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  • Question 1 - A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT)...

    Incorrect

    • A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT) as a means of contraception. Over the past year, her cycles varied in length from 24 to 30 days with menses lasting 4 days. They do not have sexual intercourse when she is on her period.
      Which regimen would be the most suitable to minimise the chances of getting pregnant?

      Your Answer: Intercourse day 4 to 7, abstinence day eight until two days after the temperature elevation of 0.3°C, intercourse thereafter.

      Correct Answer: No intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle, commence intercourse two days after temperature elevation of 0.3°C and continue thereafter.

      Explanation:

      The best regimen would be to have no intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle and then commence it two days after a temperature rise of 0.3C and continue then onwards. When deciding the best contraceptive method, one has to consider two factors-the duration of survival of sperm in the uterus and body temperature in relation to ovulation. For this case, since her cycle length varies from 24 to 30 days, the earliest time in which ovulation would occur would be 14 days before her shortest cycle i.e. day 10. Intercourse has to be avoided from day 4 of her cycle just in case the current cycle is short because sperm can survive up to 6 days in the uterus. Day 4 would be the day her menses would end and as this couple avoids intercourse during her menstruation, there would be no intercourse during the follicular phase of her cycle.

      During ovulation, her serum progesterone levels would start to increase, causing a 0.3°C to 0.4°C increase in her body temperature within 2-3 days of ovulating. This elevation in temperature would remain until close to when her period starts. The ovum can only be fertilised for roughly 24 hours after ovulation has taken place. Resuming sexual intercourse once her temperature has risen for 2 days would suggest that ovulation had already taken place 3-4 days earlier and so it is unlikely for pregnancy to occur.

      Options that include intercourse during any part of her follicular phase is not correct. Hence, the only option that satisfies the above criteria would be intercourse avoidance during her follicular phase and to resume 2 days following a rise of 0.03°C in body temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - Besides infertility, the most common symptoms of a luteal phase defect is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Besides infertility, the most common symptoms of a luteal phase defect is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early abortion

      Explanation:

      Luteal phase defect is an ovulatory disorder of considerable clinical importance that is implicated in infertility and recurrent spontaneous abortion. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old female is being investigated for subfertility. At what day of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female is being investigated for subfertility. At what day of her menstrual cycle should blood be collected for progesterone, if she has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Day 21

      Explanation:

      Maximum levels of progesterone are detected at day 21 of 28 days in the menstrual cycle, assuming that ovulation has occurred at day 14. A value of >30nmol/l indicates an ovulatory cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 21-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation in her second pregnancy is...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation in her second pregnancy is admitted in the hospital for severe abdominal pain. She notes that also has been having vaginal bleeding of about one litre and uterine contractions are present. Her previous pregnancy was a vaginal, without any complications. Her current blood pressure is 95/50 mmHg with a pulse rate of 120 beats/min.
      On physical examination, the uterus is palpable at the level of the xiphisternum and is firm. It is acutely tender to palpation. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard on auscultation or with Doppler assessment. The cervix is 4 cm dilated and fully effaced. Immediate resuscitative measures are taken.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amniotomy

      Explanation:

      This patient is presenting with a severe placental abruption causing fetal death and shock in the mother. The most appropriate initial management for the patient is to treat her shock with blood transfusions and exclude or treat any coagulation disorder resulting from the abruption. Delivery also needs to be expedited to remove the dead foetus. An amniotomy is usually all that is required to induce spontaneous labour as the uterus is usually very irritable. Spontaneous labour is likely to occur in this case, where the cervix is already 4 cm dilated and fully effaced.

      Caesarean section is rarely needed to be done when the foetus is already dead.

      Vaginal prostaglandin and an oxytocin (Syntocin®) infusion are not needed and unlikely to be required.

      Ultrasound examination to confirm the diagnosis and fetal death is also unnecessary given the clinical and Doppler findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine blood test. Her platelet count is noted at 75x109/L (normal range is 150-400) . Which of the following can best explain the thrombocytopenia of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incidental thrombocytopaenia of pregnancy.

      Explanation:

      Incidental thrombocytopenia of pregnancy is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in an otherwise uncomplicated pregnancy. The platelet count finding in this case is of little concern unless it falls below 50×109/L.

      Immune thrombocytopenia is a less common cause of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy. The anti-platelet antibodies cam cross the placenta and pose a problem both to the mother and the foetus. Profound thrombocytopenia in the baby is a common finding of this condition.

      Thrombocytopenia can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. However, it is usually seen concurrent with other signs of severe disease.

      Maternal antibodies that target the baby’s platelets can rarely cause thrombocytopenia in the mother. Instead, it can lead to severe coagulation and bleeding complications in the baby as a result of profound thrombocytopenia.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus is unlikely to explain the thrombocytopenia in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urachus

      Explanation:

      The median umbilical ligament is the remnant of the Urachus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 7 - A 77 year old woman undergoes staging investigations for endometrial carcinoma. This shows...

    Incorrect

    • A 77 year old woman undergoes staging investigations for endometrial carcinoma. This shows invasion of the inguinal lymph nodes. What is this patients 5-year survival?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Lymph node involvement means that the carcinoma is stage 4. The 5 year survival of stage 4 endometrial carcinoma is 16%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 8 - A 22-year-old nulliparous otherwise healthy woman presents with lower abdominal pain at 16...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old nulliparous otherwise healthy woman presents with lower abdominal pain at 16 weeks of gestation. Her body temperature is 37.8 degrees Celsius. She appears to be in good health and is eating properly. Her uterus had been discovered to be retroverted but of normal size at her prior antenatal check at 11 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection.

      Explanation:

      Lower abdominal pain can be caused by any of the conditions listed in the answers.
      A urinary tract infection is the most likely cause.
      Unless it was an abdominal ectopic or an interstitial pregnancy, an ectopic pregnancy.
      will almost definitely have shown up before the 15th week of pregnancy.
      A retroverted gravid uterus may impinge at 15 weeks of pregnancy, however, this is unlikely to be linked to a temperature of 37.8°C.
      It’s also possible that it’s the source of acute urine retention.
      Complications of the corpus luteum cyst normally manifest themselves considerably earlier in pregnancy, and severe appendicitis is far less likely to be the source of discomfort than a urinary tract infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - What is the life span of the corpus luteum in days? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the life span of the corpus luteum in days?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 14-16

      Explanation:

      After the release of the oocyte, the theca and the granulosa cells form the corpus luteum which undergoes extensive vascularization for continued steroidogenesis. Progesterone is secreted by the luteal cells and is synthesized from cholesterol. The luteal phase lasts for 14 days and if implantation does not occurs the corpus luteum starts to degenerate. As B-HCG produced by the implanted embryo maintains it and without it luteolysis occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding.
    A...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding.
      A pelvic ultrasound was done, which confirms the diagnosis of placenta praevia and you are planning a cesarean section as it is the most appropriate mode of delivery.
      Which among the following is considered a possible outcome of cesarean section delivery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase risk of adhesions

      Explanation:

      Obstetric complications during or following a cesarean section delivery include:
      -Increased risk of maternal mortality.
      -Increased need for cesarean sections in the subsequent pregnancies.
      -Increased risk for damage to adjacent visceral organs especially bowels and bladder.
      -Increased risk of infections.

      Increased risk for formation of adhesions is a complication after cesarean section and this is the correct response for the given question.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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