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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old professional footballer is admitted to the emergency department. During a tackle, his leg is twisted with his knee flexed. He hears a loud crack and his knee rapidly becomes swollen. Which of the following is the main site of injury?
Your Answer: Medial collateral ligament
Correct Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation:Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injuries are most often a result of low-velocity, noncontact, deceleration injuries and contact injuries with a rotational component. Contact sports also may produce injury to the ACL secondary to twisting, valgus stress, or hyperextension all directly related to contact or collision.
Symptoms of an acute ACL injury may include the following:
– Feeling or hearing a “pop” sound in the knee
– Pain and inability to continue the activity
– Swelling and instability of the knee
– Development of a large hemarthrosisDifferential Diagnoses
A- Medial Collateral Knee Ligament Injury
Contact, noncontact, and overuse mechanisms are involved in causing MCL injuries.
Contact injuries involve a direct valgus load to the knee. This is the usual mechanism in a complete tear.
Noncontact, or indirect, injuries are observed with deceleration, cutting, and pivoting motions. These mechanisms tend to cause partial tears.
Overuse injuries of the MCL have been described in swimmers. The whip-kick technique of the breaststroke has been implicated. This technique involves repetitive valgus loads across the knee.B- Posterior Cruciate Ligament Injury
Knowledge of the mechanism of injury is helpful. The following 4 mechanisms of PCL injury are recognized:
– A posteriorly directed force on a flexed knee, e.g., the anterior aspect of the flexed knee striking a dashboard, may cause PCL injury.
– A fall onto a flexed knee with the foot in plantar flexion and the tibial tubercle striking the ground first, directing a posterior force to the proximal tibia, may result in injury to the PCL.
– Hyperextension alone may lead to an avulsion injury of the PCL from the origin. This kind of injury may be amenable to repair.
– An anterior force to the anterior tibia in a hyperextended knee with the foot planted results in combined injury to the knee ligaments along with knee dislocation.In chronic PCL tears, discomfort may be experienced with the following positions or activities:
– A semi flexed position, as with ascending or descending stairs or an incline
– Starting a run
– Lifting a load
– Walking longer distances
– Retro patellar pain symptoms may be reported as a result of posterior tibial sagging.
– Swelling and stiffness may be reported in cases of chondral damage.
– Individuals may describe a sensation of instability when walking on uneven ground
– Medial joint line pain may be reported. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 33 year old woman presents to the ER after being involved in a road traffic accident. Her knee has hit the dashboard. Examination reveals a posteriorly displaced tibia. Injury to which of the following structures has resulted in this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior cruciate ligament
Explanation:The posterior drawer test is a physical exam technique that is done to assess the integrity of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). The PCL is attached to the posterior intercondylar area of the tibia and passes anteriorly, medially, and upward to attach to the lateral side of the medial femoral condyle.
This ligament prevents backward displacement of the tibia or forward sliding of the femur. Injury to the ligament allows displacement of the tibia -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An 18 year old military recruit complains of sudden onset of severe pain in the forefoot after several weeks of training exercises. Examination shows tenderness along the second metatarsal and an x-ray done indicates the presence of callus surrounding the shaft of the second metatarsal. What is his diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stress fracture
Explanation:Answer: Stress fracture
A stress fracture is caused by repetitive and submaximal loading of the bone, which eventually becomes fatigued and leads to a true fracture. The typical presentation is a complaint of increasing pain in the lower extremity during exercise or activity. The patient’s history usually reveals a recent increase in either training volume or intensity. Stress fractures result from recurrent and repetitive loading of bone. The stress fracture differs from other types of fractures in that in most cases, no acute traumatic event precedes the symptoms.
Normal bone remodelling occurs secondary to increased compressive or tensile loads or increased load frequency. In the normal physiologic response, minor microdamage of the bone occurs. This is repaired through remodelling. Stress fractures develop when extensive microdamage occurs before the bone can be adequately remodelled.
Common findings on physical examination may include tenderness or pain on palpation or percussion of the bone. Erythema or oedema may be present at the site of the stress fracture. Loading or stress of the affected bone may also produce symptoms.A stress fracture can be difficult to see on an X-ray, because the bone often appears normal in the X-ray, and the small cracks can’t be seen. X-rays may not help diagnose a stress fracture unless it has started to heal. When the bone starts to heal, it creates a callus, or lump, that can be seen on X-rays. The doctors may recommend a bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which is more sensitive than an X-ray and can spot stress fractures early.
Freiberg disease is a degenerative process involving the epiphyses resulting in osteonecrosis of subchondral cancellous bone. If the process is altered in such a way as to restore normal physiology, this may be followed by regeneration or recalcification. If not, the process continues to subchondral collapse and eventual fragmentation of the joint surface.
Patients who have Freiberg disease typically present with complaints of activity-related forefoot pain. Walking alone is often sufficient to cause pain. Some patients describe an extended (months to years) history of chronic forefoot pain with episodic exacerbation, whereas others present with pain of recent onset that is related to a specific injury or event. A history of trauma may not be noted. Patients may present with stiffness and a limp. The pain is often vague and poorly localized to the forefoot. Some patients describe the sensation of a small, hard object under the foot.Physical examination typically reveals a limited range of motion (ROM), swelling, and tenderness with direct palpation of the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. In early stages of the disease, MTP tenderness may be the only finding. In later stages, crepitus or deformity may be present. A skin callus may be seen on the plantar surface of the affected metatarsal head.
Radiography
Depending on the stage of the disease, radiographs may show only sclerosis and widening of the joint space (early), with complete collapse of the metatarsal head and fragmentation later. Osteochondral loose bodies may be seen late in the disease as well. Oblique views may be especially useful for achieving a full appreciation of subtle changes early in the disease. One study advocated the use of radiographs to assess musculoskeletal foot conditions in women related to poorly fitting shoes.
Occasionally, patients are completely asymptomatic, with changes noted on radiographs taken for other reasons. Whether these patients later develop symptomatic Freiberg disease is not known. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42 year old man slips while walking down the stairs and injures his ankle. He is rushed to the doctor's office and on examination, he has tenderness over the lateral and medial malleolus.
X-rays demonstrate an undisplaced fracture of the distal fibula at the level of the syndesmosis and a congruent ankle mortise.
What is the best course of management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Application of below knee plaster cast
Explanation:Fractures of the distal tibia and fibula may result in loss of stability of the ankle joint. They may present as a fracture only, fracture and ligamentous injury, multiple fractures or a fracture dislocation.
Isolated fibular fractures at the level of the syndesmosis (Weber B) without associated medial injury should be placed in a short leg backslab (ankle at plantargrade) and remain NWB (non-weight bearing).
With medial malleolus fractures care should be taken to rule out any other fracture or injury around the ankle. The entire length of the fibula should be palpated and x-rayed to rule out any Maisonneuve type injuries. Any other fracture, ligament injury or talar shift indicate the fracture is likely to be unstable and should be reviewed by orthopaedics.
If medial malleolar injury is truly isolated then a short leg backslab (below knee plaster cast) should be applied and the patient is to remain NWB until orthopaedic review.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 11 year old girl undergoes a delayed open reduction and fixation of a significantly displaced supracondylar fracture. She complains of paraesthesia of the hand and significant forearm pain. The radial pulse is normal. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fasciotomy
Explanation:Answer: Fasciotomy
Fasciotomy is a surgical procedure where the fascia is cut to relieve tension or pressure commonly to treat the resulting loss of circulation to an area of tissue or muscle. Fasciotomy is a limb-saving procedure when used to treat acute compartment syndrome. A delay in performing the procedure can lead to neurovascular complications or lead to the need for amputation of a limb. Complications can also involve the formation of scar tissue after the operation. A thickening of the surgical scars can result in the loss of mobility of the joint involved. This can be addressed through occupational or physical therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35 year old IV drug abuser arrives at the clinic with localized spinal pain. It is worse on movement and has been occurring for the last 2 months. The pain is refractory to analgesic treatment and is felt excruciatingly at rest too. He has no history of tuberculosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteomyelitis
Explanation:Complications of intravenous drug abuse, such as subcutaneous abscess, joint infections, osteomyelitis, overdose, hepatitis, and infective endocarditis, account for an increasing number of admissions in accident and emergency departments throughout the UK. The organisms that usually cause chronic osteomyelitis in intravenous drug users are Gram‐negative rods such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Gram‐positive cocci such as staphylococci. Early treatment is essential to prevent progressive bone destruction. TB tends to affect the thoracic spine and in other causes of osteomyelitis the lumbar spine is affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 39 year old woman is knocked off her bike on the way home and she is taken to the hospital. Her ankle is observed to be grossly deformed with bilateral malleolar tenderness, severe ankle swelling and tenting of the medial soft tissues. Which of the following would be the best option in initial management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate reduction and application of backslab
Explanation:Ankle fractures most often occur by rotational mechanisms with the external forces transmitted through the foot via the talus to the malleoli. The specific pattern of fracture and ligamentous injury depends on the position of the foot and the direction of the force at the time of injury.
Reduce the ankle fracture as soon as possible once informed consent provided to the patient. Assess the neurovascular status of the limb before and after manipulation. Have splinting materials ready and measured out (use the uninjured, contralateral leg for measuring). Either a short leg splint or cast is applied based on fracture type, patient, surgical urgency, and surgeon preference.
Ensure adequate analgesia for the patient including NSAIDs, IV medications, hematoma block, or procedural sedation. Once reduced and splinted in place, recheck neurovascular status, elevate the leg and obtain a post-reduction X-ray.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male complains of pain and weakness in the shoulder. He has recently been unwell with glandular fever from which he is fully recovered. On examination, there is some evidence of muscle wasting and a degree of winging of the scapula. Power during active movements is impaired. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parsonage-Turner syndrome
Explanation:Parsonage-Turner Syndrome (PTS), also referred to as idiopathic brachial plexopathy or neuralgic amyotrophy, is a rare disorder consisting of a complex constellation of symptoms with abrupt onset of shoulder pain, usually unilaterally, followed by progressive neurologic deficits of motor weakness, dysesthesias, and numbness. Although the aetiology of the syndrome is unclear, it is reported in various clinical situations, including postoperatively, postinfectious, posttraumatic, and postvaccination.
The most common associated risk factor is a recent viral illness.
The pain is not positional and usually worse at night and may be associated with awakenings from sleep. There are typically no constitutional symptoms associated with the syndrome. The duration of pain is almost always self-limiting, lasting 1 to 2 weeks, but on rare occasion persisting for longer periods.
In the earliest stages of this condition (the first few weeks), pain management with opiates, NSAIDs, and neuroleptics is the mainstay of treatment. Acupuncture and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) can also be adjuncts to medications. Oral steroids have been recommended by some, but there is poor literature evidence to support its efficacy.
Physical therapy plays an important role in the treatment of this condition. Modalities such as TENS can help in pain management. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a crush injury to his right forearm. On examination, the arm is tender, red, and swollen. There is clinical evidence of an ulnar fracture, and the patient cannot move his fingers.
What should be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fasciotomy
Explanation:The combination of a crush injury, limb swelling, and inability to move digits raises suspicion of compartment syndrome that would require a fasciotomy.
Compartment syndrome is a particular complication that may occur following fractures, especially supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries. It is characterised by raised pressure within a closed anatomical space which may, eventually, compromise tissue perfusion, resulting in necrosis.
The clinical features of compartment syndrome include:
1. Pain, especially on movement
2. Paraesthesia
3. Pallor
4. Paralysis of the muscle group may also occurDiagnosis is made by measurement of intracompartmental pressure. Pressures >20mmHg are abnormal and >40mmHg are diagnostic.
Compartment syndrome requires prompt and extensive fasciotomy. Myoglobinuria may occur following fasciotomy, resulting in renal failure. Therefore, aggressive IV fluids are required. If muscle groups are frankly necrotic at fasciotomy, they should be debrided, and amputation may have to be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 49 year old carpenter is rushed to the hospital after falling from the roof of a house. He has an open fracture of his tibia with a 14 cm wound and he is neurovascularly intact. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous antibiotics, photography and application of saline soaked gauze with impermeable dressing
Explanation:The administration of antibiotics is best considered therapeutic, rather than prophylactic, because of the high risk of infection in the absence of antibiotics.
Although debate still surrounds some aspects of antibiotic administration for open fractures, the following generalizations can be made:
– All patients with open fractures should receive cefazolin or equivalent gram-positive coverage; this may be sufficient
– Type II or type III injuries likely benefit from the addition of adequate gram-negative coverage, typically with an aminoglycoside
– Injuries at risk for anaerobic infections (e.g., farm injuries, severe tissue necrosis) probably benefit from the addition of penicillin or clindamycin.Digital photos are helpful for documenting the initial appearance of the extremity and can be a valuable addition to the medical record. Digital imaging allows other members of the treatment team to see the wound preoperatively without repeated manipulations of the wound.
Gauze swabs soaked in normal saline are frequently used as dressing on open wounds.The Oxford Handbook for Medical school recommends that open fractures should be sealed with saline-soaked gauze and impermeable dressing after removal of gross contaminants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 33 year old man presents with an injured forearm after falling from a scaffolding. Examination reveals a radial fracture and dislocated distal radio-ulnar joint. Which of the following options is synonymous with this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Galeazzi
Explanation:The Galeazzi fracture is a fracture of the middle to distal one-third of the radius associated with dislocation or subluxation of the distal radioulnar joint. It presents with pain, swelling and deformity. Physical examination reveals point tenderness over the fracture site. Isolated fracture of radius is rare and there usually is an associated injury.
Other fractures:
– Colles’ fracture (dinner fork deformity): fall onto extended outstretched hand. Classical Colles’ fractures have 3 features:
1. Transverse fracture of the radius
2. 1 inch proximal to the radio-carpal joint
3. Dorsal displacement and angulation– Smith’s fracture (reverse Colles’ fracture): volar angulation of distal radius fragment (Garden spade deformity). Caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed
– Bennett’s fracture: Intra-articular fracture of the first carpometacarpal joint. Impact on flexed metacarpal, caused by fist fights
– Monteggia’s fracture: dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture. Caused by a fall on outstretched hand with forced pronation.
– Pott’s fracture: Bimalleolar ankle fracture from forced foot eversion
– Barton’s fracture: Distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation from a fall onto extended and pronated wrist
– Holstein Lewis Fracture: fracture of the distal third of the humerus resulting in entrapment of the radial nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 5 year old boy presents with an abnormal gait. On examination, his WCC was found to be 12 and ESR was 31. Past medical history shows a recent viral illness. Which of the following is the cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Transient synovitis (TS) is the most common cause of acute hip pain in children aged 3-10 years. The disease causes arthralgia and arthritis secondary to a transient inflammation of the synovium of the hip. Biopsy reveals only nonspecific inflammation and hypertrophy of the synovial membrane. Ultrasonography demonstrates an effusion that causes bulging of the anterior joint capsule. Synovial fluid has increased proteoglycans.
Unilateral hip or groin pain is the most common symptom reported; however, some patients with transient synovitis (TS) may report medial thigh or knee pain. Transient synovitis has the highest incidence rate among causes of nontraumatic hip pain in children. Guidelines for chronic hip pain have been established.Causes
No definitive cause of transient synovitis is known, although the following have been suggested:
– Patients with transient synovitis often have histories of trauma, which may be a cause or predisposing factor.
– One study found an increase in viral antibody titres in 67 of 80 patients with transient synovitis.
– Postvaccine or drug-mediated reactions and an allergic disposition have been cited as possible causes.The following studies may be indicated in transient synovitis (TS):
– CBC count: The white blood cell (WBC) count may be slightly elevated.
– Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) may be slightly elevated. One study found that the combination of an ESR greater than 20 mm/h and/or a temperature greater than 37.5°C identified 97% of individuals with septic hip. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man sustains a Holstein-Lewis fracture of the left arm. Which of the following nerves is at risk of damage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial
Explanation:Holstein-Lewis fracture is a fracture of the distal third of the humerus resulting in entrapment of the radial nerve. The radial nerve is one of the major peripheral nerves of the upper limb. It innervates all the muscles in the extensor compartments of the arm.
Conservative treatment for this fracture includes reduction and use of a functional brace. However, vascular injury may require open surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 4 year old girl falls off the monkey bars in the park and lands on her left forearm. She is rushed to the hospital and on examination, she has bony tenderness and bruising. X-ray shows unilateral cortical disruption and development of periosteal haematoma. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Greenstick fracture
Explanation:A greenstick fracture is a fracture in a young, soft bone in which the bone bends and breaks. Greenstick fractures occur most often during infancy and childhood when bones are soft.
Some clinical features of a greenstick fracture are similar to those of a standard long bone fracture – greenstick fractures normally cause pain at the injured area. As these fractures are specifically a paediatric problem, an older child will be protective of the fractured part and babies may cry inconsolably. As per a standard fracture, the area may be swollen and either red or bruised. Greenstick fractures are stable fractures as a part of the bone remains intact and unbroken so this type of fracture normally causes a bend to the injured part, rather than a distinct deformity, which is problematic.
Radiographic features
-usually mid-diaphyseal
-occur in tandem with angulation
-incomplete fracture, with cortical breach of only one side of the bone -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male injured his ankle playing football. On examination, he has tenderness over both medial and lateral malleoli. X-ray demonstrates a bimalleolar fracture with a displaced distal fibula fracture, at the level of the syndesmosis and fracture of the medial malleolus with talar shift. The ankle has been provisionally reduced and splinted in the emergency department. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical fixation
Explanation:The patient has Denis B fracture, unstable fracture requiring open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
open reduction internal fixation indications:
– any talar displacement
– displaced isolated medial malleolar fracture
– displaced isolated lateral malleolar fracture
– bimalleolar fracture and bimalleolar-equivalent fracture
– posterior malleolar fracture with > 25% or > 2mm step-off
– Bosworth fracture-dislocations
– open fractures
– malleolar non-unionDanis-Weber classification:
type A
below the level of the talar dome
usually transverse
tibiofibular syndesmosis intact
deltoid ligament intact
medial malleolus occasionally fractured
usually stable if medial malleolus intact
type B
the distal extent at the level of the talar dome; may extend some distance proximally
usually spiral
tibiofibular syndesmosis usually intact, but a widening of the distal tibiofibular joint (especially on stressed views) indicates syndesmotic injury
medial malleolus may be fractured
the deltoid ligament may be torn, indicated by a widening of the space between the medial malleolus and talar dome
variable stability, dependent on the status of medial structures (malleolus/deltoid ligament) and syndesmosis; may require ORIF
Weber B fractures could be further subclassified as 9
B1: isolated
B2: associated with a medial lesion (malleolus or ligament)
B3: associated with a medial lesion and fracture of the posterolateral tibia
type C
above the level of the ankle joint
tibiofibular syndesmosis disruption with a widening of the distal tibiofibular articulation
medial malleolus fracture or deltoid ligament injury often present
a fracture may arise as proximally as the level of the fibular neck and not visualized on ankle films, requiring knee or full-length tibia-fibula radiographs (Maisonneuve fracture)
unstable: usually requires ORIF
Weber C fractures can be further subclassified as 6
C1: diaphyseal fracture of the fibula, simple
C2: diaphyseal fracture of the fibula, complex
C3: proximal fracture of the fibula
a fracture above the syndesmosis results from external rotation or abduction forces that also disrupt the joint
usually associated with an injury to the medial side -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An 11 year old boy is referred to the clinic with pain in the left knee. He has been experiencing the pain for the past four months and it usually lasts for a few hours. He is seen to be walking with an antalgic gait and has apparent left leg shortening. The left knee is normal but the left hip reveals pain on internal and external rotation. Flattening of the femoral head is shown on imaging. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perthes disease
Explanation:Answer: Perthes disease
Perthes’ disease is a condition affecting the hip joint in children. It is rare (1 in 9,000 children are affected) and we do not clearly understand why it occurs.
Part or all of the femoral head (top of the thigh bone: the ball part of the ball-and-socket hip joint) loses its blood supply and may become misshapen. This may lead to arthritis of the hip in later years.
The earliest sign of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (LCPD) is an intermittent limp (abductor lurch), especially after exertion, with mild or intermittent pain in the anterior part of the thigh. LCPD is the most common cause of a limp in the 4- to 10-year-old age group, and the classic presentation has been described as a painless limp.
The patient may present with limited range of motion of the affected extremity. The most common symptom is persistent pain.Hip pain may develop and is a result of necrosis of the involved bone. This pain may be referred to the medial aspect of the ipsilateral knee or to the lateral thigh. The quadriceps muscles and adjacent thigh soft tissues may atrophy, and the hip may develop adduction flexion contracture. The patient may have an antalgic gait with limited hip motion.
Early radiographic changes may reveal only a nonspecific effusion of the joint associated with slight widening of the joint space, metaphyseal demineralization (decreased bone density around the joint), and periarticular swelling (bulging capsule). This is the acute phase, and it may last 1-2 weeks. Decreasing bone density in and around the joint is noted after a few weeks. Eventually, the disease may progress to collapse of the femoral head, increase in the width of the neck, and demineralization of the femoral head. The final shape of this area depends on the extent of necrosis and the degree of collapse. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male is admitted overnight, following a road traffic accident. He has an open tibial fracture with a 20 cm wound and extensive periosteal stripping. He is neurovascularly intact; IV antibiotics and wound dressing have been administered in the emergency department. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined skeletal and soft tissue reconstruction on a scheduled operating list
Explanation:The patient has Gustilo-Anderson Grade IIIb.
Options for wound closure in the treatment of open fractures include primary closure of the skin, split-thickness skin grafting, and the use of either free or local muscle flaps. The timing of open wound closure has proponents in the immediate, early, and delayed categories
Gustilo-Anderson classification
Type I – Open fracture with a wound less than 1 cm in length, and clean
Type II – Open fracture with a laceration more than 1 cm in length, without extensive soft-tissue damage, flaps, or avulsions
Type III – Either an open segmental fracture, an open fracture with extensive soft-tissue damage, or a traumatic amputation
The description of type III fractures was subsequently further refined and described by Gustilo et al in 1984, [6] as follows:
Type IIIa – Severe comminution or segmental fractures, but with adequate coverage of bone and a wound that is closable by simple means
Type IIIb – Extensive soft-tissue damage in association with the open fracture, with significant bone exposure and periosteal stripping, typically requiring tissue rotation or free tissue transfer for closure
Type IIIc – Any open fracture with an arterial injury that requires repair -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 8 month old baby girl presents with a spiral fracture of her left humerus. Her father states that he grabbed her arm because she was falling off the park slide. He noticed that something was wrong and he rushed to the hospital with her. Which of the following is the most likely issue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accidental fracture
Explanation:In this case, there is no delay in treatment and the mechanism by which the fracture occurred fits accidental fracture.
A statement from the parent or guardian and any witnesses regarding how the child sustained the injury will help determine whether the injury is accidental or abusive. A statement from the parent or guardian explaining why he or she delayed in seeking medical treatment is important to the investigation because caretakers often postpone medical treatment or fail to provide treatment for an injured child to hide physical abuse. The abusing parent or caregiver may also put a child in oversized clothing or keep the child inside a residence for extended periods of time in an attempt to conceal the child’s injuries.
Parents who inflict fractures on their children tend to minimize the severity of the accident purported to cause the fracture, whereas many parents of children with accidental fractures will relate a history of high-energy events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 18 year old 100m athlete presents with knee pain which worsens on walking down steps and sitting still. Wasting of the quadriceps and pseudolocking of the knee are observed on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chondromalacia patellae
Explanation:Answer: Chondromalacia patellae
Chondromalacia patellae, also known as “runner’s knee,” is a condition where the cartilage on the under surface of the patella (kneecap) deteriorates and softens. This condition is common among young, athletic individuals, but may also occur in older adults who have arthritis of the knee. Chondromalacia is understood as patellar pain in the anterior side of the knee which worsens on sitting for prolonged periods, or going down stairs/slopes, with joint clicking and episodes of pseudo-locking and failure.
Chondromalacia is often seen as an overuse injury in sports, and sometimes taking a few days off from training can produce good results. In other cases, improper knee alignment is the cause and simply resting doesn’t provide relief. The symptoms of runner’s knee are knee pain and grinding sensations, but many people who have it never seek medical treatment.
Chondromalacia patella often occurs when the under surface of the kneecap comes in contact with the thigh bone causing swelling and pain. Abnormal knee cap positioning, tightness or weakness of the muscles associated with the knee, too much activity involving the knee, and flat feet may increase the likelihood of chondromalacia patella.What are the symptoms of chondromalacia patella?
Dull, aching pain that is felt:Behind the kneecap
Below the kneecap
On the sides of the kneecap
A feeling of grinding when the knee is flexed may occur. This can happen:Doing knee bends
Going down stairs
Running down hill
Standing up after sitting for awhile -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 7 year old boy is taken to his family doctor for treatment of a painful limp. His mother states that the symptoms started 7 weeks ago. Two hip x-rays have been performed and they appear normal. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a hip MRI
Explanation:Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP) disease is a common cause of hip pain and limp in preadolescent children. Early in its course, this condition, a form of idiopathic osteonecrosis (or osteochondrosis), may be difficult to diagnose both clinically and radiographically. MRI is a useful tool for the evaluation of LCP disease that may assist with prompt diagnosis, staging, and evaluation of associated complications. In addition, a variety of MRI findings may provide valuable prognostic information. The MRI findings of LCP disease are quite variable depending on the different stages of the disease (avascular, revascularization, and healing phases).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a history of failure to thrive. He is observed to have a large head and to be small for his age. A cupped appearance of the epiphysis of the wrist is seen on the x-ray. Which condition is this linked to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rickets
Explanation:Answer: Rickets
Rickets is a disease of growing bone that is unique to children and adolescents. It is caused by a failure of osteoid to calcify in a growing person.
The signs and symptoms of rickets can include:pain – the bones affected by rickets can be sore and painful, so the child may be reluctant to walk or may tire easily; the child’s walk may look different (waddling)
skeletal deformities – thickening of the ankles, wrists and knees, bowed legs, soft skull bones and, rarely, bending of the spine
dental problems – including weak tooth enamel, delay in teeth coming through and increased risk of cavities
poor growth and development – if the skeleton doesn’t grow and develop properly, the child will be shorter than average
fragile bones – in severe cases, the bones become weaker and more prone to fractures.Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan tend to be tall and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta, with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm. Other commonly affected areas include the lungs, eyes, bones and the covering of the spinal cord.
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a group of inherited disorders that affect your connective tissues — primarily your skin, joints and blood vessel walls. People who have Ehlers-Danlos syndrome usually have overly flexible joints and stretchy, fragile skin. This can become a problem if you have a wound that requires stitches, because the skin often isn’t strong enough to hold them.
A more severe form of the disorder, called Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, vascular type, can cause the walls of your blood vessels, intestines or uterus to rupture.Osteoporosis is a disease in which bone weakening increases the risk of a broken bone. It is the most common reason for a broken bone among the elderly. Bones that commonly break include the vertebrae in the spine, the bones of the forearm, and the hip. Until a broken bone occurs there are typically no symptoms. Bones may weaken to such a degree that a break may occur with minor stress or spontaneously. Chronic pain and a decreased ability to carry out normal activities may occur following a broken bone.
Osteoporosis may be due to lower-than-normal maximum bone mass and greater-than-normal bone loss. Bone loss increases after menopause due to lower levels of oestrogen. Osteoporosis may also occur due to a number of diseases or treatments, including alcoholism, anorexia, hyperthyroidism, kidney disease, and surgical removal of the ovaries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old rugby player falls directly on his right shoulder. He presents to the emergency department with pain and swelling of the shoulder joint. The right clavicle is prominent and there appears to be a step deformity.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acromioclavicular joint dislocation
Explanation:Acromioclavicular joint (ACJ) dislocation normally occurs secondary to direct injury to the superior aspect of the acromion. Loss of shoulder contour and prominent clavicle are the key features.
An ACJ dislocation, or AC separation, is a very frequent injury among physically active people. It is commonly caused by a fall directly on the shoulder or a direct blow received in a contact sport. Disruption of the ACJ results in pain and instability in the entire shoulder and arm. The pain is most severe when the patient attempts overhead movements or tries to sleep on the affected side.
In general, most AC injuries do not require surgery. There are certain situations, however, in which surgery may be necessary. Most patients recover with full function of the shoulder. The period of disability and discomfort ranges from a few days to 12 weeks depending on the severity of the separation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male falls on the back of his hand. On x-ray, he has a fractured distal radius demonstrating volar displacement of the fracture. What eponymous term is used to describe this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smith's
Explanation:The Frykman classification of distal radial fractures is based on the AP appearance and encompasses the eponymous entities of Colles fracture, Smith fracture, Barton fracture, chauffeur fracture.
Colles fractures are very common extra-articular fractures of the distal radius that occur as the result of a fall onto an outstretched hand. They consist of a fracture of the distal radial metaphyseal region with dorsal angulation and impaction, but without the involvement of the articular surface.
Colles fractures are the most common type of distal radial fracture and are seen in all adult age groups and demographics. They are particularly common in patients with osteoporosis, and as such, they are most frequently seen in elderly women.Smith fractures, also known as Goyrand fractures in the French literature 3, are fractures of the distal radius with associated volar angulation of the distal fracture fragment(s). Classically, these fractures are extra-articular transverse fractures and can be thought of like a reverse Colles fracture.
The term is sometimes used to describe intra-articular fractures with volar displacement (reverse Barton fracture) or juxta-articular fracturesBarton fractures are fractures of the distal radius. It is also sometimes termed the dorsal type Barton fracture to distinguish it from the volar type or reverse Barton fracture.
Barton fractures extend through the dorsal aspect to the articular surface but not to the volar aspect. Therefore, it is similar to a Colles fracture. There is usually associated with dorsal subluxation/dislocation of the radiocarpal joint.Chauffeur fractures (also known as Hutchinson fractures or backfire fractures) are intra-articular fractures of the radial styloid process. The radial styloid is within the fracture fragment, although the fragment can vary markedly in size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 20 year old male presents to the clinic with progressive pain in his neck and back which has gotten worse over the past 7 months. Past medical history shows that he was an inpatient with a disease flare of ulcerative colitis. He is seen on examination with a stiff back and limited spinal extension on bending forward. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis (AS), a spondyloarthropathy, is a chronic, multisystem inflammatory disorder involving primarily the sacroiliac (SI) joints and the axial skeleton. Key components of the patient history that suggest AS include the following:
Insidious onset of low back pain – The most common symptom
Onset of symptoms before age 40 years
Presence of symptoms for more than 3 months
Symptoms worse in the morning or with inactivity
Improvement of symptoms with exerciseGeneral symptoms of AS include the following:
Those related to inflammatory back pain – Stiffness of the spine and kyphosis resulting in a stooped posture are characteristic of advanced-stage AS.
Peripheral enthesitis and arthritis
Constitutional and organ-specific extra-articular manifestations
Fatigue is another common complaint, occurring in approximately 65% of patients with AS. Increased levels of fatigue are associated with increased pain and stiffness and decreased functional capacity.
Pharmacologic therapyAgents used in the treatment of AS include the following:
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Sulfasalazine
Tumour necrosis factor-α (TNF-α) antagonists
CorticosteroidsAS is the prototype of the spondyloarthropathies, a family of related disorders that also includes reactive arthritis (ReA), psoriatic arthritis (PsA), spondyloarthropathy associated with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), undifferentiated spondyloarthropathy (USpA), and, possibly, Whipple disease and Behçet disease (see the image below). The spondyloarthropathies are linked by common genetics (the human leukocyte antigen [HLA] class-I gene HLA-B27) and a common pathology (enthesitis). The aetiology of AS is not understood completely; however, a strong genetic predisposition exists. A direct relationship between AS and the HLA-B27 gene has been determined. The precise role of HLA-B27 in precipitating AS remains unknown; however, it is believed that HLA-B27 may resemble or act as a receptor for an inciting antigen (e.g., a bacterial antigen).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 22 year old male sustains a distal radius fracture during a rugby match. Imaging shows a comminuted fracture with involvement of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Open reduction and internal fixation
Explanation:Fractures of the distal radius account for up to 20% of all fractures treated in the emergency department. Initial assessment includes a history of the mechanism of injury, associated injury and appropriate radiological evaluation
Most of the fractures are caused by a fall on the outstretched hand with the wrist in dorsiflexion. The form and severity of fracture of distal radius as well as the concomitant injury of disco-ligamentary structures of the wrist also depend on the position of the wrist at the moment of hitting the ground. The width of this angle influences the localization of the fracture. Pronation, supination and abduction determine the direction of the force and the compression of the carpus and different appearances of ligament injuries.
The basic principle of fracture treatment is to obtain accurate fracture reduction and then to use a method of immobilization that will maintain and hold that reduction. While the goal of treatment in fracture distal end of the radius is the restoration of normal function, the precise methods to achieve that desired outcome are controversial. Intra-articular fractures of the distal end of the radius can be difficult to treat, at times, with a traditional conservative method. A number of options for treatment are available to prevent the loss of reduction in an unstable fracture of the distal end of the radius.
One of the recent advances in the treatment of distal radius fractures is the more frequent application of open reduction and internal fixation, especially for intra-articular fractures. There are two groups of fractures for which open reduction and internal fixation is advisable.
The first group includes the two-part shear fracture (Barton fracture), which actually is a radio-carpal fracture-dislocation. Although the anatomical reduction is possible by closed means in some cases, these fractures are very unstable and difficult to control in plaster. The second group includes complex intra-articular fractures in which the articular fragments are displaced, rotated or impacted and are not amenable to reduction through limited operative exposure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 26 year old lady slips in her house and lands on her right arm. She has anatomical snuffbox tenderness but no x-rays either at the time or subsequently have shown evidence of a scaphoid fracture. She has been immobilised in a futura splint for two weeks and is now asymptomatic. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discharge with reassurance
Explanation:The College of Emergency Medicine states that the patient should be discharged with no follow-up required if the patient presents with anatomical snuffbox tenderness and plain radiographs show no fracture when done initially and after when wrist splint has been used.
A scaphoid fracture is a break of the scaphoid bone in the wrist. Symptoms generally includes pain at the base of the thumb which is worse with use of the hand. The anatomic snuffbox is generally tender and swelling may occur. Complications may include non-union of the fracture, avascular necrosis, and arthritis.
Scaphoid fractures are most commonly caused by a fall on an outstretched hand. Diagnosis is generally based on examination and medical imaging. Some fractures may not be visible on plain X-rays. In such cases a person may be casted with repeat X-rays in two weeks or an MRI or bone scan may be done.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 30 year old carpenter falls off the roof of a house and lands on his right arm. X-ray and clinical examination show that he has fractured the proximal ulna and associated radial dislocation. Which of the following names would be used to describe this injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monteggia's
Explanation:The Monteggia fracture refers to a dislocation of the proximal radio-ulnar joint (PRUJ) in association with a forearm fracture, most commonly a fracture of the ulna. Depending on the type of fracture and severity, they may experience elbow swelling, deformity, crepitus, and paraesthesia or numbness. Some patients may not have severe pain at rest, but elbow flexion and forearm rotation are limited and painful.
The dislocated radial head may be palpable in the anterior, posterior, or anterolateral position. In Bado type I and IV lesions, the radial head can be palpated in the antecubital fossa. The radial head can be palpated posteriorly in type II lesions and laterally in type III lesions.Colles’ fractures have the following 3 features:
– Transverse fracture of the radius
– 1 inch proximal to the radio-carpal joint
– Dorsal displacement and angulationSmith’s fracture (reverse Colles’ fracture)
– Volar angulation of distal radius fragment (Garden spade deformity)
– Caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexedBennett’s fracture
– Intra-articular fracture of the first carpometacarpal joint
– Impact on flexed metacarpal, caused by fist fights
– X-ray: triangular fragment at ulnar base of metacarpalGaleazzi fracture
– Radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar jointPott’s fracture
– Bimalleolar ankle fracture
– Forced foot eversionBarton’s fracture
– Distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation
– Fall onto extended and pronated wrist
– Involvement of the joint is a defining feature -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 34 year old mechanic suffers from a Gustilo and Anderson type IIIA fracture of the femoral shaft after being hit by a fork lift truck. What would be the most suitable step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Debridement and external fixation
Explanation:Perhaps the most important aspect in the treatment of open fractures is the initial surgical intervention with irrigation and meticulous debridement of the injury zone. Irrigation, along with debridement, is absolutely crucial in the management of open fractures.
Early stabilization of open fractures provides many benefits to the injured patient. It protects the soft tissues around the zone of injury by preventing further damage from mobile fracture fragments. It also restores length, alignment, and rotation—all vital principles of fracture fixation. Skeletal traction and external fixation are the quickest fixation constructs to employ. The use of skeletal traction should be reserved only for selected open fracture types (i.e., pelvis fractures and very proximal femur fractures) and if used, it should only be for a short selected time. External fixation is a valuable tool in the surgeon’s arsenal for acute open fracture management. Indications for external fixation are grossly contaminated open fractures with extensive soft-tissue compromise, the Type IIIA-C injuries, and when immediate fixation is needed for physiologically unstable patients. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 20 year old female is rushed to the hospital after developing severe back pain and weakness in both legs after completing the long jump. She is seen with a prominent sacrum on examination and her lower back pain is severe. Which of the following is the underlying cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spondylolisthesis
Explanation:Answer: Spondylolisthesis
Spondylolisthesis is a condition in which a bone (vertebra) in the spine moves forward out of the proper position onto the bone below it.
Causes
In children, spondylolisthesis usually occurs between the fifth bone in the lower back (lumbar vertebra) and the first bone in the sacrum (pelvis) area. It is often due to a birth defect in that area of the spine or sudden injury (acute trauma).In adults, the most common cause is abnormal wear on the cartilage and bones, such as arthritis. The condition mostly affects people over 50 years old. It is more common in women than in men.
Bone disease and fractures can also cause spondylolisthesis. Certain sports activities, such as gymnastics, weightlifting, and football, greatly stress the bones in the lower back. They also require that the athlete constantly overstretch (hyperextend) the spine. This can lead to a stress fracture on one or both sides of the vertebra. A stress fracture can cause a spinal bone to become weak and shift out of place.
Symptoms
Symptoms of spondylolisthesis may vary from mild to severe. A person with spondylolisthesis may have no symptoms. Children may not show symptoms until they’re 18 years old.The condition can lead to increased lordosis (also called swayback). In later stages, it may result in kyphosis (round back) as the upper spine falls off the lower spine.
Symptoms may include any of the following:
Lower back pain
Muscle tightness (tight hamstring muscle)
Pain, numbness, or tingling in the thighs and buttocks
Stiffness
Tenderness in the area of the vertebra that is out of place
Weakness in the legsAnkylosing spondylitis (AS) is a type of arthritis in which there is a long-term inflammation of the joints of the spine.[2] Typically the joints where the spine joins the pelvis are also affected. Occasionally other joints such as the shoulders or hips are involved. Eye and bowel problems may also occur. Back pain is a characteristic symptom of AS, and it often comes and goes. Stiffness of the affected joints generally worsens over time.
Although the cause of ankylosing spondylitis is unknown, it is believed to involve a combination of genetic and environmental factors. More than 90% of those affected in the UK have a specific human leukocyte antigen known as the HLA-B27 antigen. The underlying mechanism is believed to be autoimmune or autoinflammatory. Diagnosis is typically based on the symptoms with support from medical imaging and blood tests. AS is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy, meaning that tests show no presence of rheumatoid factor (RF) antibodies. It is also within a broader category known as axial spondylarthritis.
The signs and symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis often appear gradually, with peak onset being between 20 and 30 years of age. Initial symptoms are usually a chronic dull pain in the lower back or gluteal region combined with stiffness of the lower back. Individuals often experience pain and stiffness that awakens them in the early morning hours.
As the disease progresses, loss of spinal mobility and chest expansion, with a limitation of anterior flexion, lateral flexion, and extension of the lumbar spine, are seen. Systemic features are common, with weight loss, fever, or fatigue often present. Pain is often severe at rest but may improve with physical activity, but inflammation and pain to varying degrees may recur regardless of rest and movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E department after being shot in the back, in the lumbar region. On examination, he has increased tone and hyperreflexia of his right leg and hemianaesthesia of his left leg.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brown-Sequard syndrome
Explanation:This is a case of Brown-Sequard syndrome.
Brown-Sequard syndrome is caused by hemisection of the spinal cord following stab injuries or lateral vertebral fractures. It results in ipsilateral paralysis (pyramidal tract), and also loss of proprioception and fine discrimination(dorsal columns). Pain and temperature sensations are lost on the contralateral side. This is because the fibres of the spinothalamic tract have decussated below the level of the cord transection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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