. Resistant cases may benefit from injection of botulinum toxin or lateral internal sphincterotomy. Advancement flaps may be used to treat resistant cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
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  • Question 21 - A 34 year old athlete presents to the clinic after receiving a hard...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old athlete presents to the clinic after receiving a hard blow to his palm that has resulted into a painful swelling over the volar aspect of his hand. On examination, pain is felt on wrist movement and longitudinal compression of the thumb. Which of the following is the most likely injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scaphoid fracture

      Explanation:

      The scaphoid bone is the most commonly fractured carpal bone. Fractures are most often localized in the middle third of the scaphoid bone.
      Generally, scaphoid bone fractures result from indirect trauma when an individual falls onto the outstretched hand with a hyperextended and radially deviated wrist. Pain when applying pressure to the anatomical snuffbox is highly suggestive of a scaphoid bone fracture.
      X-ray is the initial test of choice for diagnosis. Computer tomography and magnetic resonance imaging may be indicated, if x-ray findings are negative but clinical suspicion is high.
      Treatment can be conservative (e.g., wrist immobilization) or in certain cases surgical (e.g., proximal pole fracture). Complications include non-union and avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      0
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  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old male falls onto an outstretched hand. On examination, there is tenderness...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male falls onto an outstretched hand. On examination, there is tenderness of the anatomical snuffbox. However, forearm and hand x-rays are normal. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Place in futura splint and review in fracture clinic

      Explanation:

      The hallmark of anatomical snuffbox tenderness is highly sensitive for scaphoid fractures but lacks specificity. Due to the lack of specificity, those with snuffbox tenderness should undergo radiographic studies of the wrist. Those with initial negative imaging can be managed with either a thumb spica short-armed splint or advanced imaging by MRI or CT to determine if a fracture exists. Given the unique blood flow to the scaphoid, fracture location is important in determining treatment options to prevent avascular necrosis of the bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      0
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  • Question 23 - A 29 year old female bus driver presents to her family doctor with...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old female bus driver presents to her family doctor with severe retrosternal chest pain and recurrent episodes of dysphagia. She states that these occur at irregular intervals and often resolve spontaneously. There are no physical abnormalities on examination and she seems well. What is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Answer: Achalasia

      Achalasia is a primary oesophageal motility disorder characterized by the absence of oesophageal peristalsis and impaired relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) in response to swallowing. The LES is hypertensive in about 50% of patients. These abnormalities cause a functional obstruction at the gastroesophageal junction (GEJ).
      Symptoms of achalasia include the following:

      Dysphagia (most common)

      Regurgitation

      Chest pain (behind the sternum)

      Heartburn

      Weight loss

      Physical examination is non-contributory.

      Treatment recommendations are as follows:

      Initial therapy should be either graded pneumatic dilation (PD) or laparoscopic surgical myotomy with a partial fundoplication in patients fit to undergo surgery

      Procedures should be performed in high-volume centres of excellence

      Initial therapy choice should be based on patient age, sex, preference, and local institutional expertise

      Botulinum toxin therapy is recommended for patients not suited to PD or surgery

      Pharmacologic therapy can be used for patients not undergoing PD or myotomy and who have failed botulinum toxin therapy (nitrates and calcium channel blockers most common).

      The invasion of the oesophageal neural plexus by the tumour can cause nonrelaxation of the LES, thus mimicking achalasia. This condition is known as malignant pseudo achalasia. Since contrast radiography and endoscopy frequently fail to differentiate these 2 entities, patients with a presumed diagnosis of achalasia but who have a shorter duration of symptoms, greater weight loss, and a more advanced age and who are referred for minimally invasive surgery should undergo additional imaging studies, including endoscopic ultrasound and computed tomography with fine cuts of the gastroesophageal junction, to rule out cancer.

      Effort rupture of the oesophagus, or Boerhaave syndrome, is a spontaneous perforation of the oesophagus that results from a sudden increase in intraoesophageally pressure combined with negative intrathoracic pressure (e.g., severe straining or vomiting). The classic clinical presentation of Boerhaave syndrome usually consists of repeated episodes of retching and vomiting, typically in a middle-aged man with recent excessive dietary and alcohol intake.

      These repeated episodes of retching and vomiting are followed by a sudden onset of severe chest pain in the lower thorax and the upper abdomen. The pain may radiate to the back or to the left shoulder. Swallowing often aggravates the pain.

      Typically, hematemesis is not seen after oesophageal rupture, which helps to distinguish it from the more common Mallory-Weiss tear.

      Swallowing may precipitate coughing because of the communication between the oesophagus and the pleural cavity. Shortness of breath is a common complaint and is due to pleuritic pain or pleural effusion.

      A pulmonary embolism is a blood clot that occurs in the lungs.

      It can damage part of the lung due to restricted blood flow, decrease oxygen levels in the blood, and affect other organs as well. Large or multiple blood clots can be fatal.
      The most common symptom of a pulmonary embolism is shortness of breath. This may be gradual or sudden.

      Other symptoms of a pulmonary embolism include:
      anxiety
      clammy or bluish skin
      chest pain that may extend into your arm, jaw, neck, and shoulder
      fainting
      irregular heartbeat
      light-headedness
      rapid breathing
      rapid heartbeat
      restlessness
      spitting up blood
      weak pulse

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old male pedestrian is brought to the A&E department after being hit...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male pedestrian is brought to the A&E department after being hit by a car. On examination, he is found to be dyspnoeic and hypoxic despite administration of high flow oxygen therapy. Moreover, his pulse is 115bpm and blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg. The right side of his chest is hyper-resonant on percussion and has decreased breath sounds. His trachea is deviated to the left.

      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed a tension pneumothorax following a blunt trauma.

      Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition that develops when air is trapped in the pleural cavity under positive pressure, displacing mediastinal structures and compromising cardiopulmonary function. Blunt or penetrating chest trauma that creates a flap-type defect on the surface of the lung can result in this life-threatening condition.

      Signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax include:
      1. Chest pain that usually has a sudden onset, is sharp, and may lead to feeling of tightness in the chest
      2. Dyspnoea and progressive hypoxia
      3. Tachycardia
      4. Hyperventilation
      5. Cough
      6. Fatigue

      On examination, hyper-resonant percussion note and tracheal deviation are typically found. Treatment is immediate without waiting for the CXR result and includes needle decompression and chest tube insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 25 - A 41 year old woman presents with discomfort in her left breast....

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old woman presents with discomfort in her left breast. On examination, she has a discrete, soft, fluctuant area in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast. A halo sign is observed on the mammogram. What is the most likely explanation for this process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast cyst

      Explanation:

      A breast cyst is a fluid-filled sac within the breast. They are often described as round or oval lumps with distinct edges. In texture, a breast cyst usually feels like a soft grape or a water-filled balloon, but can also feel firm.

      Breast cysts can be painful and may be worrisome but are generally benign. They are most common in pre-menopausal women in their 30s or 40s. They usually disappear after menopause, but may persist or reappear when using hormone therapy. They are also common in adolescents. Breast cysts can be part of fibrocystic disease. The pain and swelling is usually worse in the second half of the menstrual cycle or during pregnancy.

      The halo sign, described as a complete or partial radiolucent ring surrounding the periphery of a breast mass, has long been considered a mammographic sign indicating a benign process. The phenomenon is most frequently seen with cysts and fibroadenomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
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  • Question 26 - A 29-year-old woman is brought to the A&E department with chest pain after...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman is brought to the A&E department with chest pain after being involved in a road traffic accident. Clinical examination is essentially unremarkable and she is discharged. However, she is subsequently found dead at home.

      What could have been the most likely underlying injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Traumatic aortic disruption

      Explanation:

      Aortic injuries not resulting in immediate death may be due to a contained haematoma. Clinical signs are subtle, and diagnosis may not be apparent on clinical examination. Without prompt treatment, the haematoma usually bursts and the patient dies.

      Traumatic aortic disruption, or aortic transection, is typically the result of a blunt aortic injury in the context of rapid deceleration. This condition is commonly fatal as blood in the aorta is under great pressure and can quickly escape the vessel through a tear, resulting in rapid haemorrhagic shock and death. A temporary haematoma may prevent the immediate death. Injury to the aorta during a sudden deceleration commonly originates near the terminal section of the aortic arch, also known as the isthmus. This portion lies just distal to the take-off of the left subclavian artery at the intersection of the mobile and fixed portions of the aorta. As many as 80% of the patients with aortic transection die at the scene before reaching a trauma centre for treatment.

      A widened mediastinum may be seen on the X-ray of a person with aortic rupture. Other findings on CXR may include:
      1. Deviation of trachea/oesophagus to the right
      2. Depression of left main stem bronchus
      3. Widened paratracheal stripe/paraspinal interfaces
      4. Obliteration of space between aorta and pulmonary artery
      5. Rib fracture/left haemothorax

      Diagnosis can be made by angiography, usually CT aortogram.

      Treatment options include repair or replacement. The patient should, ideally, undergo endovascular repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 27 - A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years

      Explanation:

      Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years.

      Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common adenomatous polyposis syndrome. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the early onset of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps throughout the colon. If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. In addition, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.
      Most patients with FAP are asymptomatic until they develop cancer. As a result, diagnosing presymptomatic patients is essential.

      Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.

      Nonspecific symptoms, such as unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia), diarrhoea, or abdominal pain, in young patients may be suggestive of FAP.

      In a minority of FAP families a mutation cannot be identified and so annual flexible sigmoidoscopy should be offered to at risk family members from age 13–15 years until age 30, and at three to five year intervals thereafter until age 60 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
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  • Question 28 - A 43 year old female with thyrotoxicosis is referred to the endocrinology clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old female with thyrotoxicosis is referred to the endocrinology clinic because she was poorly controlled on carbimazole and has received orbital radiotherapy for severe proptosis. She had improved clinically but she relapsed on stopping her carbimazole. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Total thyroidectomy

      Explanation:

      Due to this patient having a relapse after using carbimazole following orbital radiotherapy for severe proptosis., total thyroidectomy is the treatment of choice.
      Thyroidectomy is the definitive surgical management for Graves thyrotoxicosis and usually requires a short course of pre-treatment with thionamides or inorganic iodine to achieve euthyroid state; this reduces operative complications and thyroid vascularity. Although subtotal thyroidectomy was once practiced, most surgeons now recommend complete thyroidectomy to minimize chances of relapse.

      Radioactive iodine (I-131) is widely used to treat the thyrotoxicosis of Graves’ disease, but, despite its demonstrable efficacy and safety, there have long been concerns about its possible adverse effect on thyroid eye disease. A study showed that after radioiodine treatment 15% of patients developed new or worsened ophthalmopathy, whereas this occurred in only 3% of patients treated with methimazole and in none treated with radioiodine plus prednisone. In the radioiodine group 24% of those with pre-existing ophthalmopathy suffered an exacerbation, whereas only 8% of patients without eye disease at baseline developed it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
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  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a swelling over his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a swelling over his left elbow after a fall on an outstretched hand. On examination, he has tenderness over the proximal part of his forearm and has severely restricted supination and pronation movements. What is the most likely injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fracture of the radial head

      Explanation:

      The patient has an injury due to falling on outstretched hands (FOOSH). Putting his clinical picture into consideration, he is most likely to have a fracture of the radial head.
      Radial head fractures often occur with FOOSH injuries. Patients will complain of wrist pain, as well as elbow pain, and be hesitant to perform a range of motion. However, pain with supination and pronation at the elbow is imperative for diagnosis. Palpation at the lateral aspect of the elbow will elicit pain; you also may feel crepitus at the radial head with supination pronation. X-rays should be ordered, with a minimum of two views (AP and lateral). Radial head fractures can be difficult to recognize on x-ray. Assess for a sail sign or effusion on the image. A positive fat pad sign aids in diagnosis, as well. If the image is inconclusive, but the exam is consistent, treat until proven otherwise.
      Management should include intensive patient education. Compression wrapping for comfort and stability may be used along with a sling. Please note, early light motion is imperative for these patients, as elbow contracture and stiffness are very common after injury, possibly leading to long-term complications. These patients need to be seen by an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible to begin management. Be aware that if displacement or step-off of the radial head is present, this may require surgical intervention, and motion could worsen alignment if not managed meticulously.
      Other INJURIES TO THE UPPER EXTREMITY DUE TO (FOOSH):
      Radial Styloid Fracture
      Distal Radius Fracture
      Scaphoid Fracture
      Scapholunate Tear
      Distal Radioulnar Joint
      Cellulitis
      Synovitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 30 - A 33-year-old man with a 4cm lipoma on his flank is due for...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man with a 4cm lipoma on his flank is due for its surgical removal, as a day case. He is, otherwise, completely asymptomatic.

      According to the above description, what is his physical status according to the ASA classification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      Absence of comorbidities and a small procedure with no likelihood of systemic compromise will equate to an ASA score of 1.

      The ASA physical status classification system is a system for assessing the fitness of patients before surgery. It has six grades, as described below:

      ASA 1: No physiological, biochemical, or psychiatric disturbance. The surgical pathology is localised and has not invoked systemic disturbance.

      ASA 2: Mild or moderate systemic disruption caused either by the surgical disease process or through an underlying pre-existing disease.

      ASA 3: Severe systemic disruption, not life-threatening, caused either by the surgical pathology or a pre-existing disease.

      ASA 4: Patient has severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.

      ASA 5: Patient is moribund and will not survive without surgery.

      ASA 6: A brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed with the intention of transplanting them into another patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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