00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old male presents with pain in the testis and scrotum. It began...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male presents with pain in the testis and scrotum. It began 10 hours previously and has worsened during that time. On examination, he has pyrexia, the testis is swollen and tender and there is an associated hydrocele. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute epididymo-orchitis

      Explanation:

      The following history findings are associated with acute epididymitis and orchitis:
      – Gradual onset of scrotal pain and swelling, usually unilateral, often developing over several days (as opposed to hours for testicular torsion)
      – Dysuria, frequency, or urgency
      – Fever and chills (in only 25% of adults with acute epididymitis but in up to 71% of children with the condition)
      Usually, no nausea or vomiting (in contrast to testicular torsion)
      – Urethral discharge preceding the onset of acute epididymitis (in some cases)

      Physical examination findings may fail to distinguish acute epididymitis from testicular torsion. Physical findings associated with acute epididymitis may include the following:
      – Tenderness and induration occurring first in the epididymal tail and then spreading
      – Elevation of the affected hemiscrotum
      – Normal cremasteric reflex
      – Erythema and mild scrotal cellulitis
      – Reactive hydrocele (in patients with advanced epididymo-orchitis)
      – Bacterial prostatitis or seminal vesiculitis (in post pubertal individuals)
      – With tuberculosis, focal epididymitis, a draining sinus, or beading of the vas deferens
      – In children, an underlying congenital anomaly of the urogenital tract
      Findings associated with orchitis may include the following:
      – Testicular enlargement, induration, and a reactive hydrocele (common)
      – Non-tender epididymis
      In 20-40% of cases, association with acute epididymitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 37 year old man is reported to have a left-sided renal mass....

    Incorrect

    • A 37 year old man is reported to have a left-sided renal mass. Imaging reveals a renal tumour measuring 5 cm that has invaded the left renal vein. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: External beam radiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Radical nephrectomy

      Explanation:

      In a radical nephrectomy, the surgeon removes the whole kidney, the fatty tissues surrounding the kidney and a portion of the tube connecting the kidney to the bladder (ureter). The surgeon may remove the adrenal gland that sits atop the kidney if a tumour is close to or involves the adrenal gland. Radical nephrectomy is the treatment of choice for localized renal cell carcinoma (RCC). Biopsy should not be performed when a nephrectomy is planned but is mandatory before any ablative therapies are undertaken.

      Renal cell carcinoma comprise up to 85% of all renal malignancies. Males are more commonly affected than females and sporadic tumours typically affect patients in their sixth decade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 37 year old firefighter notices a swelling in his left hemiscrotum and...

    Incorrect

    • A 37 year old firefighter notices a swelling in his left hemiscrotum and visits his family doctor. A left sided varicocele was noticed when he was examined. The ipsilateral testis is normal on palpation. Which of the following would be the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Abdominal Ultrasound is the imaging method of choice for varicocele.
      A varicocele is abnormal dilation and enlargement of the scrotal venous pampiniform plexus which drains blood from each testicle. While usually painless, varicoceles are clinically significant because they are the most commonly identified cause of abnormal semen analysis, low sperm count, decreased sperm motility, and abnormal sperm morphology. Varicoceles are far more common (80% to 90%) in the left testicle. If a left varicocele is identified, there is a 30% to 40% probability it is a bilateral condition.

      There are three theories as to the anatomical cause:

      – The Nutcracker effect which occurs when the left internal spermatic vein gets caught between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. This entrapment causes venous compression and spermatic vein obstruction.
      – Failure of the anti-reflux valve where the internal spermatic vein joins the left renal vein. This failure causes reflux and retrograde flow in the testicular vein.
      – Angulation at the juncture of the left internal spermatic vein and the left renal vein.

      Varicoceles are usually asymptomatic. The patient may describe a bag of worms if the varicocele is large enough. Varicoceles present as soft lumps above the testicle, usually on the left side of the scrotum. Patients may sometimes complain of pain or heaviness in the scrotum.
      A sudden onset of varicocele in a man over the age of 30 years requires the exclusion of renal tumours, particularly in elderly patients. In such cases it is necessary to extend diagnostic ultrasonography with abdominal examination. The diagnosis of varicocele is based on medical history and physical examination, which involves palpation and observation of the scrotum at rest and during the Valsalva manoeuvre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 51-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic accident. He complains of lower abdominal pain. On examination, fracture of the pelvis along with distended, tender bladder is observed.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urethral injury

      Explanation:

      Pelvic fractures may cause laceration of the urethra. Urinary retention, blood at the urethral meatus, and a high-riding prostate on digital rectal examination are the typical features of urethral injury.

      Up to 10% of male pelvic fractures are associated with urethral or bladder injuries. Urethral injury occurs mainly in males. It has two types.
      1.Bulbar rupture:
      a. most common
      b. mostly associated with straddle-type injury, e.g. from bicycles
      c. presentation with a triad of urinary retention, perineal haematoma, and blood at the meatus

      2. Membranous rupture:
      a. can be extra- or intraperitoneal
      b. occurs commonly due to pelvic fracture
      c. symptomology may include penile or perineal oedema/haematoma
      d. prostate displaced upwards (high-riding prostate)

      Ascending urethrogram is carried out in patients of suspected urethral injury. Suprapubic catheter is surgically placed and is indicated in:
      1. External genitalia injuries (i.e. the penis and the scrotum)
      2. Injury to the urethra caused by penetration, blunt trauma, continence- or sexual pleasure–enhancing devices, and mutilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 43 year old detective undergoes a vasectomy at the local hospital. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old detective undergoes a vasectomy at the local hospital. He is reviewed at the request of his general practitioner.
      On examination, he has a small rounded nodule adjacent to the vas. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sperm granuloma

      Explanation:

      A sperm granuloma is a lump of extravasated sperm that appears along the vasa deferentia or epididymides in vasectomized men.
      Sperm granulomas are rounded or irregular in shape, one millimetre to one centimetre or more, with a central mass of degenerating sperm surrounded by tissue containing blood vessels and immune system cells. Sperm granulomas can be either asymptomatic or symptomatic (i.e., either not painful or painful, respectively). If it is painful, it can be treated using over-the-counter anti-inflammatory /pain medication. If it causes unbearable discomfort, it may need to be surgically removed. However, they generally heal by themselves. Statistics suggest that between 15-40% of men may develop a granuloma post-vasectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30 year old woman complains of left sided abdominal pain that radiates...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old woman complains of left sided abdominal pain that radiates to her groin. Detailed workup reveals microscopic haematuria on dipstick. Which of the following would be the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ureteric calculus

      Explanation:

      The classic presentation of a ureteric colic is acute, colicky flank pain radiating to the groin. The pain is often described as the worst pain the patient has ever had experienced. Ureteric colic occurs as a result of obstruction of the urinary tract by calculi at the narrowest anatomical areas of the ureter: the pelviureteric junction (PUJ), near the pelvic brim at the crossing of the iliac vessels and the narrowest area, the vesicoureteric junction (VUJ). Location of pain may be related but is not an accurate prediction of the position of the stone within the urinary tract. As the stone approaches the vesicoureteric junction, symptoms of bladder irritability may occur.

      Calcium stones (calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate and mixed calcium oxalate and phosphate) are the most common type of stone, while up to 20% of cases present with uric acid, cystine and struvite stones.

      Physical examination typically shows a patient who is often writhing in distress and pacing about trying to find a comfortable position; this is, in contrast to a patient with peritoneal irritation who remains motionless to minimise discomfort. Tenderness of the costovertebral angle or lower quadrant may be present. Gross or microscopic haematuria occurs in approximately 90% of patients; however, the absence of haematuria does not preclude the presence of stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left side of his lower back. His parents both have a similar history of the condition. His urine tests positive for blood. A radio dense stone is seen in the region of the mid ureter when a KUB style x-ray is done. Which of the following is most likely the composition of the stone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystine stone

      Explanation:

      Answer: Cystine stone

      Cystinuria is a genetic cause of kidney stones with an average prevalence of 1 in 7000 births. Cystine stones are found in 1 to 2 percent of stone formers, although they represent a higher percentage of stones in children (approximately 5 percent). Cystinuria is an inherited disorder. Inherited means it is passed down from parents to children through a defect in a specific gene. In order to have cystinuria, a person must inherit the gene from both parents.
      Cystine is a homodimer of the amino acid cysteine. Patients with cystinuria have impairment of renal cystine transport, with decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of filtered cystine resulting in increased urinary cystine excretion and cystine nephrolithiasis. The cystine transporter also promotes the reabsorption of dibasic amino acids, including ornithine, arginine, and lysine, but these compounds are soluble so that an increase in their urinary excretion does not lead to stones. Intestinal cystine transport is also diminished, but the result is of uncertain clinical significance.

      Cystinuria only causes symptoms if you have a stone. Kidney stones can be as small as a grain of sand. Others can become as large as a pebble or even a golf ball. Symptoms may include:

      Pain while urinating
      Blood in the urine
      Sharp pain in the side or the back (almost always on one side)
      Pain near the groin, pelvis, or abdomen
      Nausea and vomiting

      Struvite stones are a type of hard mineral deposit that can form in your kidneys. Stones form when minerals like calcium and phosphate crystallize inside your kidneys and stick together. Struvite is a mineral that’s produced by bacteria in your urinary tract. Bacteria in your urinary tract produce struvite when they break down the waste product urea into ammonia. For struvite to be produced, your urine needs to be alkaline. Having a urinary tract infection can make your urine alkaline. Struvite stones often form in women who have a urinary tract infection.

      Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone. Kidney stones are solid masses that form in the kidney when there are high levels of calcium, oxalate, cystine, or phosphate and too little liquid. There are different types of kidney stones. Your healthcare provider can test your stones to find what type you have. Calcium oxalate stones are caused by too much oxalate in the urine.

      What is oxalate and how does it form stones?
      Oxalate is a natural substance found in many foods. Your body uses food for energy. After your body uses what it needs, waste products travel through the bloodstream to the kidneys and are removed through urine. Urine has various wastes in it. If there is too much waste in too little liquid, crystals can begin to form. These crystals may stick together and form a solid mass (a kidney stone). Oxalate is one type of substance that can form crystals in the urine. This can happen if there is too much oxalate, too little liquid, and the oxalate “sticks” to calcium while urine is being made by the kidneys.

      Uric acid stones are the most common cause of radiolucent kidney stones in children. Several products of purine metabolism are relatively insoluble and can precipitate when urinary pH is low. These include 2- or 8-dihydroxyadenine, adenine, xanthine, and uric acid. The crystals of uric acid may initiate calcium oxalate precipitation in metastable urine concentrates.
      Uric acid stones form when the levels of uric acid in the urine is too high, and/or the urine is too acidic (pH level below 5.5) on a regular basis. High acidity in urine is linked to the following causes:
      Uric acid can result from a diet high in purines, which are found especially in animal proteins such as beef, poultry, pork, eggs, and fish. The highest levels of purines are found in organ meats, such as liver and fish. Eating large amounts of animal proteins can cause uric acid to build up in the urine. The uric acid can settle and form a stone by itself or in combination with calcium. It is important to note that a person’s diet alone is not the cause of uric acid stones. Other people might eat the same diet and not have any problems because they are not prone to developing uric acid stones.
      There is an increased risk of uric acid stones in those who are obese or diabetic.
      Patients on chemotherapy are prone to developing uric acid stones.

      Only cystine stone is inherited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 36 year old woman arrives at the emergency department with signs of...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old woman arrives at the emergency department with signs of hypovolemic shock. Abdominal CT reveals a haemorrhagic lesion in the right kidney. Surgical resection of this lesion is carried out followed by a biopsy which reveals an angiomyolipomata. which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Tuberous sclerosis is a genetic disorder characterized by the growth of numerous noncancerous (benign) tumours in many parts of the body. These tumours can occur in the skin, brain, kidneys, and other organs, in some cases leading to significant health problems. Tuberous sclerosis also causes developmental problems, and the signs and symptoms of the condition vary from person to person.

      Virtually all affected people have skin abnormalities, including patches of unusually light-coloured skin, areas of raised and thickened skin, and growths under the nails. Tumours on the face called facial angiofibromas are also common beginning in childhood.

      Tuberous sclerosis often affects the brain, causing seizures, behavioural problems such as hyperactivity and aggression, and intellectual disability or learning problems. Some affected children have the characteristic features of autism, a developmental disorder that affects communication and social interaction. Benign brain tumours can also develop and these tumours can cause serious or life-threatening complications.

      Kidney tumours are common in people with tuberous sclerosis; these growths can cause severe problems with kidney function and may be life-threatening in some cases. Additionally, tumours can develop in the heart, lungs, and the retina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A young man is referred by his family doctor to the urologist after...

    Incorrect

    • A young man is referred by his family doctor to the urologist after having recurrent episodes of left flank pain. He was diagnosed with left sided PUJ obstruction as a little boy but he was lost to follow up. A CT scan is done and it shows considerable renal scarring. Which investigation should be done?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MAG 3 renogram

      Explanation:

      Answer: MAG 3 renogram

      This is the agent of choice due to a high extraction rate, which may be necessary for an obstructed system. Diuretic (furosemide) renogram is performed to evaluate between obstructive vs. nonobstructive hydronephrosis. The non-obstructive hydronephrosis will demonstrate excretion (downward slope on renogram) after administration of diuretic from the collecting system. Whereas mechanical obstructive hydronephrosis will show no downward slope on renogram, with retained tracer in the collecting system.

      Pelviureteric junction (PUJ) obstruction/stenosis can be one of the causes of an obstructive uropathy. It can be congenital or acquired with a congenital PUJ obstruction being one of the most common causes of antenatal hydronephrosis. This is defined as an obstruction of the flow of urine from the renal pelvis to the proximal ureter.
      Many cases are asymptomatic and identified incidentally when the renal tract is imaged for other reasons. When symptomatic, symptoms include recurrent urinary tract infections, stone formation and even a palpable flank mass. They are also at high risk of renal injury even by minor trauma.

      Symptom: Classically intermittent pain after drinking large volumes of fluid or fluids with a diuretic effect is described, due to the reduced outflow from the renal pelvis into the ureter.

      Tc-99m DMSA (dimercaptosuccinic acid) is a technetium radiopharmaceutical used in renal imaging to evaluate renal structure and morphology, particularly in paediatric imaging for detection of scarring and pyelonephritis. DMSA is an ideal agent for the assessment of renal cortex as it binds to the sulfhydryl groups in proximal tubules at the renal cortex with longer retention than other agents. This results in higher concentration and hence much higher resolution with pinhole SPECT imaging. Also, it allows better assessment of differential renal function. It is a static scan as opposed to dynamic DTPA or MAG3 scans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 23-year-old male presents with a persistent and unwanted erection that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male presents with a persistent and unwanted erection that has been present for the previous 7 hours. On examination, the penis is rigid and tender. Aspiration of blood from the corpus cavernosa shows dark blood. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirate further blood from the corpus cavernosa in an attempt to decompress

      Explanation:

      Priapism is defined as a prolonged penile erection lasting for >4 h in the absence of sexual stimulation and remains despite orgasm.

      The classification of priapism is conventionally divided into three main groups. The commonest classification is into non‐ischaemic (high flow), ischaemic (low flow), and stuttering (recurrent) subtypes.

      The EAU guidelines refer to the subtypes as ischaemic (low flow, veno‐occlusive) and arterial (high flow, non‐ischaemic). Of these, ischaemic priapism is the commonest, with refractory cases at risk of smooth muscle necrosis in the corpus cavernosum leading to sequelae of corporal fibrosis and erectile dysfunction (ED).

      One of the key considerations in the management of priapism is the duration of the erection at presentation.
      The EAU guidelines do differentiate the periods such that the intervention varies accordingly, which is particularly important for prolonged episodes that are refractory to pharmacological interventions and allow a step‐wise intervention.

      Ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency as the progressive ischaemia within the cavernosal tissue is associated with time‐dependent changes in the corporal metabolic environment, which eventually leads to smooth muscle necrosis. As the duration of the penile erection becomes pathologically prolonged, as in the case of low‐flow priapism, the partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) progressively falls as the closed compartment prevents replenishment of stagnant blood with freshly oxygenated arterial blood.
      Investigations using corporal blood aspiration, that in itself can be a therapeutic intervention leading to partial or complete penile detumescence, helps to differentiate ischaemic from non‐ischaemic priapism subtypes based on the pO2, pCO2 and pH levels. The AUA guidelines state that typically the blood gas analysis would give a pO2 of <30 mmHg and pCO2 of >60 mmHg and a pH of <7.25 in ischaemic priapism, whereas non‐ischaemic blood gas analysis would show values similar to venous blood. Once the diagnosis of priapism has been made, the initial management involves corporal blood aspiration followed by instillation of α‐agonists directly into the corpus cavernosum.
      The EAU guidelines recommend several possible agents for intracavernosal injection, as well as oral terbutaline after intracavernosal injection.
      Phenylephrine – 200 μg every 3–5 min to a maximum of 1 mg within 1 h.
      Etilephrine – 2.5 mg diluted in 1–2 mL saline.
      Adrenaline – 2 mL of 1/100 000 solution given up to 5 times in a 20‐min period.
      Methylene blue – 50–100 mg intracavernosal injection followed by aspiration and compression.

      Shunt surgery allows diversion of blood from the corpus cavernosum into another area such as the corpus spongiosum (glans or urethra) or the venous system (saphenous vein). Both the EAU and AUA guidelines recommend surgical intervention using firstly distal shunts and then proximal shunts in cases where aspiration and instillation of pharmacological agents fails to achieve penile detumescence. The EAU guidelines recommend that distal shunts should be attempted before proximal shunts, although the specific technique is left to the individual surgeon’s preference. The EAU guidelines also define a time point (36 h) when shunt surgery is likely to be ineffective in maintaining long‐term erectile function and may serve to reduce pain only. This is an important consideration when contemplating early penile prosthesis placement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 33 year old African woman presents with complaints of continuous dribbling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old African woman presents with complaints of continuous dribbling of urine after the birth of her second child. The woman denies any complications associated with her pregnancies except for prolonged labour. She is otherwise healthy and feels well. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vesicovaginal fistula

      Explanation:

      Vesicovaginal fistula (VVF) is an abnormal opening between the bladder and the vagina that results in continuous and unremitting urinary incontinence. It is one of the most distressing complications of gynaecologic and obstetric procedures. Vesicovaginal fistulae should be suspected in patients with continuous dribbling incontinence after prolonged labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old man presents with aching pain and discomfort in his right testicle....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with aching pain and discomfort in his right testicle. He has generally been feeling unwell for the past 48 hours as well. On examination, tenderness of the right testicle and an exaggerated cremasteric reflex has been found.

      What should be the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administration of antibiotics

      Explanation:

      This is likely a case of epididymo-orchitis which usually occurs due to infection with gonorrhoea or chlamydia in this age group (<35 years). Epididymo-orchitis is an acute inflammation of the epididymis and often involves the testis. It is usually caused by bacterial infection which spreads from the urethra or bladder. Amiodarone is a recognised non-infective cause of epididymitis, which resolves on stopping the drug. On examination, tenderness is usually confined to the epididymis, which may facilitate differentiating it from torsion where pain usually affects the entire testis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35 year old man arrives at the ED with abdominal pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old man arrives at the ED with abdominal pain. He is from Zimbabwe. Radiological scan of the abdomen reveals calcification of the urinary bladder. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schistosoma haematobium

      Explanation:

      The ova of Schistosoma haematobium are deposited in the wall of the bladder and ureters, where they evoke a granulomatous inflammatory reaction with eventual calcification of the bladder wall. The typical presentation is painful terminal haematuria. Secondary bacterial infection may occur, particularly with Pseudomonas, Proteus or Salmonella, especially following instrumentation of the bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 21-year-old woman is admitted with loin pain and fever. She has given...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman is admitted with loin pain and fever. She has given a history of haematuria for the past one week with associated dysuria, for which she was started on trimethoprim as an empirical outpatient treatment.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyelonephritis

      Explanation:

      This is most likely a case of pyelonephritis.

      Acute pyelonephritis is a common bacterial infection of the renal pelvis and kidneys most often seen in young adult women. History and physical examination are the most important tools for diagnosis. Most patients have fever, although it may be absent early in the illness. E. coli is the most common pathogen in acute pyelonephritis.

      For diagnosing the disease:
      1. A positive urinalysis confirms the diagnosis in patients with a compatible history and physical examination.
      2. Urine culture should be obtained in all patients to guide antibiotic therapy if the patient does not respond to initial empirical antibiotic regimens.
      3. Imaging, usually with contrast-enhanced CT scan, is not necessary unless there is no improvement in the patient’s symptoms or if there is recurrence of symptoms after initial improvement.

      Outpatient treatment is appropriate for most patients. Inpatient therapy is recommended for patients who have severe illness or in whom a complication is suspected. Oral beta-lactam antibiotics and trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole are generally inappropriate for outpatient therapy because of high resistance rates. Several antibiotic regimens can be used for inpatient treatment, including fluoroquinolones, aminoglycosides, and cephalosporins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 1 year old baby boy is taken to the doctor by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 year old baby boy is taken to the doctor by his mother who is concerned that she cannot feel his testis. On examination by the doctor, his testis are not palpable either in the scrotum or the inguinal region and cannot be seen on ultrasound either. Which of the following is the most appropriate next stage in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopy

      Explanation:

      Answer: Laparoscopy

      The diagnostic accuracy of laparoscopy for impalpable testis is well recognized. Approximately 20% of undescended testes are truly impalpable, and laparoscopy is actually regarded as the gold standard for their localization; none of the currently available imaging techniques (ultrasound, computerized tomography, or magnetic resonance imaging) has proven to be 100% reliable in predicting the presence or absence of a testis.
      In this respect, not only can laparoscopy be considered the most reliable tool to provide information on the location of the testis but also to confirm its absence.

      Undescended testes in boys is a very common congenital abnormality in which one or both testes does not reach the bottom of the scrotum prior to birth. The incidence of the condition is 3–5% among all boys at birth, and decreases to 0.8–1% after 6 months of age.
      Males with undescended testes have a lower sperm count, poorer quality sperm, and lower fertility rate, compared to males whose testicles descend normally; the rate of subfertility increases with bilateral involvement and increasing age at the time of orchidopexy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining of sudden onset of pain in the left hemiscrotum despite not having any other urinary symptoms. The superior pole of the testis is tender on examination and the cremasteric reflex is particularly marked. What would be the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatid

      Explanation:

      Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatid

      The appendix testis (or hydatid of Morgagni) is a vestigial remnant of the Müllerian duct, present on the upper pole of the testis and attached to the tunica vaginalis. It is present about 90% of the time. The appendix of testis can, occasionally, undergo torsion (i.e. become twisted), causing acute one-sided testicular pain and may require surgical excision to achieve relief. One third of patients present with a palpable blue dot discoloration on the scrotum. This is nearly diagnostic of this condition. If clinical suspicion is high for the serious differential diagnosis of testicular torsion, a surgical exploration of the scrotum is warranted. Torsion of the appendix of testis occurs at ages 0-15 years, with a mean at 10 years, which is similar to that of testicular torsion.

      Occasionally a torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni can produce symptoms mimicking those created by a testicular torsion; a torsion of the hydatid, however, does not lead to any impairment of testicular function.
      Absence of the cremasteric reflex is a sign of testicular torsion. This therefore confirms that the diagnosis is Torsion of a testicular hydatid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 34 year old man arrives at the clinic due to a painless...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old man arrives at the clinic due to a painless lump in his left teste. His blood tests and US point towards a teratoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Orchidectomy via an inguinal approach

      Explanation:

      Unlike other cancers for which a biopsy is performed, when testicular cancer is suspected the entire testicle is removed in a procedure called an orchiectomy through an incision in the groin and pulling the testicle up from the scrotum. A biopsy through the scrotum for testicular cancer runs the risk of spreading the cancer, and can complicate future treatment options. Removing the entire testicle out of the scrotum is the only safe way to diagnose for testicular cancer. Only the cancer-containing testicle is removed, and it is important to do so promptly.
      If there is any uncertainty, the urologists can examine the testicle by pulling the testicle out of the scrotum; if a condition other than testis cancer is found, the testicle is placed back into the scrotum.

      Testicular cancer is the most common malignancy in men aged 20-30 years. Around 95% of cases of testicular cancer are germ-cell tumours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 33-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic accident. He complains of lower abdominal pain. On examination, a fracture of the pelvis along with distended, tender bladder is observed.

      What should be the best step of management for distended bladder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suprapubic catheter

      Explanation:

      This patient has possible urethral injury based on the history. Urethral catheterisation is contraindicated in this situation.

      Up to 10% of male pelvic fractures are associated with urethral or bladder injuries. Urethral injury occurs mainly in males. It has two types.

      1.Bulbar rupture:
      a. most common
      b. mostly associated with straddle-type injury, e.g. from bicycles
      c. presentation with a triad of urinary retention, perineal haematoma, and blood at the meatus

      2. Membranous rupture:
      a. can be extra- or intraperitoneal
      b. occurs commonly due to pelvic fracture
      c. symptomology may include penile or perineal oedema/haematoma
      d. prostate displaced upwards (high-riding prostate)

      Ascending urethrogram is carried out in patients of suspected urethral injury. Suprapubic catheter is surgically placed and is indicated in:
      1. External genitalia injuries (i.e. the penis and the scrotum)
      2. Injury to the urethra caused by penetration, blunt trauma, continence- or sexual pleasure–enhancing devices, and mutilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 48 year old woman with episodes of recurrent urinary tract sepsis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 48 year old woman with episodes of recurrent urinary tract sepsis presents with a staghorn calculus of the right kidney. Her urinary pH is 7.8. An abdominal x-ray shows a faint outline of the calculus. What would be the most likely composition of the stone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Struvite

      Explanation:

      Staghorn calculi refer to branched stones that fill all or part of the renal pelvis and branch into several or all of the calyces. They are most often composed of struvite (magnesium ammonium phosphate) and/or calcium carbonate apatite. These stones are often referred to as ‘infection stones’ since they are strongly associated with urinary tract infections with urea splitting organisms. Small struvite and/or calcium carbonate apatite stones can grow rapidly over a period of weeks to months into large staghorn calculi involving the calyces and entire renal pelvis. If left untreated, this can lead to deterioration of kidney function and end-stage renal disease. In addition, since the stones often remain infected, there is a risk of developing sepsis. Thus, most patients require definitive surgical treatment.

      Struvite stones account for 15% of renal calculi. They are associated with chronic urinary tract infection (UTI) with gram-negative, urease-positive organisms that split urea into ammonia, which then combines with phosphate and magnesium to crystalize into a calculus. Usual organisms include Proteus, Pseudomonas, and Klebsiella species. Escherichia coli is not capable of splitting urea and, therefore, is not associated with struvite stones. Because ammonia, a base, is produced during the catalytic process, the urine pH is typically greater than 7.
      Underlying anatomical abnormalities that predispose patients to recurrent kidney infections should be sought and corrected. UTI does not resolve until the stone is removed entirely.
      This patient has a urine pH of 7.8 which is very alkaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 4-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother who has...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother who has noticed a swelling in the right hemiscrotum. On examination, there is a firm mass affecting the right spermatic cord distally, the testis is felt separately from it. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rhabdomyosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Rhabdomyosarcoma (RMS) is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children.
      Rhabdomyosarcoma usually manifests as an expanding mass. Tumours in superficial locations may be palpable and detected relatively early, but those in deep locations (e.g., retroperitoneum) may grow large before causing symptoms.
      Symptoms depend on the location of the tumour, and pain may be present. Typical presentations of nonmetastatic disease, by location, are as follows:
      Orbit: Proptosis or dysconjugate gaze
      Paratesticular: Painless scrotal mass, testes are felt separately
      Prostate: Bladder or bowel difficulties
      Uterus, cervix, bladder: Menorrhagia or metrorrhagia
      Vagina: Protruding polypoid mass (botryoid, meaning a grapelike cluster)
      Extremity: Painless mass
      Parameningeal (ear, mastoid, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, infratemporal fossa, pterygopalatine fossa): Upper respiratory symptoms or pain

      In the international classification of rhabdomyosarcoma, there are 5 recognized variants: embryonal, alveolar, botryoid embryonal, spindle cell embryonal and anaplastic. The most common variant is embryonal, most associated with tumours of the genitourinary tract and the head and neck. Histologically, the embryonal subtype resembles that of a 6- to an 8-week old embryo.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old man is involved in vigorous intercourse and suddenly feels a snap....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is involved in vigorous intercourse and suddenly feels a snap. His penis becomes swollen and painful immediately after. The admitting surgeon suspects a penile fracture.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate surgical exploration

      Explanation:

      Suspected penile fractures should be surgically explored and the injury repaired.

      Penile fractures are a rare type of urological trauma. The injury is usually in the proximal part of the penile shaft and may involve the urethra. A classical history of a snapping sensation followed by immediate pain is usually given by the patient (usually during vigorous intercourse). On examination, a tense haematoma is most commonly noted, and if the urethra is injured, blood may be seen at the meatus.

      The correct management involves surgical exploration and repair of the injury. A circumferential incision is made immediately inferior to the glans and the penile shaft is inspected. Injuries are usually sutured and the urethra is repaired over a catheter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 27-year-old male is admitted with left-sided loin pain that radiates to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male is admitted with left-sided loin pain that radiates to his groin. His investigations demonstrate a 9mm left-sided calculus within the proximal ureter. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a percutaneous extra corporeal shock wave lithotripsy

      Explanation:

      EAU Guidelines on Urolithiasis recommend that
      Proximal Ureteral Stone:
      < 10 mm: shock wave lithotripsy (SWL) or ureterorenoscopy (URS)
      > 10 mm: 1. URS (ante- or retrograde) 2. SWL

      Contraindications of extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy:
      – Pregnancy, due to the potential effects on the foetus.
      – Bleeding diatheses, which should be compensated for at least 24 hours before and 48 hours after
      treatment.
      – Uncontrolled UTIs
      – Severe skeletal malformations and severe obesity, which prevent targeting of the stone.
      – Arterial aneurysm in the vicinity of the stone.
      – Anatomical obstruction distal to the stone.

      Lowering shock wave frequency from 120 to 60-90 shock waves/min improves SFRs.
      The number of shock waves that can be delivered at each session depends on the type of lithotripter and shock wave power. There is no consensus on the maximum number of shock waves.
      Starting SWL on a lower energy setting with stepwise power (and SWL sequence) ramping can achieve vasoconstriction during treatment, which prevents renal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 51 year old male who had a kidney transplant a little over...

    Incorrect

    • A 51 year old male who had a kidney transplant a little over a year ago is concerned about deteriorating renal function over the past few weeks. Which of the following would be the most useful investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MAG 3 renogram

      Explanation:

      A renogram, which may also be known as a MAG3 scan, allows a nuclear medicine physician or a radiologist to visualize the kidneys and learn more about how they are functioning.
      After injection into the venous system, the compound is excreted by the kidneys and its progress through the renal system can be tracked with a gamma camera. A series of images are taken at regular intervals.

      If the kidney is not getting blood for example, it will not be viewed at all, even if it looks structurally normal in medical ultrasonography or magnetic resonance imaging. If the kidney is getting blood, but there is an obstruction inferior to the kidney in the bladder or ureters, the radioisotope will not pass beyond the level of the obstruction, whereas if there is a partial obstruction then there is a delayed transit time for the MAG3 to pass. More information can be gathered by calculating time activity curves; with normal kidney perfusion, peak activity should be observed after 3–5 minutes. The relative quantitative information gives the differential function between each kidney’s filtration activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 41-year-old man presents with a severe left-sided loin pain radiating to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man presents with a severe left-sided loin pain radiating to the groin. Imaging demonstrates a 2 mm left-sided calculus in the distal ureter. Renal function is normal.

      What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange to review the patient in two weeks with a KUB X-ray

      Explanation:

      As the stone is smaller in size, there is a strong likelihood (75%) of it to be passed spontaneously. Furthermore, distally sited stones are more likely to pass spontaneously than proximally sited ones. Hence, it should be arranged to review the patient in two weeks with a KUB X-ray.

      Urolithiasis affects up to 15% of the population worldwide. The development of sudden-onset, colicky loin to groin pain is a classical feature in the history. It is nearly always associated with haematuria that is either micro- or macroscopic. The most sensitive and specific diagnostic test is helical, non-contrast CT scanning.

      Management options for urolithiasis are:
      1. Most renal stones measuring <5mm in maximum diameter typically pass within four weeks of onset of symptoms. More intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteric obstruction, renal developmental abnormality such as horseshoe kidney, and previous renal transplant.
      2. Ureteric obstruction due to stones together with infection is a surgical emergency and the system must be decompressed. Options include nephrostomy tube placement, insertion of ureteric catheters, and ureteric stent placement.
      3. In the non-emergency setting, the preferred options for treatment include extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, percutaneous nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery (selected cases). Minimally invasive options are the most popular first-line treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Passmed