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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male has symptoms of carcinoid syndrome. Which of the following is the most effective therapeutic agent in controlling the symptoms?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Octreotide
Explanation:Carcinoid syndrome occurs in ∼20% of cases of well-differentiated endocrine tumours of the jejunum or ileum (midgut neuroendocrine tumours (NET) and consists of (usually) dry flushing (without sweating; 70% of cases) with or without palpitations, diarrhoea (50% of cases) and intermittent abdominal pain (40% of cases); in some patients, there is also lacrimation and rhinorrhoea.
Carcinoid syndrome occurs less often with NETs of other origins and is very rare in association with rectal NETs. It is usually due to metastasis to the liver, with the release of vasoactive compounds, including biogenic amines (e.g., serotonin and tachykinins), into the systemic circulation. However, it may also occur in the absence of liver metastases if there is direct retroperitoneal involvement, with venous drainage bypassing the liver. Pain due to hepatic enlargement may also be a presenting feature, as may upper right abdominal pain (similar to that of pulmonary infarction) secondary to either haemorrhage into, or necrosis of, a hepatic secondary tumour. Wheezing and pellagra are less common presenting features. CHD is present in ∼20% of patients at presentation and usually indicates that the syndrome has been present for several years.The aim of treatment should be curative where possible but it is palliative in the majority of cases.
Surgery is the only curative treatment.
Administration of specific medications to treat symptoms should, therefore, start as soon as clinical and biochemical signs indicate the presence of hypersecretory NETs, even before the precise localisation of primary and metastatic lesions is confirmed.The only proven hormonal management of NETs is by the administration of somatostatin analogues.
Somatostatin analogues bind principally to SSTR subtypes 2 (with high affinity) and 5 (with lower affinity), thus inhibiting the release of various peptide hormones in the gut, pancreas and pituitary; they also antagonise growth factor effects on tumour cells, and, at very high dosage, may induce apoptosis. The effects of somatostatin analogues are demonstrable as biochemical response rates (inhibition of hormone production) in 30–70% of patients and as symptomatic control in the majority of patients.
There are two commercially available somatostatin analogues: octreotide and lanreotide. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35 year old opera singer undergoes a thyroidectomy and post-operatively, he develops stridor and is unable to speak. What is the best explanation for this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
Explanation:This patient has aphonia due to bilateral damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve. Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) injury is rare for benign thyroid lesions (0.2%). After extubation-stridor, respiratory distress, aphonia occurs due to the closure of the glottic aperture necessitating immediate intervention and emergency intubation or tracheostomy. Intra-operative identification and preservation of the RLN minimizes the risk of injury.
The recurrent laryngeal nerves control all intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle. These muscles act to open, close, and adjust the tension of the vocal cords, and include the posterior cricoarytenoid muscles, the only muscle to open the vocal cords. The nerves supply muscles on the same side of the body, with the exception of the interarytenoid muscle, which is innervated from both sides.The nerves also carry sensory information from the mucous membranes of the larynx below the lower surface of the vocal fold, as well as sensory, secretory and motor fibres to the cervical segments of the oesophagus and the trachea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man has a tissue defect measuring 3 x 1 cm, following the excision of a lipoma from the scapula. What should be the best option for managing the wound?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Direct primary closure
Explanation:This wound should be managed by primary closure as there is minimal associated tissue loss and the surgery is minor and uncontaminated.
Primary wound closure is the fastest type of closures, and is also known as healing by primary intention. Wounds that heal by primary closure have a small, clean defect that minimizes the risk of infection and requires new blood vessels and keratinocytes to migrate only a small distance. Standard methods of suturing are usually sufficient for primary wound closure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old cleaner is admitted after a fall. She is haemodynamically unstable and a CT has shown a massive retroperitoneal haematoma. She is on warfarin. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infusion of human prothrombin complex and vitamin K
Explanation:Active, serious haemorrhage due to Warfarin should be treated with four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC), if available.
While costly, an essential advantage FFP confers to emergency care is that, in contrast to FFP, it results in a more rapid reversal of coagulopathy and does not require thawing or blood group typing. Additionally, it has a reduced risk of volume overload, transfusion-related acute lung injury, transfusion reactions, and infectious disease transmission. Despite these advantages, no mortality benefit has been proven for PCC compared with FFP.
Alternatively, recombinant factor VIIa (rFVIIa) has been reported to be effective in rapidly lowering INR due to warfarin toxicity and may be considered if PCC is not available. FFP is effective at lowering the INR and was historically first-line therapy for warfarin toxicity with serious or life-threatening bleeding, although it has now been superseded by PCC, which lowers the INR more rapidly. If PCC or rFVIIa is not available, 4 units of FFP may be administered instead.
Administer vitamin K1, 10 mg, by slow IV infusion, -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 34 year old woman arrives at the clinic with a goitre and is diagnosed with autoimmune thyroiditis. She is most likely to develop which of the following types of cancers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymphoma
Explanation:Pre-existing chronic autoimmune (Hashimoto’s) thyroiditis is the only known risk factor for primary thyroid lymphoma and is present in approximately one-half of patients. Among patients with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, the risk of thyroid lymphoma is at least 60 times higher than in patients without thyroiditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 68 year old woman has undergone surgical repair of her femoral hernia. The surgeon used bipolar diathermy for haemostasis. Which of the following options would be regarded as the greatest risk with the usage of bipolar diathermy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fires when used near alcoholic skin preparations that have pooled
Explanation:An operating room fire is rare but a well-known hazard that can result in significant patient morbidity. When it comes to the disposal of surgical spirits, the SPC for chlorhexidine states: ‘The solution is flammable. The risk of surgical fires due to spirit-based skin preparation fluid should be actively reduced. Data from the US show that up to 650 surgical fires occur each year, with up to 5% causing death or serious harm.
Diathermy use electric currents to produce local heat and thereby facilitate haemostasis or surgical dissection. There are two major types of diathermy:
1. Monopolar – current flows through a handheld device, from the tip of the device into the patient. The earth electrode is located some distance away.
2. Bipolar – current flows from one electrode to another however, both electrodes are usually contained within the same device e.g. a pair of forceps. The result is that heating is localised to the area between the two electrodes and surrounding tissue damage is minimised. However this may create a spark and ignite flammable solutions. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 8 year old boy presents with bleeding from the nose. From which area did the bleeding most likely originate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kiesselbach's plexus
Explanation:Answer: Kiesselbach’s plexus
Epistaxis is defined as acute haemorrhage from the nostril, nasal cavity, or nasopharynx. The source of 90% of anterior nosebleeds within the Kiesselbach’s plexus (also known as Little’s area) on the anterior nasal septum.
Kiesselbach’s plexus (Kiesselbach’s area or Little’s area) is a vascular region of the anteroinferior nasal septum that comprises four arterial anastomoses:
1)anterior ethmoidal artery – a branch of the ophthalmic artery
2)sphenopalatine artery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male patient is undergoing an open appendicectomy. The surgeons extend the incision medially and suddenly encounter troublesome bleeding.
What should be the best course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ligate the bleeding vessel
Explanation:Medial extension of an appendicectomy incision carries a risk of injury to the inferior epigastric artery which can bleed briskly. It is best managed by ligation.
Bleeding is a complication encountered in all branches of surgery. The decision as to how best to manage the bleed, depends upon its site, vessel, and circumstances.
1. Superficial dermal bleeding:
This will usually cease spontaneously. If not, then direct use of a monopolar or a bipolar cautery device will usually control the situation. Scalp wounds are a notable exception and bleeding from them may be brisk. In this situation, use of a mattress suture as a wound closure method will usually address the problem.2. Superficial arterial bleeding:
If the vessel can be safely identified in superficial arterial bleeding, then the easiest method is to apply a haemostatic clip and ligate the vessel.3. Major arterial bleeding:
If the vessel can be clearly identified and is accessible, then it may be possible to apply a clip and ligate the vessel. If the vessel is located in a pool of blood, then blind application of haemostatic clips is highly dangerous and may result in collateral injury. In this situation, evacuating the clot and packing the area is often safer. The pack can then be carefully removed when the required instruments are available. Some vessels may retract and bleeding may then be controlled by dissection of surrounding structures or underrunning the bleeding point.4. Major venous bleeding:
The safest initial course of action is to apply digital pressure to the bleeding point. To control the bleeding, thereafter, the surgeon will need a working suction device. Divided veins may require ligation.5. Bleeding from raw surfaces:
This may be mixed bleeding and can be troublesome. Spray diathermy and argon plasma coagulation are both useful agents. Certain topical haemostatic agents, such as surgicel, are useful in encouraging clot formation and may be used in conjunction with, or instead of, the above agents. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35 year old man presents to his family doctor with swelling of his face.
On examination, the swelling was noted to be to the below and to the left of his nose. When the area is palpated, it feels like the underlying bone is cracking.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ameloblastoma
Explanation:Ameloblastoma is a rare, benign or cancerous tumour of odontogenic epithelium (ameloblasts, or outside portion, of the teeth during development) much more commonly appearing in the lower jaw than the upper jaw.
Ameloblastomas can be found both in the maxilla and mandible. Although, 80% are situated in the mandible with the posterior ramus area being the most frequent site. The neoplasms are often associated with the presence of unerupted teeth, displacement of adjacent teeth and resorption of roots.Symptoms include a slow-growing, painless swelling leading to facial deformity. As the swelling gets progressively larger it can impinge on other structures resulting in loose teeth and malocclusion. Bone can also be perforated leading to soft tissue involvement.
The lesion has a tendency to expand the bony cortices because of the slow growth rate of the lesion allows time for the periosteum to develop a thin shell of bone ahead of the expanding lesion. This shell of bone cracks when palpated. This phenomenon is referred to as Egg Shell Cracking or crepitus, an important diagnostic feature.
Maxillary ameloblastomas can be dangerous and even lethal. Due to thin bone and weak barriers, the neoplasm can extend into the sinonasal passages, pterygomaxillary fossa and eventually into the cranium and brain. Rare orbital invasion of the neoplasm has also been reported.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 58 year old woman is scheduled for the exploration of the common bile duct and insertion of a T tube. Which of the following devices would be most appropriately used in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Latex T tube on passive drainage
Explanation:The special part of the equipment is the T tube itself. As the name refers, it is a special tube in the shape of T with a shorter transverse part (20 cm) that stays inside the CBD (after trimming) and a long longitudinal part (60 cm) that extends from the middle of the transverse part to an end that connects with a drainage bag. This portion extends from the CBD to outside the abdominal cavity when applied. It comes with different circumference sizes (10, 12, 14, 16, 18 Fr). T tube can be made of different materials like latex, silicone, red rubber and polyvinyl chloride (PVC). PVC is very inert causing the least tissue reaction with lack of tissue tract formation making it the least favourable material for T tube placement purposes. Silicon has many favourable physical properties, but it can disintegrate with poor handling making it not a practical option for long-term placement. Latex has the desired properties to be the most commonly used. Red rubber is an alternative if latex can not be used or is not available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 7 year old girl is taken to her family doctor because her mother is concerned that she has a small epithelial defect anterior to the left ear and it has been noted to discharge foul smelling material for the past 3 days. What is the most likely explanation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre auricular sinus
Explanation:The preauricular sinus is a benign congenital malformation of the preauricular soft tissues. Mostly it is noted during routine ear, nose and throat examination, though can present as an infected and discharging sinus. Preauricular sinus is more often unilateral, only occasionally are bilateral forms inherited. The right side is more often involved and females more than males. Most sinuses are clinically silent, eventual, however not rare, appearance of symptoms is related to an infectious process. Erythema, swelling, pain and discharge are familiar signs and symptoms of infection. The most common pathogens causing infection are Staphylococcal species and, less frequently Proteus, Streptococcus and Peptococcus species.
Courses of treatment typically include the following:
– Draining the pus occasionally as it can build up a strong odour
– Antibiotics when infection occurs.
– Surgical excision is indicated with recurrent fistula infections, preferably after significant healing of the infection.
In case of a persistent infection, infection drainage is performed during the excision operation. The operation is generally performed by an appropriately trained specialist surgeon e.g. a otolaryngologist or a specialist General Surgeon.
The fistula can be excised as a cosmetic operation even though no infection appeared. The procedure is considered an elective operation in the absence of any associated complications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman is due to undergo a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following intra-abdominal pressures should typically be set on the gas insufflation system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10 mmHg
Explanation:A pressure of 10 mmHg should be set on the gas insufflation system.
Laparoscopic surgery may be performed in a number of body cavities. In some areas, irrigation solutions are preferred. In the abdomen, however, insufflation with carbon dioxide gas is commonly used. The amount of gas delivered is adjusted to maintain a constant intra-abdominal pressure of 12–15 mmHg. Excessive intra-abdominal pressure may reduce venous return and lead to hypotension. Too little insufflation will risk obscuring the surgical view.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old man undergoes incision and drainage of an axillary abscess. How should the wound be managed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Packing with alginate dressing
Explanation:The wound of this patient should be packed with alginate dressing. Abscess wounds should not undergo primary closure. Moreover, use of gauze is inappropriate and would be difficult to redress.
Alginate dressings are absorbent wound care products that contain sodium and calcium fibres derived from seaweed. An individual dressing is able to absorb up to 20 times its own weight. These dressings, which are easy to use, mold themselves to the shape of the wound, which helps ensure that they absorb wound drainage properly. In abscesses requiring incision and drainage, alginate dressings are well-tolerated and their removal causes minimal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 33 year old woman presents with a history of recurrent infections and abscesses in the neck. Examination reveals a midline defect with an overlying scab which moves upwards on tongue protrusion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroglossal cyst
Explanation:Congenital neck masses are developmental anomalies typically seen in infants or children. Common conditions include thyroglossal duct cysts, branchial cleft cysts, and cystic hygromas. These malformations present as painless neck masses, which can cause dysphagia, respiratory distress, and neck pain due to compression of surrounding structures. The location of the mass depends on the embryological structure the cysts arise from. Diagnosis is made based on clinical findings and imaging results (ultrasound, CT, MRI), which also help in surgical planning. Treatment consists of complete surgical resection to prevent recurrence and complications such as infection or abscess formation.
The thyroglossal cyst is present from birth and usually detected during early childhood. It presents as a painless, firm midline neck mass, usually near the hyoid bone, which elevates with swallowing and tongue protrusion. May cause dysphagia or neck/throat pain if the cyst enlarges. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 21 year old female presents to the clinic with axillary lymphadenopathy and symptoms suggestive of Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following tests should be done?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Excision biopsy of a lymph node
Explanation:Answer: Excision biopsy of a lymph node
Hodgkin lymphoma is an uncommon cancer that develops in the lymphatic system, which is a network of vessels and glands spread throughout your body. In Hodgkin lymphoma, B-lymphocytes (a particular type of lymphocyte) start to multiply in an abnormal way and begin to collect in certain parts of the lymphatic system, such as the lymph nodes (glands). The affected lymphocytes lose their infection-fighting properties, making you more vulnerable to infection. The most common symptom of Hodgkin lymphoma is a painless swelling in a lymph node, usually in the neck, armpit or groin.
A histologic diagnosis of Hodgkin lymphoma is always required. An excisional lymph node biopsy is recommended because the lymph node architecture is important for histologic classification.Features of Hodgkin lymphoma include the following:
Asymptomatic lymphadenopathy may be present (above the diaphragm in 80% of patients)
Constitutional symptoms (unexplained weight loss [>10% of total body weight] within the past 6 months, unexplained fever >38º C, or drenching night sweats) are present in 40% of patients; collectively, these are known as B symptoms
Intermittent fever is observed in approximately 35% of cases; infrequently, the classic Pel-Ebstein fever is observed (high fever for 1-2 week, followed by an afebrile period of 1-2 week)
Chest pain, cough, shortness of breath, or a combination of those may be present due to a large mediastinal mass or lung involvement; rarely, haemoptysis occurs
Pruritus may be present
Pain at sites of nodal disease, precipitated by drinking alcohol, occurs in fewer than 10% of patients but is specific for Hodgkin lymphoma
Back or bone pain may rarely occur
A family history is also helpful; in particular, nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma (NSHL) has a strong genetic component and has often previously been diagnosed in the family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 10 year old child presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the midline. Oropharyngeal examination confirms this finding and you also notice petechial haemorrhages affecting the oropharynx. On systemic examination he is noted to have splenomegaly. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infection
Explanation:Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infection
The Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.
EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:
fever,
fatigue,
swollen tonsils,
headache, and
sweats,
sore throat,
swollen lymph nodes in the neck, and
sometimes an enlarged spleen.
Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 51 year old female presents with a sensation of grittiness in her eyes which has been present for the past few months. She also complains of symptoms of a dry mouth. On examination, she is seen with a swelling of her parotid gland. However, she has no evidence of facial nerve palsy. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sjogren's syndrome
Explanation:Sjogren syndrome (SS) is a long-term autoimmune disease that affects the body’s moisture-producing glands. Primary symptoms are a dry mouth and dry eyes. Other symptoms can include dry skin, vaginal dryness, a chronic cough, numbness in the arms and legs, feeling tired, muscle and joint pains, and thyroid problems. Those affected are at an increased risk (5%) of lymphoma. It primarily affects women in their peri and post-menopausal years of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 36 year old opera singer is admitted for a right thyroid lobectomy. Post operatively, he is unable to sing high notes. Which muscle is likely to demonstrate impaired function?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cricothyroid
Explanation:Thyroidectomy has been reported as the most frequent cause of external branch of superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) injury.
Diagnosis of EBSLN injury may be difficult because the symptoms are nonspecific in many cases. However, advanced diagnostic techniques have revealed the incidence to be relatively high, ranging from 5 to 28%. Paralysis of the EBSLN causes difficulty with high pitch phonation and decreased pitch range secondary to failure of cricothyroid muscle stimulation and lack of tension in the vocal cord. This symptom may be extremely serious for professional voice users. EBSLN injury can also cause vocal fatigue, hoarseness, breathy sounding voice, and vocal nodules. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65 year old man with a longstanding history of severe osteoarthritis of the hip is scheduled to undergo a total hip replacement. The skin has been prepared and antibiotics administered. Which of the following would be the most important precaution in reducing the risk of infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laminar flow theatre
Explanation:Laminar flow theatres aim to reduce the number of infective organisms in the theatre air by generating a continuous flow of bacteria free air. In laminar flow theatres air may be ‘changed’ in theatre more than 300 times per hour compared to standard positive pressure theatre rates of 15-25 air changes per hour.
Shaving skin on the ward increases infection rates and extended chemoprophylaxis increases the risk of antibiotic associated diarrhoea -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female presents to the oncology clinic after noticing a painless neck lump. On examination, she is noted to have bilateral thyroid masses and multicentric nodules near the base of the thyroid. Her corrected calcium level is 2.18 mg/dL.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia
Explanation:Based on the aforementioned findings in this case, the most likely diagnosis is medullary carcinoma of the thyroid associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN).
Medullary thyroid cancer is a tumour of the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid and is neural crest in origin. It may be familial and occur as part of the MEN 2A disease spectrum. Less than 10% of thyroid cancers are of this type with patients typically presenting as children or young adults. Diarrhoea occurs in 30% of the cases. In association with MEN syndromes, medullary thyroid cancers are always bilateral and multicentric. Spread may either be lymphatic or haematogenous, and as these tumours are not derived primarily from thyroid cells, they are not responsive to radioiodine.
Toxic nodular goitre is very rare. In sporadic medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, patients typically present with a unilateral solitary nodule and it tends to spread early to the lymph nodes in neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female underwent an acute cholecystectomy for cholecystitis. A drain is left during the procedure. Over the next 5 days, the drain has been accumulating between 100-200ml of bile per 24 hour period. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an ERCP
Explanation:Bile leak may be classified into a minor leak with low output drainage (<300 ml of bile/24 hours) or leaks due to major bile duct injury with high output drainage (>300 ml/24 hours).
The majority of minor bile leak results from Strasberg type A injuries with intact biliary-enteric continuity and includes leaks from cystic duct (CD) stump (55%-71%) or small (less than 3 mm) subsegmental duct in gall bladder (GB) bed (16%) and minor ducts like cholecystohepatic duct or supravesicular duct of Luschka (6%). An injury to the supravesicular duct occurs if the surgeon dissects into the liver bed while separating the gall bladder. This duct does not drain the liver parenchyma.
A leak from the cystic duct stump may occur from clip failure due to necrosis of the stump secondary to thermal injury/pressure necrosis or when clips are used in situations where ties are appropriate (acute cholecystitis) and in a significant majority from distal bile duct obstruction caused by a retained stone and resultant blow out of the cystic stump.
Strasberg type C and type D injuries usually present with a minor leak as well. The former results when an aberrant right hepatic duct (RHD) or right posterior sectoral duct (RPSD) is misidentified as the CD and divided because of the anomalous insertion of CD into either of these ducts.
Type D injuries are lateral injuries to the extrahepatic ducts (EHD) caused by cautery, scissors or clips.High output biliary fistulas are the result of major transactional injury of EHD (Strasberg type E). Here the common bile duct (CBD) is misidentified as the CD and is clipped, divided and excised. This not only results in a segmental loss of the EHD but often associated with injury or ligation of right hepatic artery as well. Such devastating injuries are peculiar to LC and have been described by Davidoff as “classic laparoscopic biliary injury”.
Early recognition is the most important part of the management of bile leak due to iatrogenic injuries.
Unfortunately, most of the bile duct injuries are not recognized preoperatively. Optimal management of BDI detected postoperatively requires good coordination between the radiologist, endoscopists and an experienced hepatobiliary surgeon.There is a scope of re-laparoscopy, within 24 hours of surgery, in situations where a low output fistula (<300 ml/day) is confirmed (by reviewing the operative video), to be because of a slipped CD clip. Through lavage, clipping or tying the CD stump with an endoloop may be a simple solution. Such an approach is not useful after 24 hours as inflammatory adhesions and oedema will make the job difficult. If low output controlled biliary fistula is detected after 24 hours, a wait and watch policy should be followed as many of the minor leaks will close within 5 to 7 days. If the leak fails to resolve or if the drainage amount is >300 ml/day (high output), an ERCP should be performed both to delineate the biliary tree and some therapeutic interventions if indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30 year old welder presents to his family doctor with symptoms of chronic ear discharge and a left-sided facial nerve palsy. On examination, he has foul smelling fluid draining from his left ear and a complete left-sided facial nerve palsy. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholesteatoma
Explanation:A cholesteatoma consists of squamous epithelium that is trapped within the skull base and that can erode and destroy important structures within the temporal bone. They often become infected and can result in chronically draining ears. Treatment almost always consists of surgical removal. The majority (98%) of people with cholesteatoma have ear discharge or conductive hearing loss or both in the affected ear.
Other more common conditions (e.g. otitis externa) may also present with these symptoms, but cholesteatoma is much more serious and should not be overlooked. If a patient presents to a doctor with ear discharge and hearing loss, the doctor should consider cholesteatoma until the disease is definitely excluded.
Other less common symptoms (all less than 15%) of cholesteatoma may include pain, balance disruption, tinnitus, earache, headaches and bleeding from the ear. There can also be facial nerve weakness. Balance symptoms in the presence of a cholesteatoma raise the possibility that the cholesteatoma is eroding the balance organs in the inner ear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is undergoing an appendicectomy for perforated appendicitis. What is the single most important modality for reducing the risks of postoperative wound infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perioperative administration of antibiotics
Explanation:Perioperative administration of antibiotics is very important for reducing the risks of postoperative wound infection. Clips make infections easier to manage but do not reduce the risks. Drains have no effect on the skin wounds in these cases.
Surgical site infections (SSI) comprise up to 20% of all healthcare-associated infections and at least 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result. SSIs may occur following a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. The organisms are mostly derived from the patient’s own body.
SSIs are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
Some preoperative measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
1. Shaving the wound using a razor (disposable clipper preferred)
2. Tissue hypoxia
3. Delayed administration of prophylactic antibiotics in tourniquet surgerySSIs can be prevented by taking certain precautionary steps pre-, intra-, and postoperatively.
1. Preoperatively:
a. Do not remove body hair routinely
b. If hair needs removal, use electrical clippers (razors increase the risk of infection)
c. Antibiotic prophylaxis if:
– placement of prosthesis or valve
– clean-contaminated surgery
– contaminated surgery2. Intraoperatively:
a. Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
b. Cover surgical site with dressing3. Postoperatively:
a. Prevention of incisional infection by appropriate cleansing, skin care, and moisture management
b.Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wound healing by secondary intention -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy suffers 20% burns to the torso. On examination, there is fixed pigmentation and the affected area has a white and dry appearance. Which of the following options represents the best management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Split thickness skin graft
Explanation:Burn depth is classified as first, second, third, or fourth degree, as follows:
First-degree burns are usually red, dry, and painful. Burns initially termed first-degree are often actually superficial second-degree burns, with sloughing occurring the next day.
Second-degree burns are often red, wet, and very painful. Their depth, ability to heal, and propensity to form hypertrophic scars vary enormously.
Third-degree burns are generally leathery in consistency, dry, insensate, and waxy. These wounds will not heal, except by contraction and limited epithelial migration, with resulting hypertrophic and unstable cover. Burn blisters can overlie both second- and third-degree burns. The management of burn blisters remains controversial, yet intact blisters help greatly with pain control. Debride blisters if infection occurs.
Fourth-degree burns involve underlying subcutaneous tissue, tendon, or bone. Usually, even an experienced examiner has difficulty accurately determining burn depth during an early examination. As a general rule, burn depth is underestimated upon initial examination.The management plan for patients with large burns that require inpatient care is usually determined by the physiology of the burn injury.
Hospitalization is divided into 4 general phases, including (1) initial evaluation and resuscitation, (2) initial wound excision and biologic closure, (3) definitive wound closure, and (4) rehabilitation and reconstruction.Early excision and closure of full-thickness wounds change the natural history of burn injury, avoiding the otherwise common occurrence of wound sepsis. Wound size is the most important factor in determining the need for early operation
Medications
See the list below:
– Silver sulfadiazine – Broad antibacterial spectrum; painless application
– Aqueous 0.5% silver nitrate – Broad-spectrum coverage, including fungi; leeches electrolytes
– Mafenide acetate – Broad antibacterial spectrum; penetrates eschar best
– Petrolatum – Bland and nontoxic
– Various debriding enzymes – Useful in selected partial-thickness wounds
– Various antibiotic ointments – Useful in many superficial partial-thickness wounds
Membranes
See the list below:
– Porcine xenograft – Adheres to wound coagulum and provides excellent pain control
– Split-thickness allograft – Vascularizes and provides durable temporary closure of wounds
– Various hydrocolloid dressings – Provide vapour and bacteria barrier while absorbing wound exudate
– Various impregnated gauzes – Provide vapour and bacteria barrier while allowing drainage
– Various semipermeable membranes – Provide vapour and bacteria barrier
– Acticoat (Westhaim Biomedical, Saskatchewan, Canada) – Nonadherent wound dressing that delivers a low concentration of silver for antisepsis
– Biobrane (Dow-Hickman, Sugarland, Tex) – Synthetic bilaminate that facilitates fibrovascular tissue growth into the inner layer and provides temporary vapour and bacteria barrier
– Transcyte (Smith and Nephew, Largo, Fla) – Synthetic bilaminate that facilitates fibrovascular tissue growth into the inner layer populated with allogenic fibroblasts and overlying layer that provides temporary vapour and bacteria barrier
– AlloDerm R – Consists of cell-free allogenic human dermis; requires an immediate thin overlying autograft
– Integra R – Provides scaffold for neodermis; requires delayed thin autograft -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old male undergoes an elective right hemicolectomy. A stapled ileocolic anastomosis is constructed. Eight hours later he becomes tachycardic and passes approximately 600ml of dark red blood per rectum. Which of the following processes is the most likely explanation for what happened?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anastomotic staple line bleeding
Explanation:Complications related to stapled anastomoses include bleeding, device failure, and anastomotic failure, which include stricture or leak.
Stricture: Patient discomfort, need for additional procedures
Bleeding: Hemodynamic implications, difficult intraoperative visualization
Anastomotic leak: Increase in local recurrence, decreased overall survival, sepsis, need for diverting ostomy, increased hospital cost, increased use of hospital resources, decreased quality of life.
Anastomotic bleeding is a common complication of stapled anastomoses, and it can lead to hemodynamic instability and anaemia, sometimes requiring transfusion or additional procedures. To this end, there are efforts aimed at reducing staple line haemorrhage by using buttressing techniques. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 17 year old girl presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the midline. Examination confirms the finding and petechial haemorrhages affecting the oropharynx are observed. Splenomegaly is seen on systemic examination. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infection with Epstein Barr virus
Explanation:Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infection
The Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.
EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:
fever,
fatigue,
swollen tonsils,
headache, and
sweats,
sore throat,
swollen lymph nodes in the neck, and
sometimes an enlarged spleen.
Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.
Petechiae on the palate are characteristic of streptococcal pharyngitis but also can be seen in Epstein–Barr virus infection, Arcanobacterium haemolyticum pharyngitis, rubella, roseola, viral haemorrhagic fevers, thrombocytopenia, and palatal trauma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with unilateral facial paralysis after being hit on the head. On examination, he has a right-sided facial nerve palsy and watery discharge from the nose.
What is the most likely underlying cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Petrous temporal fracture
Explanation:Nasal discharge of clear fluid and a recent head injury makes basal skull fracture the most likely underlying cause for facial nerve palsy.
Facial palsy is a neurological condition in which function of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is partially or completely lost. It is often idiopathic (Bell’s palsy) but in some cases, specific causes such as trauma (e.g. temporal bone fracture), infections, or metabolic disorders can be identified. Two major types are distinguished:
1. Central facial palsy—lesion occurs between cortex and nuclei in the brainstem
2. Peripheral facial palsy—lesion occurs between nuclei in the brainstem and peripheral organsDiagnosis can usually be made clinically while patient’s history often helps in evaluating the underlying aetiology.
Patients with basal skull fracture following head injury (as in this case) exhibit Battle’s sign on examination. It is an indication of fracture of middle cranial fossa of the skull and consists of bruising over the mastoid process as a result of extravasation of blood along the path of the posterior auricular artery. Clinical presence of CSF leak further supports the diagnosis.Assessment options for basal skull fracture include CT and MRI scan. Idiopathic facial nerve palsy is treated with oral glucocorticoids and, in severe cases, with antivirals. Treatment of the other types depends on the underlying cause. Prophylactic antibiotics are given in cases of CSF leak.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 68 year old woman who underwent a mastectomy with axillary node clearance for breast cancer is going to have a drain inserted to prevent seroma development. Which of the following devices should ideally be used?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A closed suction drainage system made of polypropylene
Explanation:A surgical drain is a tube used to remove pus, blood or other fluids from a wound. They are commonly placed by surgeons or interventional radiologists. Suction is applied through the drain to generate a vacuum and draw fluids into a bottle. Following breast surgery, it is standard practice to use a Redivac type system that is made of polypropylene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old female presents with a swelling located at the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The swelling is intermittent. On examination, it is soft and fluctuant. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Branchial cyst
Explanation:Branchial cleft cysts are congenital anomalies that usually arise from second cleft/pouch, with remnants of the third and fourth pouch are rare. Children are typically born with these congenital lesions; however, they may not be evident for weeks, months, or possibly years. The lesions present as fistulae, cyst, sinus tracts, or cartilaginous remnants due to incomplete obliteration during embryogenesis.
They are often asymptomatic, but can often become tender, enlarged, or inflamed with possible abscess formation during episodes of upper respiratory tract infections.
The patient can present with purulent drainage of the sinus to skin or pharynx from spontaneous rupture of branchial cleft cyst abscess. The most concerning symptoms include dysphagia, dyspnoea, and stridor due to cyst compression of the upper airway.The physical examination will differ depending on the location of the branchial cleft cyst:
– A primary branchial cleft cyst is typically smooth, non-tender, fluctuant mass found between the external auditory canal and submandibular area. It is usually with the parotid gland and facial nerve. Two types of lesions exist. Type 1 is rare and characterized as duplication of the membranous external auditory canal. Type 2 lesions contain both ectoderm and mesoderm elements including cartilage. The patient usually presents with soft tissue mass or draining sinus located on the angle of the mandible or otorrhea, making an otologic exam critical in these cases.
– A secondary branchial cleft cyst is located between the lower anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid and the tonsillar fossa of the pharynx. It can be in proximity to the glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal nerve as well as carotid vessels. Compared to the primary branchial cleft cysts, secondary cysts are tender if secondarily inflamed or infected. If it is associated with a sinus tract, a mucoid or purulent discharge may be present on the skin or into the pharynx.The treatment of a branchial cleft cyst is typically elective excision due to the risk of infection or present infection, further enlargement, or malignancy.
– Carotid Body Tumour: Painless oropharyngeal or upper anterior triangle of the neck; pulsatile, compressible with a bruit or thrill, mobile from medial to lateral direction.
– Bartonella henselae infection is Isolated, mobile, fluctuant, tender, warm, erythematous, > 2 cm near the site of inoculation.
– Thyroglossal duct cyst: In the Midline, adjacent to the hyoid bone; rises with deglutition. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female undergoes a low anterior resection for rectal cancer. The procedure is performed as open surgery, what is the most appropriate method for closure of the abdominal wall?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mass closure of the abdomen obeying Jenkins rule using 1 PDS
Explanation:A midline incision is the most commonly used route of access to the abdominal cavity.
Peritoneal closure
A number of randomized, controlled trials have shown no benefit to peritoneal closure; thus, refraining from closing the peritoneum is a commonly accepted practice. Some surgeons believe that closure of the peritoneum reduces adhesions between the abdominal contents and the suture line; however, at this time, there is only limited scientific evidence for this belief.
Fascial closure
The technique of fascial closure is highly variable among surgeons; however, the various approaches may be grouped into two primary methods as follows:
Layered closure
Mass closure
Layered closure is the sequential closure of each fascial layer individually. The primary advantage of this method is that multiple suture strands exist so that if a suture breaks, the incision is held intact by the remaining sutures.
Mass closure is continuous fascial closure with a single suture. This method allows even distribution of tension across the entire length of the suture, resulting in minimization of tissue strangulation. The goal is an approximation of tissue edges to allow scar formation. Excessive tension leads to tissue necrosis and eventual failure of the closure.
The theoretical disadvantage of mass closure is that a single suture is responsible for maintaining the integrity of the closure. The benefits of mass closure include decreased cost and decreased operating time. There is no evidence that mass closure is associated with an increased incidence of hernia formation or wound dehiscence.
When rectus muscle is incorporated, using absorbable suture and a loose closure in order to decrease postoperative pain and tissue necrosis is important. The assistant following the continuous closure should apply sufficient tension to approximate the tissue without strangulating it. The suture is run in 1-cm intervals (maximally), with at least a 1-cm bite of fascia in each throw.
The two primary methods of skin closure are with suture or staples. Suture closure is generally performed with 3-0 or 4-0 absorbable suture in a running subcuticular fashion or with nylon running or interrupted transdermal suture. Staple closure is a viable alternative to suturing the skin. In a study comparing scar cosmesis at 6 months, no difference in appearance existed in patients with suture versus staple skin closure
What is Jenkins Rule?
It is a rule for closure of the abdominal wound. It states that for a continuous suture, the length of suture used should be at least four times the length of the wound with sutures 1cm apart and with 1cm bites of the wound edge -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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