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Question 1
Incorrect
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A patient has had limited response to conservative measures for her overactive bladder (OAB). Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological choice?
Your Answer: Propantheline
Correct Answer: Darifenacin
Explanation:Detrusor overactivity can be treated with anti-cholinergic agents such as oxybutynin or tolterodine, solifenacin, fesoterodine and darifenacin. They are used as first line agents. Imipramine is used for enuresis and desmopressin is used for nocturia.
NICE pathwayPrior to initiating anticholinergics:
Bladder training
Consider treating vaginal atrophy and nocturia with topical oestrogen and desmopressin respectively before commencing treatments below.
Consider catheterisation if chronic retention
1st line treatments:
1. Oxybutynin (immediate release) – Do not offer to frail elderly patients
2. Tolterodine (immediate release)
3. Darifenacin (once daily preparation)
DO NOT offer any of the 3 drugs below:
1. Flavoxate
2. Propantheline
3. Imipramine
2nd line treatment
Consider transdermal anticholinergic (antimuscarinic)
Mirabegron
Adjuvant Treatments
Desmopressin can be considered for those with nocturia
Duloxetine may be considered for those who don’t want/unsuitable for surgical treatment
Intravaginal oestrogen can be offered to postmenopausal women with OAB -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension, was admitted to the labour ward. She is at 36 weeks of pregnancy and is keen to have her baby delivered via caesarean section.
Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give to the patient given her situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Caesarean section
Explanation:Pulmonary hypertension (PH) is an increase of blood pressure in the pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, or pulmonary capillaries, leading to shortness of breath, dizziness, fainting, and other symptoms, all of which are exacerbated by exertion. PH in pregnancy carries a 25–56% maternal mortality rate with a mixture of intrapartum and postpartum deaths.
Current recommendations for management of PH in pregnancy include termination of pregnancy if diagnosed early, or utilizing a controlled interventional approach with early nebulized prostanoid therapy and early elective caesarean section under regional anaesthesia. Other recommended therapies for peripartum management of PH include sildenafil and nitric oxide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Maternal mortality rate is lowest in which age group?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20 - 30
Explanation:The maternal mortality rate starts low and raises steeply after the age of 30 years. The lowest mortality rate recorded among women is between 19-30 years of age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25 year old pregnant woman presents with constant abdominal pain, which has been present for the last few hours. Before the pain started she admits experiencing vaginal blood loss. She's a primigravida in her 30th week of gestation. Upon abdominal examination the uterus seems irritable. CTG is, however, reactive. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antepartum haemorrhage
Explanation:Antepartum haemorrhage presents with bleeding, which may or may not be accompanied by pain. Uterine irritability would suggest abruptio, however contractions are present which may be confused with uterine irritability and in this case, there are no signs of pre-eclampsia present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which ONE among the following factors does not increase the risk for developing postpartum endometritis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advanced maternal age
Explanation:The most common clinical findings in a postpartum women with endometritis are postpartum fever, with tachycardia relative to the rise in temperature, midline lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness from the 2nd to 10th day of postpartum.
Most common risk factors for the development of postpartum endometritis are:
– Cesarean deliveries are considered as the most important risk factor for postpartum endometritis, especially those performed after the onset of labour.
– Young maternal age.
– Multiple digital cervical examinations.
– Prolonged rupture of membranes.
– Retention of placental products.
– Prolonged labour.
– Chorioamnionitis.
Advanced maternal age is not considered as a risk factor for development of postpartum endometritis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit. Upon history-taking, it was noted that this was her first pregnancy and based on her last menstrual period, she is pregnant for 11 weeks already. There was also no mention of a history of medical problems.
Upon further observation, the uterus was palpable midway between her pubic symphysis and the umbilicus. There was also no audible fetal heart tones using the Doppler stethoscope.
Which of the following is considered the best management as the next step given the case above?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schedule an ultrasound as soon as possible to determine the gestational age and viability of the foetus.
Explanation:In pregnancy, the uterus increases in size to accommodate the developing foetus. At 16 weeks gestation, the fundus of the uterus must be palpated at the midpoint between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis but the patient’s uterus was already palpable at just 11 weeks.
If less than seven weeks pregnant, it’s unlikely to find a heartbeat by ultrasound. Using transvaginal ultrasound, a developing baby’s heartbeat should be clearly visible by the time a woman is seven weeks pregnant. Abdominal ultrasound is considerably less sensitive, so it can take longer for the heartbeat to become visible. If past seven weeks pregnant, seeing no heartbeat may be a sign of miscarriage.
Fetal viability is confirmed by the presence of an embryo that has cardiac activity. Cardiac activity is often present when the embryo itself measures 2 mm or greater during the 6th week of gestation. If cardiac activity is not evident, other sonographic features of early pregnancy can predict viability.
It is recommended that all pregnant women undergo a routine ultrasound at 10 to 13 weeks of gestation to determine an accurate gestational age. Getting an accurate gestational age is highly important and pertinent for the optimal assessment of fetal growth later in pregnancy. Ultrasound is the most reliable method for establishing a true gestational age by measurement of crown-rump length, which can be measured either transabdominally or transvaginally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the typical weight of a term uterus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1200g
Explanation:Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium. Weight of the uterus increases from 50–60 g prior to pregnancy to 1000 g by term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for a routine prenatal visit and anatomy ultrasound. Patient feels well generally and has no concerns, also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only daily medication is a prenatal vitamin. She is accompanied by her mother as her husband was unable to get off work.
Ultrasound shows a cephalic singleton fetus measuring at <10th percentile consistent with severe growth restriction.There are bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect. Amniotic fluid level is normal with a posterior and fundal placenta.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate initial response by the physician?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There are some things about your ultrasound that I need to discuss with you; is it okay to do that now?
Explanation:SPIKES protocol for delivering serious news to patients includes:
– Set the stage includes arranging for a private, comfortable setting space, introduce patient/family & team members, maintain eye contact & sit at the same level and schedule appropriate time interval & minimize space for interruptions.
– Perception: Use open-ended questions to assess the patient’s/family’s perception of the medical situation.
– Invitation: should ask patient/family how much information they would like to know and remain cognizant of their cultural, educational & religious issues.
– Knowledge:
Warn the patient/family that serious news is coming, Speak in simple & straightforward terms, stop & check whether they are understanding.
– Empathy: Express understanding & give support when responding to emotions
– Summary & strategy: Summarize & create follow-through plan, including end-of-life discussions if applicable.The ultrasound findings of severe growth restriction, bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect are consistent with trisomy 18, the second most common autosomal trisomy, which results in fetal loss or neonatal death in the majority of cases. In this case, the physician is to deliver a very serious news to the patient who is presenting for a routine visit, believing her pregnancy was normal. When serious news is unexpected, it is especially important to prepare the patient and determine how the patient would like to receive the results.
The physician is supposed to provide a comfortable setting and must ask patient’s permission to share the results. This allows the patient to respond with her preference and avoids making assumptions about whom, if anyone, she would like to be present with. For example, some patients may prefer to defer discussion of the results until a major support person (eg, husband, mother) is present. In addition to establish patient’s preferred setting, physician should determine how much information the patient would like to receive. Some patients will prefer a detailed medical information about diagnosis and prognosis, whereas others may prefer to have time to process the news emotionally and receive further information later. The SPIKES protocol (Setting the stage, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Empathy, and Summary/strategy) is a six-step model that can guide physicians in delivering serious news to patients.These statements do not allow the patient to choose how she receives the results and assume that she does not want her mother present.
This statement fails to prepare the patient for serious news and prematurely jumps to sharing results using technical, medical terminology that may be difficult for the patient to comprehend. This approach could also be upsetting to a patient undergoing a routine ultrasound who is not expecting anything abnormal.
This statement inappropriately determines when and with whom the patient should receive the results. Instead the patient should be asked how she prefers to receive the results.
While delivering unexpected, serious news, physicians should prepare the patient and determine how the patient prefers to receive the information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most common aetiology listed is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Molding
Explanation:With the help of molding, the fetal head changes its shape as the skull bones overlap. This helps in smooth delivery of the foetus through the birth canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 10 weeks of gestation comes to your office for an initial prenatal visit. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping and her first pregnancy was uncomplicated which ended with a spontaneous term vaginal delivery.She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. Patient takes a daily dose of prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or any other illicit drugs.
On examination her blood pressure is 122/80 mm of Hg and pulse is 70/min and BMI is 24 kg/m2. The uterine fundus is palpated above the pubic symphysis.
Pelvic ultrasound shows 2 viable intrauterine gestations, a single fundal placenta, and a thin intertwin membrane that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle.
Among the below mentioned complications, this patient is at highest risk for which one to occur?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Twin-twin transfusion syndrome
Explanation:Twin gestations are generally at increased risk of complications and this risk is further stratified based on the chorionicity ie. number of placentas and amnionicity, the number of amniotic sacs of the gestation. In the given case patient has monochorionic diamniotic twins, which means 1 placenta and 2 amniotic sacs, based on the presence of 2 embryos, a single placenta and a thin intertwin membrane composed of 2 amniotic sacs that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle (“T sign”). In patients who appear to have a single placenta, the base shape of the intertwin membrane distinguishes between a monochorionic (“T sign”) and fused dichorionic (“lambda sign”) gestation.
Monochorionic twins are at high risk for twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS), which is a complication that can result in heart failure and fetal
eonatal mortality in both twins. In TTTS, unbalanced arteriovenous anastomoses are present between the shared placental vessels that supply the twins, because of these anastomoses, blood from the placental arteries from one twin (donor), which is of high resistance/pressure, is shunted into the placental veins of the other twin (recipient) with low resistance/pressure. This shunting of blood away from the donor twin causes anemia that leads to renal failure, oligohydramnios, low-output heart failure, and fetal growth restriction. In contrast, the shunting of blood toward the recipient twin causes polycythemia, which leads to polyhydramnios, cardiomegaly, high-output heart failure and hydrops fetalis. This in turn makes both twins at high risk for intrauterine and neonatal death.
Mild TTTS is expectantly managed with serial ultrasounds to evaluate for worsening clinical features, whereas moderate-to-severe cases are treated with laser coagulation of the placental anastomoses.In monozygotic twins, placentation type is determined by timing of the twinning. Twinning that occurs shortly after fertilization yields a dichorionic diamniotic gestation. In contrast, the incomplete division (ie, fission) that can lead to conjoined twins occurs later in development and yields a monochorionic monoamniotic gestation. As the twins are in the same sac, monochorionic monoamniotic gestations can be complicated by cord entanglement but not possible in the given case as this patient has diamniotic twins.
Risk factors for placenta accreta, implantation of the placenta directly into the myometrium, include placenta previa and prior uterine surgeries like cesarean delivery, myomectomy, etc
Twin pregnancies are at increased risk of placenta previa (placental tissue that covers the internal cervical os); however, this patient has a fundal placenta, making this complication unlikely.
Monochorionic twin gestations can be complicated by twin-twin transfusion syndrome, which is potentially a fatal condition that results from unbalanced vascular anastomoses between the vessels supplying umbilical cords of each twin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hegar's sign
Explanation:Hegar’s sign: softening of womb (uterus) due to its increased blood supply, perceptible on gentle finger pressure on the neck (cervix). This is one of the confirmatory signs of pregnancy and is usually obvious by the 16th week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are asked to see a 26 year old patient following her first visit to antenatal clinic. She is 9 weeks pregnant and bloods have shown her to be non-immune to Rubella. She is concerned about congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). What is the most appropriate advice to give?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise vaccination after birth regardless of breast feeding status
Explanation:Congenital rubella infection that occurs after 16 weeks gestation does not typically cause fetal abnormalities. This however plays no part in vaccination advice. Rubella vaccine is live and should not be given during pregnancy. The mother should be offered vaccination after giving birth. It is safe for the vaccine (typically given as combined MMR) to be administered if the mother is breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been ongoing for twelve months. She states that she has been thinking about starting a family and was wondering if ovulation induction therapy was an option for her.
Which one of the following would be most valuable in predicting a poor response to ovulation induction therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
Explanation:The tests listed can all be performed during the work-up of a woman with secondary amenorrhoea. They are useful in that they cam diagnosis the most likely cause for the amenorrhoea as well as guide the treatment required if the patient wanted to become pregnant. Of these, the hormone test best able to predict a poor response to ovulation-induction therapy is the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) assay. If there are high levels of FSH, most of the ovulation-induction therapies are ineffective, although the rare spontaneous pregnancy can occur.
To maximise the chance of pregnancy in patients with elevated FSH levels, the most effective technique is an ovum donation from a young woman. The ovum would be fertilised in the laboratory and transferred to the uterus of the woman with the high FSH level after administering hormonal preparation of her uterus.
If the FSH level is normal, ovulation-induction therapy is usually effective. For these patients, correction of thyroid function will be necessary if the thyroid function is not normal. Dopamine agonist therapy is indicated if the prolactin level is elevated. Clomiphene or gonadotrophin therapy can be used where the luteinising and oestradiol levels are low, normal, or minimally elevated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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In the earliest phase of wound healing platelets are held together by what?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibrin
Explanation:The 1st stage of wound healing is haemostasis. Even in incised wounds a small haematoma forms. Here the clotting cascade is activated by tissue factor and endothelial cells resulting in activation of platelets. This results in platelet aggregation and the laying down of a fibrin mesh that is cross linked and holds the platelets in place.
Wound healing is typically divided into phases:
1. Haemostasis Phase
2. Inflammatory phase
3. Proliferation phase
4. Remodelling phase -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25 year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised pruritis during the 3rd trimester of her pregnancy. She was diagnosed as a case of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Which one of the following factors carries the greatest risk to the foetus in this disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perinatal mortality
Explanation:Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy can affect both mother and foetus, however it is more harmful for the foetus. Amongst foetuses, there is an increased risk of perinatal mortality, meconium aspiration, premature delivery and post partum haemorrhage. Exact cause of fetal death cannot be predicted accurately but it is not related to intra uterine growth retardation or placental insufficiency. The liver can be affected in the mother leading to generalized pruritis but no evidence of fetal hepatic dysfunction has been found.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Warfarin embryopathy is typically the result of the mother taking warfarin during which stage of pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6-12 weeks
Explanation:Warfarin is teratogenic if it is used in the first trimester. It causes bone defects and haemorrhages in the developing foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following factors as shown to decrease ovarian cancer risk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Taking statins
Explanation:Factors shown to decrease risk of ovarian cancer are:
– Oral contraceptive use
– Higher Parity
– Breast feeding
– Hysterectomy
– Tubal Ligation
– Statins
– SLE -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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All of the following organs are involved in oestrogen production except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior pituitary
Explanation:Oestrogen can be produced by variety of organs including the corpus leuteum, placenta, adrenal glands and testes. However it is not produced by the anterior pituitary. The anterior pituitary produces LH and FSH which in turn causes oestrogen secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Branches V2 and V3 of the Trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1st
Explanation:1st Arch = Trigeminal V2 & V3 (CN V) 2nd Arch = Facial (CN VII) 3rd Arch = Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) 4th and 6th Arches = Vagus (CN X)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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