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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old primigravid woman is admitted to labor unit at 39 weeks of gestation, due to regular uterine contractions. Her cervix is 8 cm dilated and 100% effaced, with the fetus’ vertex at +1 station. Initially the fetal heart rate was 150 bpm, as the labor progressed, it falls to 80 bpm without any changes in the mother’s general condition.
Which among the following options would be the best next step in management of this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiotocography
Explanation:Bradycardia of <100 bpm for more than 5 minutes or <80 for more than 3 minutes is always considered abnormal. The given case describes fetal bradycardia detected on fetal heart auscultation and the most common causes for severe bradycardia are prolonged cord compression, cord prolapse, epidural and spinal anesthesia, maternal seizures and rapid fetal descent. Immediate management including identification of any reversible causes for the abnormality and initiation of appropriate actions like maternal repositioning, correction of maternal hypotension, rehydration with intravenous fluid, cessation of oxytocin, tocolysis for excessive uterine activity, and initiation or maintenance of continuous CTG should be considered in clinical situations where abnormal fetal heart rate patterns are noticed. Consideration of further fetal evaluation and delivery if a significant abnormality persists are very important. The next step in this scenario where the baby is in 1+ station, with an abnormal fetal heart rate detected on auscultation would be to perform a confirmatory cardiotocography (CTG) and if the CTG findings confirm the condition despite initial measures obtained, prompt action should be taken. Cord compression or prolapse should come on the top of the differential diagnoses list as the the mother shows normal general conditions, but since the cervix is 8 cm dilated, 100% effaced and the fetal head is already engaged, cord prolapse would be unlikely; therefore, repeating vaginal exam is not as important as confirmatory CTG. However a vaginal exam should be done, if the scenario indicates any possibility of cord prolapse, to exclude cord compression or prolapse. NOTE– In cases of severe prolonged bradycardia, immediate delivery is recommended, if the cause cannot be identified and corrected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism
Explanation:Contraindications to tocolysis in preterm labor are as follows:
– Gestational age > 34 weeks or <24 weeks
– Labor is too advanced with an advanced cervical dilation of >4 cm
– Abnormal CTG suggesting a non-reassuring fetal status
– Lethal fetal anomalies
– Intrauterine fetal demise
– Suspected fetal compromise
– Significant antepartum hemorrhage, such as placental abruption/ active vaginal bleeding with hemodynamic instability
– Any suspected intrauterine infections like chorioamnionitis
– Maternal hypotension
– Pregnancy-induced hypertension/ eclampsia/ pre-eclampsia
– Placenta previa
– Placental insufficiency
– Intrauterine growth retardation
– Maternal allergy to specific tocolytic agents or cases where tocolytics are contraindicated due to specific comorbidities like in case of cardiac disease, were beta agonists cannot be administered.As there are nonpulmonary morbidities associated with preterm birth, fetal pulmonary maturity, known or suspected, is not an absolute contraindication for tocolysis. These fetuses could potentially benefit from prolongation of pregnancy and from the nonpulmonary benefits of glucocorticoid therapy.
When cervical dilation is greater than 3 cm inhibition of preterm labor is less likely to be successful. In such cases Tocolysis can be considered when the goal is to administer antenatal corticosteroids or to safely transport the mother to a tertiary care center.
Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication to suppression of labor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman had a history of dilation and curettage for septic abortion. Currently, she has developed amenorrhea for 6 months already. It was also noted that she smokes 10 cigarettes and drinks 2 standard alcoholic drinks every day. She was tested for beta-hCG but it was not detectable.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step to establish a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Asherman syndrome (intrauterine adhesions or intrauterine synechiae) occurs when scar tissue forms inside the uterus and/or the cervix. These adhesions occur after surgery of the uterus or after a dilatation and curettage.
Patients with Asherman syndrome may have light or absent menstrual periods (amenorrhea). Some have normal periods based on the surface area of the cavity that is affected. Others have no periods but have severe dysmenorrhea (pain with menstruation).
Although two-dimensional sonography may suggest adhesive disease, Asherman syndrome is more often evaluated initially with saline sonography or hysterosalpingography to demonstrate the adhesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks. She complains of difficulty breathing and a distended belly. U/S scan was done showing polyhydramnios and an absent gastric bubble. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal atresia
Explanation:Oesophageal atresia of the foetus interrupts the normal circulation of the amniotic fluid. This causes polyhydramnios and subsequent distension of the uterus impacting proper expansion of the lungs. This would explain the difficulty breathing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at 19 weeks of gestation.
She is allergic to penicillin, with non-anaphylactic presentation.
Urine microscopy confirmed the diagnosis of urinary tract infection and culture result is pending.
From the options below, which is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cephalexin
Explanation:According to the laboratory reports, patient has developed urinary tract infection and should be treated with one week course of oral antibiotics.
As the patient is pregnant, antibiotics like cephalexin, co-amoxiclav and nitrofurantoin must be considered as these are safe during pregnancy.Due to this Patient’s allergic history to penicillin, cephalexin can be considered as the best option. Risk of cross allergy would have been higher if the patient had any history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin.
In Australia, Amoxicillin is not recommended to treat UTI due to resistance.Tetracyclines also should be avoided during pregnancy due to its teratogenic property.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A previous infant with Group B streptococcus disease regardless of present culture
Explanation:Group B Streptococcus (GBS) or Streptococcus agalactiae is a Gram-positive bacteria which colonizes the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract. In the United States of America, GBS is known to be the most common infectious cause of morbidity and mortality in neonates. GBS is known to cause both early onset and late onset infections in neonates, but current interventions are only effective in the prevention of early-onset disease.
The main risk factor for early-onset GBS infection is colonization of the maternal genital tract with Group B Streptococcus during labour. GBS is a normal flora of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, which is thought to be the main source for maternal colonization.
The principal route of neonatal early onset GBS infection is vertical transmission from colonized mothers during passage through the vagina during labour and delivery.
Intravenous penicillin G is the treatment of choice for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis against Group B Streptococcus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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All of the following statements regarding episiotomy are true, except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The earlier the episiotomy is done during delivery, generally the more beneficial it will be in speeding up delivery
Explanation:The best time of the episiotomy is when the presenting part becomes visible during the contractions. If the episiotomy is performed at the proper time, less time will be required for the delivery. However, if its done too late, it causes excessive stretching of the pelvic floor and further potential lacerations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary genital herpetic lesions at multiple sites in the genital area.
What is the most appropriate management in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prophylactic antiviral before 4 days before delivery
Explanation:This woman at her 37 weeks of gestation, has developed multiple herpetic lesions over her genitals. In every case were the mother develops herpes simplex infection after 28 weeks of pregnancy, chances for intrapartum and vertical transmission of the infection to the neonate is considered to be very high.
Risk factors of intrapartum herpes simplex infection of the child includes premature labour, premature rupture of membrane, primary herpes simplex infection and multiple lesion in the genital area.
The most appropriate methods for managing this case includes:
– checking for herpes simplex infection using PCR testing of a cervical swab.
– starting prophylactic antiviral therapy for the mother from 38 weeks of gestation until delivery.
– preferring a cesarean section delivery if there are active lesions present in the cervix and/or vulva.Cesarean delivery is advised in this case along with maternal antiviral therapy before delivery to minimise the risk of vertical transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of gestation comes to the hospital due to intense, constant lower abdominal pain.The patient got conceived via in-vitro fertilization and her prenatal course has been uncomplicated.Over the past 10 years, the patient has had 3 spontaneous abortions, all attributed to uterine leiomyoma.Two years ago, she had an abdominal myomectomy during which the uterine cavity was entered.
On examination her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline rate in the 140s with moderate variability and persistent variable decelerations to the 90s. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and last for 45 seconds, her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced.
Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laparotomy and cesarean delivery
Explanation:Uterine surgical history & scope of vaginal birth are as follows:
– In case of low transverse cesarean delivery with horizontal incision: trial of labor is not contraindicated.
– Classical cesarean delivery with vertical incision: trial of labor is contraindicated
– Abdominal myomectomy with uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is contraindicated
– Abdominal myomectomy without uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is not contraindicated.In laboring patients with prior uterine surgical histories like a prior classical (vertical) cesarean delivery or a prior myomectomy that was extensive or has entered the uterine cavity like during removal of intramural or submucosal fibroids are at a higher risk for uterine rupture. Given this patient’s history of previous myomectomy, her intense and constant abdominal pain with an abnormal fetal heart rate tracing, like persistent variable decelerations, are pointing to uterine rupture. vaginal bleeding, abdominally palpable fetal parts, loss of fetal station and any change in contraction pattern are the other possible manifestations of uterine rupture. Based on the extent and exact location of the rupture and the presence or absence of regional anesthesia, presentation of a uterine rupture will change.
Vaginal delivery is safe after a low transverse (horizontal uterine incision) cesarean delivery. Patients with a history of either classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy are delivered via cesarean delivery at 36-37 weeks gestation, so urgent laparotomy and cesarean delivery are required if these patients present in labor. Further management is determined by other intraoperative findings like, whether uterine rupture has occurred, if occured then delivery is done through the rupture site, followed by a uterine repair; If the uterus is unruptured, a hysterotomy (ie, cesarean delivery) is performed. In patients with prior classical cesarean delivery or extensive myomectomy, an expectant management for a vaginal delivery is contraindicated.
Amnioinfusion is the technique of placing an intrauterine pressure catheter to decrease umbilical cord compression by doing an intrauterine infusion and this thereby helps to resolve variable decelerations. In patients with a history of uterine surgery Amnioinfusion is contraindicated.
In cases with abnormal fetal heart rate tracings, if the patient is completely (10cm) dilated, an operative vaginal delivery can be performed to expedite a vaginal delivery.
Terbutaline is a tocolytic, which is administered to relax the uterus in conditions with contractile abnormalities, such as tachysystole which presents with >5 contractions in 10 minutes or tetanic contractions were contractions last for >2 minutes, which results in fetal heart rate abnormalities. In the given case, the patient’s contractions are normal, which occurs in every 2-3 minutes and lasts for 45 seconds, causing pain and cervical dilation.
After a classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy, labor and vaginal delivery are contraindicated due to its significant risk of uterine rupture. Laparotomy and cesarean delivery are preferred in laboring a patients at high risk of uterine rupture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who is multigravida and with breech presentation presented to the emergency department for vaginal delivery. Upon spontaneous rupture of the membranes, bradycardia and variable deceleration was noted on the fetal heart rate monitoring.
Vaginal examination was performed and revealed cord prolapse that is still pulsating.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange for emergency caesarean delivery
Explanation:Umbilical cord prolapse (UCP) occurs when the umbilical cord exits the cervical opening before the fetal presenting part. It is a rare obstetric emergency that carries a high rate of potential fetal morbidity and mortality. Resultant compression of the cord by the descending foetus during delivery leads to fetal hypoxia and bradycardia, which can result in fetal death or permanent disability.
Certain features of pregnancy increase the risk for the development of umbilical cord prolapse by preventing appropriate engagement of the presenting part with the pelvis. These include fetal malpresentation, multiple gestations, polyhydramnios, preterm rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, preterm delivery, and fetal and cord abnormalities.
The occurrence of fetal bradycardia in the setting of ruptured membranes should prompt immediate evaluation for potential cord prolapse.
In overt prolapse, the cord is palpable as a pulsating structure in the vaginal vault. In occult prolapse, the cord is not visible or palpable ahead of the fetal presenting part. The definitive management of umbilical cord prolapse is expedient delivery; this is usually by caesarean section.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a car accident while wearing a seatbelt.
On examination there are visible bruises on the abdomen but patient is otherwise normal. Fetal heart sounds are audible and are within normal parameters and CTG is reassuring.
Which of the following will be the best next step in management of this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit her and observe for 24 hours
Explanation:Trauma is a major contributor for maternal mortality and is one of the leading causes of pregnancy-associated maternal deaths.
As a result of maternal hypotension or hypoxemia, placental abruption, uterine rupture or fetal trauma a maternal trauma can compromise the fetus also.
Patient’s bruises on the abdomen which are seatbelt marks, are indications that this woman has positioned the seat belt incorrectly over the uterus. So there is a good chance that the uterus and its contents, including the fetus, has been affected by the impact. In a pregnant woman, the correct position of seat belt is when the lap belt is placed on the hip below uterus and the sash is placed between breasts and above the uterus.A minimum of 24-hour period monitoring is recommended for all pregnant women, apart from the routine trauma workup indicated in non-pregnant women, in case they have sustained trauma in the presence of any of the following:
– Regular uterine contractions
– Vaginal bleeding
– A non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
– Abdominal/uterine pain
– Significant trauma to the abdomenConsidering the bruises over her abdomen this patient should be considered as having significant abdominal trauma and must be kept under observation for a minimum of 24 hours. Such patients should not be discharged unless the clinician makes sure they do not have any complications like abruption or preterm labor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman who is pregnant has a blood pressure reading of 160/87 mmHg. You considered Pre-eclampsia. What symptom might be expected in a patient with uncomplicated pre-eclampsia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Extreme headache, vision defects, such as blurring of the eyes, rib pain, sudden swelling of the face, hands or feet are all consistent with pre-eclampsia. Women with the mentioned symptoms should have their blood pressure checked immediately. They should also be checked for proteinuria. Diarrhoea is not related to pre-eclampsia. Pruritus would be more related to pregnancy cholestasis. Meanwhile, bruising and abnormal LFTs are common in complicated pre-eclampsia but not in an uncomplicated one.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeks’ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with irregular uterine contractions for the past 24 hours and has concerns about premature delivery. She delivered her first child at 38 weeks of gestation and her second at 39 weeks gestation. On examination, BP and urinalysis have come back normal. Her symphysis-fundal height measures 27cm, the uterus is lax and non-tender. Fetal heart rate is 148/min. She also undergoes a pelvic examination along with other investigations.
Which findings would suggest that delivery is most likely going to happen before 30 weeks’ of gestation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The cervix is closed, but the fetal fibronectin test on cervical secretions is positive.
Explanation:Predisposing factors of preterm delivery include a short cervix (or if it shortens earlier than in the third trimester), urinary tract or sexually transmitted infections, open cervical os, and history of a previous premature delivery. Increased uterine size can also contribute to preterm delivery and is seen with cases of polyhydramnios, macrosomia and multiple pregnancies. The shorter the cervical length, the greater the risk of a premature birth.
In this case, the risk of bacterial vaginosis and candidiasis contributing to preterm delivery would be lower than if in the context of an open cervical os. However, the risk of premature delivery is significantly increased if it is found that the fetal fibronectin test is positive, even if the os is closed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman had just delivered a stillborn vaginally, following a major placental abruption. Choose the single most likely predisposing factor for developing PPH in this woman?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DIC
Explanation:Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) in pregnancy is the most common cause of an abnormal haemorrhage tendency during pregnancy and the puerperium. Although pregnancy itself can cause DIC, its presence is invariably evidence of an underlying obstetric disorder such as abruptio placentae, eclampsia, retention of a dead foetus, amniotic fluid embolism, placental retention or bacterial sepsis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old nulliparous woman admitted for term pregnancy with spontaneous labour shows no changes after a six-hour observation period despite membrane rupture, syntocinon infusion, and epidural anaesthesia. Pelvic examination shows failure of the cervix to dilate beyond 4cm and fetal head palpated at level of ischial spine (IS). The patient is diagnosed with obstructed labour.
Which of the following clinical features is mostly associated with this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is 4crn of head palpable abdominally.
Explanation:The most consistent finding in obstructed labour is a 4cm head that is palpable on the abdomen. The bony part is usually palpated at the level of the ischial spine on pelvic examination.
When prolonged labour is suspected, a pelvic vaginal examination helps to differentiate obstructed labour from inefficient/incoordinate labour.Findings in a pelvic examination:
Obstructed labour
moulding of fetal head ++
caput formation on the fetal head ++
cervical oedema – anterior lip oedema
fetal tachycardia ++
station of the head (relation to lowest part of ischial spines) – just at or above the IS
amount of head palpable above the pelvic brim when the lowest point of the head is at the IS – > 2 finger breadths (FB)Inefficient or incoordinate labour
moulding of fetal head usually none
caput formation on fetal head +
absent cervical oedema
fetal tachycardia +
station of the head (relation to lowest part of ischial spines) – can be above or below IS
amount of head palpable above the pelvic brim when the lowest point of the head is at the IS – < 1 finger breadth (FB). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman at her 26 weeks of gestation visits your office after she has noticed intermittent leakage of watery liquor per vagina for the past eight hours, especially after straining, coughing or sneezing.
Speculum vaginal exam reveals clear fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix, with flow of liquid through the cervical os. Further evaluation establishes preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM) as the diagnosis. No uterine contraction is felt and there is a tertiary hospital 50 km away.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administration of corticosteroids
Explanation:The case above gives a classic presentation of preterm premature rupture of membranes(PPROM). In term or near term women rupture of membrane harbingers labor, so if ROM does not end up in established labor in 4 hours, is called as premature ROM (PROM). In other words, PROM is defined as ROM before the onset of labor and if it occurs before 37 weeks, the preferred term is PPROM. In both these scenarios treatment approach will be different.
A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina, continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid, a sensation of wetness within the vagina or perineum are the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes(ROM), regardless of the gestational age. Pathognomonic symptoms symptoms of ROM are presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix.
PPROM is associated with many risk factors and some of them are as follows:
– Preterm labor
– Cord prolapse
– Placental abruption
– Chorioamnionitis
– Fetal pulmonary hypoplasia and other features of prematurity
– Limb positioning defects
– Perinatal mortality
Once the diagnosis is confirmed the following measures should be considered in the management plan:
a) Maternal corticosteroids
Adverse perinatal outcomes like respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and necrotizing enterocolitis can be effectively reduced using corticosteroids. The duration of using neonatal respiratory support, in case of respiratory distress, can be significantly reduced by the administration of corticosteroids. If preterm labor is a concern in cases were gestational age is between 23•0d and 34•6d weeks or if preterm birth is planned or expected within the next 7 days corticosteroids are indicated.
Recommended regimens to the woman are IM betamethasone in two doses of 11.4 mg, given 24 hours apart and if betamethasone is unavailable, IM dexamethasone given 24 hours apart in two doses of 12 mg.
A single repeat dose of corticosteroid given seven days or more after the first dose is suggestive in cases were the gestational age is less than 32• 6d, if the woman is still considered to be at risk of preterm labor, up to 3 repeated doses can be considered.
Another option is Tocolysis using nifedipine and is indicated if the woman is in labor. This helps in cessation of labor for at least 48 hours, providing a window for corticosteroid to establish its effects. Tocolysis is not indicated in cases with absence of uterine contractions suggestive of labor.
It is appropriate to transfer this woman to a tertiary hospital after administering the first doses of corticosteroid and antibiotics. This ensures optimal neonatal care in case of premature delivery.
As the patient needs investigations and fetal monitoring along with close observation for development of any signs of infection and preterm labor, it is not appropriate to discharge this patient on oral antibiotics
Admitting to a primary care center without neonatal ICU (NICU) does no good to the outcome of this patient. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35 year old primigravida was in labour for 24 hours and delivered after an induction. She developed postpartum haemorrhage. Which of the following is the most likely cause for PPH?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atonic uterus
Explanation:Uterine atony and failure of contraction and retraction of myometrial muscle fibres can lead to rapid and severe haemorrhage and hypovolemic shock. Poor myometrial contraction can result from fatigue due to prolonged labour or rapid forceful labour, especially if stimulated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A newborn male infant, born to a 30-year-old gravida 3 para 0 aborta 2 woman, who did not receive any prenatal care, is evaluated in the neonatal intensive care unit for growth restriction.The mother who presented for labor at approximately 38 weeks of gestation, had a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery due to fetal heart rate abnormalities.
The newborn's Apgar scores were 6 and 8 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively and his weight was 2.5 kg. Physical examination shows microcephaly, a wide anterior fontanelle, cleft palate and hypoplasia of the distal phalanges.
A history of which of the following will be obtained on further evaluation of the mother?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin use
Explanation:This infant will most likely be diagnosed as having fetal hydantoin syndrome, which occurs due to an in utero exposure to antiepileptic drugs like phenytoin, carbamazepine, valproate etc.Â
Multiple antiepileptics, due to their ability to cross placenta, have teratogenic effects which will result in low folate and high oxidative metabolite levels in the fetus. This likely combined effect results deformities like cleft lip and palate, wide anterior fontanelle, distal phalangeal hypoplasia and cardiac anomalies like pulmonary stenosis, aortic stenosis etc in the fetus. There will be developmental delay and poor cognitive outcomes as a result of neural tube defects and microcephaly associated with this. Therefore, prior to conception, those patients who require antiepileptics for seizure control during pregnancy should titrate it to the lowest dose and must started on high-dose (4 mg) folic acid supplementation to minimize the risk of such congenital malformations.
Fetal alcohol syndrome commonly presents with microcephaly and midfacial hypoplasia, but is not association with cleft lip or palate.
Cocaine use during pregnancy can be associated with preterm delivery, abruptio placentae and fetal growth restriction; but there is no evidence to prove its association with congenital defects.
Fetal renal failure with associated oligohydramnios that results in pulmonary hypoplasia, growth restriction, and limb defects are the complications associated with the use of lisinopril and other angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors during pregnancy; but it does not cause cleft lip or palate.
Most infants with congenital syphilis are asymptomatic at birth and those with symptoms typically have rhinitis or “snuffles, hepatomegaly and a maculopapular rash none of which are seen in this patient.
Fetal hydantoin syndrome results from the in-utero exposure to antiepileptic drugs like phenytoin, carbamazepine etc and is usually presented with microcephaly, a wide anterior fontanelle, cleft lip and palate, and distal phalangeal hypoplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Among the following conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism
Explanation:Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication for suppression of labour.
Suppression of labour known as tocolysis is contraindicated in situations like suspected foetal compromise, which is diagnosed by cardiotocograph warranting delivery, in cases of placental abruption, in chorioamnionitis, in severe pre-eclampsia, cases were gestational age is more than 34 weeks, in cases of foetal death in utero and in cases where palliative care is planned due to foetal malformations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms, and increased nervousness.
Along with TSH what other investigations should be done for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Free T4
Explanation:Patient mentioned in the case has developed thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy. TSH level should be tested, and if the result shows any suppressed or elevated TSH level, then it is mandatory to check for free T4 level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman in her 36 weeks of gestation, presents for her planned antenatal appointment.
On examination her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, in two consecutive readings 5 minutes apart.
Which among the following statements is true regarding gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-eclampsia involves other features in addition to the presence of hypertension
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia presents with other features in addition to the presence of hypertension, also it’s diagnosis cannot be made considered peripheral edema as the only presenting symptom. Proteinuria occurs more commonly in pre-eclampsia than in gestational hypertension and the latter is mostly asymptomatic.
Hypertensive disorders are found to complicate about 10% of all pregnancies. Common one among them is Gestational hypertension, which is defined as the new onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation without any maternal or fetal features of pre-eclampsia, in this case BP will return to normal within three months of postpartum.
Types of hypertensive disorders during pregnancy:
1. Pregnancy-induced hypertension:
a. Systolic blood pressure (SBP) above 140 mm of Hg and diastolic hypertension above 90 mmHg occurring for the first time after the 20th week of pregnancy, which regresses postpartum.
b. The rise in systolic blood pressure above 25 mm of Hg or diastolic blood pressure above 15 mm of Hg from readings before pregnancy or in the first trimester.
2. Mild pre-eclampsia:
BP up to 170/110 mm of Hg in the absence of associated features.
3. Severe pre-eclampsia:
BP above 170/110 mm of Hg and along with features such as kidney impairment, thrombocytopenia, abnormal liver transaminase levels, persistent headache, epigastric tenderness or fetal compromise.
4. Essential (coincidental) hypertension:
Chronic underlying hypertension occurring before the onset of pregnancy or persisting after postpartum.
5. Pregnancy-aggravated hypertension:
Underlying hypertension which is worsened by pregnancy.To diagnose pre-eclampsia clinically, presence of one or more of the following symptoms are required along with a history of onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation.
– Proteinuria: Above 300 mg/24 h or urine protein
reatinine ratio more than 30 mg/mmol.
– Renal insufficiency: serum/plasma creatinine above 0.09 mmol/L or oliguria.
– Liver disease: raised serum transaminases and severe epigastric or right upper quadrant pain.
– Neurological problems: convulsions (eclampsia); hyperreflexia with clonus; severe headaches with hyperreflexia; persistent visual disturbances (scotomata).
– Haematological disturbances like thrombocytopenia; disseminated intravascular coagulation; hemolysis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Large for gestational age
Explanation:Retarded skeletal growth resulting in small for gestational age babies are the usual outcomes of an untreated vitamin D deficiency in pregnancy.
Symptoms associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency during pregnancy are:
– Hypocalcemia in newborn.
– Development of Rickets later in life.
– Defective tooth enamel.
– Small for gestational age due to its effect on skeletal growth
– Fetal convulsions or seizures due to hypocalcemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old primigravid woman present to the emergency department.
She is at 40 weeks gestation and complains of a 24-hour history of no fetal movements.
On auscultation, fetal heart beats are clearly audible with a measurement of 140/min.
On diagnostic testing, the cardiotocograph (CTG) is normal and reactive.
On physical examination, her cervix is 2cm dilated and fully effaced.
She is reassured and allowed to return home.
24 hours later, she calls to complain she has still felt no fetal movements, adding up to a 48 hour history.
What is the best next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for induction of labour.
Explanation:Labour induction is indicated as no fetal movements have been felt for 24 hours, with a normal cardiotocograph (CTG) and the pregnancy is at near/full term with a favourable cervix.
Amniotic fluid volume assessment would have been indicated 24 hours earlier as, if it was low, induction would have been indicated then, despite a normal CTG.
Ultrasound examination of the foetus is not indicated as it is necessary to expedite delivery.
Carrying out another CTG, with or without oxytocin challenge, is not indicated, although MG monitoring during induced labour would be mandatory.
Delivery immediately by Caesarean section is not indicated unless the lack of fetal movements is due to fetal hypoxia. This can result in fetal distress during labour, necessitating an emergency Caesarean section if the cervix is not fully dilated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Galactorrhoea (non-gestational lactation) may result from all of the following EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrapartum haemorrhage
Explanation:Pituitary tumours, the most common pathologic cause of galactorrhoea can result in hyperprolactinemia by producing prolactin or blocking the passage of dopamine from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. Approximately 30 percent of patients with chronic renal failure have elevated prolactin levels, possibly because of decreased renal clearance of prolactin. Primary hypothyroidism is a rare cause of galactorrhoea in children and adults. In patients with primary hypothyroidism, there is increased production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone, which may stimulate prolactin release. Nonpituitary malignancies, such as bronchogenic carcinoma, renal adenocarcinoma and Hodgkin’s and T-cell lymphomas, may also release prolactin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dating ultrasound together with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97%
Explanation:Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.
The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A patient, in her third pregnancy with a history of two consecutive spontaneous abortions, presents at 12 weeks of gestation. She has had regular menstrual cycles, lasting 30 days in duration. Just prior to coming for her assessment, she reports passing a moderate amount of blood with clots per vaginally along with some intermittent lower abdominal pain. On examination, her cervical canal readily admitted one finger. Bimanual palpation found a uterus corresponding to the size of a pregnancy of 8 weeks duration.
Which is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vaginal ultrasound.
Explanation:It is essential to notice the important details mentioned in the case scenario. These would be the details about her menstruation, a smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix. A smaller than expected uterine size could be caused by her passing out some tissue earlier or it could be due to the foetus having been dead for some time. The finding of an open cervix would be in line with the fact that she had passed out some fetal tissue or it could signify that she is experiencing an inevitable miscarriage (while all fetal tissue is still kept within her uterus).
The likely diagnoses that should be considered for this case would be miscarriage (threatened, incomplete, complete and missed), cervical insufficiency, and ectopic pregnancy. A smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix makes threatened abortion an unlikely diagnosis. Her clinical findings could be expected in both an incomplete abortion and a complete abortion.
In ectopic pregnancy, although there would be a smaller than dates uterus, the cervical os would usually be closed. Cervical insufficiency is probable due to an open os but the uterine size would be expected to correspond to her dates, making it also less likely than a miscarriage.Since she most likely has had a miscarriage (be it incomplete or complete), the next best step would be to do a per vaginal ultrasound scan which could show whether or not products of conception are still present within the uterine cavity. If present, it would be an incomplete miscarriage which would warrant a dilatation and curettage; if absent, it is a complete miscarriage so D&C would not be needed.
In view of her open cervix and 12 weeks of amenorrhea, there is no indication for a pregnancy test nor assessment of her beta-hCG levels. Cervical ligation would only be indicated if the underlying issue was cervical incompetence, which is not in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman had a C-section due to pre-eclampsia. She now complains of right upper quadrant pain unrelated to the surgical wound. Which of the following investigations should be done immediately?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LFT
Explanation:There is a high risk of developing HELLP syndrome in pre-eclamptic patients. Considering that she is complaining of right upper quadrant pain, a LFT should be done immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Lidiya is a 30-year-old hospital nurse in her nine weeks of pregnancy. She has no history of chickenpox, but by regularly attending the facial sores of an elderly patient with herpes zoster ophthalmicus she has been significantly exposed to shingles.
What would you advise her as preventive management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If she had chicken pox immunization in the past, she needs to have her Varicella-Zoster IgG antibodies checked to assure immunity
Explanation:Patient in the given case is nine weeks pregnant, and she has been exposed to a herpes zoster rash because she is working as a hospital nurse and has no prior history of chickenpox.
The most appropriate next step in this case would be checking for Varicella-Zoster IgG antibodies which assures immunity to varicella infections. If VZV IgG is present no further action is needed, but if VZV IgG antibodies are absent, then she will need Varicella Zoster Immunoglobulins within ten days from the exposure to shingles. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at her 18 weeks gestational age for an unscheduled visit due to right-sided groin pain. She describes the pain as sharp in nature, which is occurring with movement and exercise and that the pain will be alleviated with application of a heating pad. She denies any change in urinary or bowel habits and there is no fever or chills.
What would be the most likely etiology of pain in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Round ligament pain
Explanation:The patient is presenting with classic symptoms of round ligament pain.
Round ligaments are structures which extends from the lateral portion of the uterus below to the oviduct and will travel downward in a fold of peritoneum to the inguinal canal to get inserted in the upper portion of the labium majus. As the gravid uterus grows out of pelvis during pregnancy, these ligaments will stretch, mostly during sudden movements, resulting in a sharp pain. Due to dextrorotation of uterus, which occurs commonly in pregnancy, the round ligament pain is experienced more frequently over the right side. Usually this pain improves by avoiding sudden movements, by rising and sitting down gradually, by the application of local heat and by using analgesics.As the patient is not experiencing any symptoms like fever or anorexia a diagnosis of appendicitis is not likely. Also in pregnant women appendicitis often presents as pain located much higher than the groin area as the growing gravid uterus pushes the appendix out of pelvis.
As the pain is localized to only one side of groin and is alleviated with a heating pad the diagnosis of preterm labor is unlikely. In addition, the pain would persist even at rest and not with just movement in case of labor.
As the patient has not reported of any urinary symptoms diagnosis of urinary tract infection is unlikely.
Kidney stones usually presents with pain in the back and not lower in the groin. In addition, with a kidney stone the pain would occur not only with movement, but would persist at rest as well. So a diagnosis of kidney stone is unlikely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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All of the following statements is considered incorrect regarding the management of deep vein thrombosis in pregnancy, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warfarin therapy is contraindicated throughout pregnancy but safe during breast feeding
Explanation:Anticoagulant therapy is the standard treatment for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) but is mostly used in non-pregnant patients. In pregnancy, unfractionated heparin (UFH) and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) are commonly used. Warfarin therapy is generally avoided in pregnancy because of its fetal toxicity.
Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy, but is safe to use postpartum and is compatible with breastfeeding. Low-molecular-weight heparin has largely replaced unfractionated heparin for prophylaxis and treatment in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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