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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman presents with an itching and bleeding pigmented lesion on her right thigh. What should be the most appropriate step of management?
Your Answer: Core biopsy
Correct Answer: Excision biopsy
Explanation:This may be a case of malignant melanoma. Excision biopsy is required to allow accurate histological assessment. If the diagnosis is confirmed, re-excision of margins may be required. Incisional or punch biopsy of lesions suspected to be melanoma is avoided.
Various options used for the treatment of skin lesions include:
1. Trucut biopsy
2. Punch biopsy
3. Excision biopsy
4. Wide excision biopsy
5. Incisional biopsy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Skin Lesions
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and a persistent cough. His blood smear showed an increase in cells with large bi-lobed nuclei. Which of these cells represent the one seen on the smear?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monocytes
Explanation:Monocytes are white cells that protect the body against harmful pathogens. They are mobile and are produced in the bone marrow, mature there and circulate in the blood for about 1-3 days, where they enter the tissues and transform into macrophages. They are characteristically identified by their large bi-lobed nuclei.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A histological examination of a lump showed an abnormal amount and arrangement of normal tissue in an otherwise normal area. This condition is known as?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hamartoma
Explanation:A hamartoma is a condition best described as tissue normally present in an area arranged haphazardly in an disorganized, abnormal fashion. They are never malignant and do not metastasis.
All the neoplastic, cancerous lesions comprise of a mixture of different cells that are not normal to that area.
Metaplasia is a change in the type of the epithelium. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the 5-year survival rate of carcinoma of the pancreas?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30 per cent
Explanation:Pancreatic cancer typically has a poor prognosis, partly because the cancer usually initially remains symptomless, leading to locally advanced or metastatic disease at the time of diagnosis. Median survival from diagnosis is around 3–6 months. Even in those suitable for resectional surgery, 5-year survival rates are still only 30 per cent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methicillin
Explanation:Bacterial meningitis (including meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae meningitis, and staphylococcal meningitis) is a neurologic emergency that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Initiation of empiric antibacterial therapy is therefore essential for better outcomes. The patient appears to be suffering from meningitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Methicillin would be the drug of choice . It is bactericidal and unlike streptomycin and chloramphenicol it is not associated with toxicity
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30 year old woman complains of left sided abdominal pain that radiates to her groin. Detailed workup reveals microscopic haematuria on dipstick. Which of the following would be the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ureteric calculus
Explanation:The classic presentation of a ureteric colic is acute, colicky flank pain radiating to the groin. The pain is often described as the worst pain the patient has ever had experienced. Ureteric colic occurs as a result of obstruction of the urinary tract by calculi at the narrowest anatomical areas of the ureter: the pelviureteric junction (PUJ), near the pelvic brim at the crossing of the iliac vessels and the narrowest area, the vesicoureteric junction (VUJ). Location of pain may be related but is not an accurate prediction of the position of the stone within the urinary tract. As the stone approaches the vesicoureteric junction, symptoms of bladder irritability may occur.
Calcium stones (calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate and mixed calcium oxalate and phosphate) are the most common type of stone, while up to 20% of cases present with uric acid, cystine and struvite stones.
Physical examination typically shows a patient who is often writhing in distress and pacing about trying to find a comfortable position; this is, in contrast to a patient with peritoneal irritation who remains motionless to minimise discomfort. Tenderness of the costovertebral angle or lower quadrant may be present. Gross or microscopic haematuria occurs in approximately 90% of patients; however, the absence of haematuria does not preclude the presence of stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has less side effects than heparin and is used in the prophylaxis and treatment of venous and arterial thrombotic disorders. Which of the following is LMWHs mechanism of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of factor Xa
Explanation:Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is a anticoagulant that differs from normal heparin in that it has only short chains of polysaccharide. LMWH inhibits thrombin formation by converting antithrombin from a slow to a rapid inactivator of coagulation factor Xa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia. Where is the likely infarct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right occipital lobe
Explanation:The man has a left homonymous hemianopia which means he is unable to view objects in the left visual field. This information is processed by the right primary visual cortex which lies in the right occipital lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 51 year old man undergoes a live donor renal transplant. The donor's right kidney is anastomosed to the recipient. On removal of the arterial clamps there is good urinary flow and the wounds are closed. While he is in the ward, it is observed that the he suddenly becomes anuric. Irrigation of the bladder does not improve the situation. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal artery thrombosis
Explanation:Renal vein thrombosis (RVT) is the formation of a clot in the vein that drains blood from the kidneys, ultimately leading to a reduction in the drainage of one or both kidneys and the possible migration of the clot to other parts of the body.
Venous thrombosis is a rare occurrence, occurring in 0.5% of kidney transplants. With aggressive treatment,
i.e. thrombectomy, the chances of success are very poor, but treatment is successful in rare cases. More often, patients are treated with transplantectomy.The left side is preferred for live donor transplants due to longer renal vein while right side has been associated with renal vein thrombosis and shorter vessels.
With the iliac artery anatomically located lateral to iliac vein, one would need a longer vein in the graft to enable the graft placement in the iliac fossa, its final location. Most renal transplant surgeons would intuitively prefer to implant a graft harvested from the left side. The right kidney has a simpler anatomy for retrieval, with no adrenal or lumbar veins to tackle. However, a long artery and short vein make this kidney’s anatomy skewed for grafting. Studies on cadavers have shown significantly shorter right renal vein length (average 13.7%) on the right side. With its weak posterior wall, there is an added risk of tear of the right renal vein if there is tension during anastomosis. Overzealous manoeuvres and stretching of a short vein during retrieval, or handling during allografting may also risk intimal damage, a possible aetiology for some early reports of right grafts lost to renal vein thrombosis following laparoscopic harvest.
Recommendations:
• On the right, lengthen the renal vein with the infra renal vena cava in order to avoid an anastomosis
under tension.
• Carry out a large venous anastomosis; at declamping, if the renal vein is tight, re-do the venous anastomosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Organ Transplantation
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Lack of findings in the bladder but presence of atypical epithelial cells in urinalysis is most often associated with which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma of renal pelvis
Explanation:The presence of atypical cells in urinalysis without findings in the bladder suggests a lesion located higher up, most probably in ureters or renal pelvis. Transitional cell cancer of the renal pelvis is a disease in which malignant cells form in the renal pelvis and is characterised by the presence of abnormal cells in urine cytology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman complains of left sided headaches which have been recurring for several years. She recently suffered from a focal seizure for the first time a few days ago. A CT scan shows a mass in the left hemisphere of the brain. The most likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meningioma
Explanation:Meningiomas are a common benign intracranial tumour, and their incidence is higher in women between the ages of 40-60 years old. Many of these tumours are asymptomatic and are diagnosed incidentally, although some of them may have malignant presentations (less than 2% of cases). These benign tumours can develop wherever there is dura, over the convexities near the venous sinuses, along the base of the skull, in the posterior fossa and, within the ventricles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves has its terminal branch at the supratrochlear nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontal
Explanation:The supratrochlear nerve is a branch of the frontal nerve which comes from the ophthalmic division of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). It passes above the superior oblique nerve and its descending filaments join the infratrochlear branch of the nasociliary nerve. From the orbit, it exits between the supraorbital foramen and the pulley of the superior oblique. It then curves up to the forehead beneath the corrugator supercilli and frontalis muscle. It further divides into branches that supply sensory innervation to the bridge of the nose, medial part of the upper eyelid and medial forehead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 13
Incorrect
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In a study, breast lumps were analysed to determine the characteristic of malignant neoplasm on biopsy. What microscopic findings are suggestive of malignancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Invasion
Explanation:Invasion is suggestive of malignancy and an even better option would have been metastasis. Pleomorphism is found in both benign and malignant neoplasms along with atypia and anaplasia. A height nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio is suggestive of malignancy but not the best indicator. Malignant tumours are aggressive and growth rapidly. Necrosis can be seen in benign tumours if they deplete their blood supply.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A histopathological analysis of a specimen showed loss of individual cell structure with karyorrhexis and fragmentation. The overall integrity of the tissue structure is preserved. This is typical of which of the following pathologies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis
Explanation:Viral infections will cause necrosis of the hepatocytes with characteristic changes of karyorrhexis and cell fragmentation.
Brown atrophy of the heart is due to accumulation of lipofuscin in the myocardium.
Tissue destruction associated with transplant rejection leads to widespread loss of structural integrity.
Single cell necrosis is not characteristically seen in chronic alcoholic liver.
Barbiturate overdose will result in hypertrophy of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Carcinoma insitu will cause dysplastic cells without the overall structural integrity being disrupted.
Atrophy is due to apoptosis with ordered cellular fragmentation and phagocytosis and will not induce an inflammatory process unlike necrosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35 year old woman with jaundice is scheduled for ERCP. However, the procedure is complicated and she is returned to the ward, with signs of jaundice still present accompanied by severe abdominal pain that is generalized. What should be the next best step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an abdominal CT scan
Explanation:Complications of ERCP include pancreatitis, duodenal perforation, duodenal haemorrhage, infection, stent migration, and complications secondary to endoscopy. CT is performed if patients have severe abdominal pain, jaundice, elevated white blood cell count, and fever after ERCP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which type of thyroid tumour represents 75 - 80% of thyroid cancer cases? This type is predominant in children and in patients who have had a previous history of head or neck radiation.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Papillary carcinoma
Explanation:Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common thyroid cancer. This cancer has a high cure rate with 10-year survival rates for all patients with papillary thyroid cancer estimated at 80% to 90%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome developed generalised oedema. What is the mechanism for the development of oedema in patients with nephrotic syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased colloid osmotic pressure
Explanation:The development of oedema in nephrotic syndrome has traditionally been viewed as an underfill mechanism. According to this view, urinary loss of protein results in hypoalbuminemia and decreased plasma oncotic pressure. As a result, plasma water translocates out of the intravascular space and results in a decrease in intravascular volume. In response to the underfilled circulation, effector mechanisms are then activated that signal the kidney to secondarily retain salt and water. While an underfill mechanism may be responsible for oedema formation in a minority of patients, recent clinical and experimental findings would suggest that oedema formation in most nephrotic patients is the result of primary salt retention. Direct measurements of blood and plasma volume or measurement of neurohumoral markers that indirectly reflect effective circulatory volume are mostly consistent with either euvolemia or a volume expanded state. The ability to maintain plasma volume in the setting of a decreased plasma oncotic pressure is achieved by alterations in transcapillary exchange mechanisms known to occur in the setting of hypoalbuminemia that limit excessive capillary fluid filtration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a potential cause of a positive D-dimer assay?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deep venous thrombosis
Explanation:A D-dimer test is performed to detect and diagnose thrombotic conditions and thrombosis. A negative result would rule out thrombosis and a positive result although not diagnostic, is highly suspicious of thrombotic conditions like a deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism as well as DIC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most abundant WBC seen in a smear from a healthy person.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neutrophils
Explanation:neutrophils are the most abundant cell type of the WBC. These phagocytes are found normally in the blood and increase in number are seen during an acute inflammation. These the percentages of WBC in blood Neutrophils: 40 to 60%
Lymphocytes: 20 to 40%
Monocytes: 2 to 8%
Eosinophils: 1 to 4%
Basophils: 0.5 to 1%
Band (young neutrophil): 0 to 3%. eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils are known as granulocytes and monocytes and lymphocytes as agranulocytes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 51 year old female presents with a sensation of grittiness in her eyes which has been present for the past few months. She also complains of symptoms of a dry mouth. On examination, she is seen with a swelling of her parotid gland. However, she has no evidence of facial nerve palsy. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sjogren's syndrome
Explanation:Sjogren syndrome (SS) is a long-term autoimmune disease that affects the body’s moisture-producing glands. Primary symptoms are a dry mouth and dry eyes. Other symptoms can include dry skin, vaginal dryness, a chronic cough, numbness in the arms and legs, feeling tired, muscle and joint pains, and thyroid problems. Those affected are at an increased risk (5%) of lymphoma. It primarily affects women in their peri and post-menopausal years of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 27-year old lady is shot in the chest. The bullet enters superior to the upper edge of the clavicle. She had difficulty in breathing which is interpreted by the A&E physician as a likely indicator of a collapsed lung. If that is the case, what portion of the pleura is most likely to have been punctured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cupola
Explanation:The cupola is part of the pleura that extends above the first rib into the root of the lung. Most likely to injured in a stab above the level of the clavicle.
Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural sac.
Pulmonary ligament: is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.
Mediastinal pleura: part of the pleura that lines the mediastinal cavity.
Hilar reflection is the part of the pleura where the visceral pleura of the lung reflects to become continuous with the parietal pleura. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of a two day history of right upper quadrant pain, fever and a white vaginal discharge. She has seen the GP twice in 12 weeks complaining of pelvic pain and dyspareunia. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infectious and inflammatory disorder of the upper female genital tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and adjacent pelvic structures. Infection and inflammation may spread to the abdomen, including perihepatic structures (Fitz-Hugh−Curtis syndrome). The classic high-risk patient is a menstruating woman younger than 25 years who has multiple sex partners, does not use contraception, and lives in an area with a high prevalence of sexually transmitted disease (STD).
PID is initiated by an infection that ascends from the vagina and cervix into the upper genital tract. Chlamydia trachomatis is the predominant sexually transmitted organism associated with PID. Of all acute PID cases, less than 50% test positive for the sexually transmitted organisms such as Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoea.
Other organisms implicated in the pathogenesis of PID include Gardnerella vaginalis (which causes bacterial vaginosis (BV), Haemophilus influenzae, and anaerobes such as Peptococcus and Bacteroides species. Laparoscopic studies have shown that in 30-40% of cases, PID is polymicrobial.
The most common presenting complaint is lower abdominal pain. Abnormal vaginal discharge is present in approximately 75% of cases. Unanticipated vaginal bleeding, often postcoital, is reported in about 40% of cases. Temperature is higher than 38°C (found in 30% of cases), nausea, and vomiting manifest late in the clinical course of the disease. Abnormal uterine bleeding is present in more than one-third of patients.
Right upper quadrant tenderness, especially if associated with jaundice, may indicate associated Fitz-Hugh−Curtis syndrome. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Multiple cells were labelled using a fluorescent dye that doesn’t cross the cell membrane. One cell in the middle was bleached with a light that destroys the dye, but the cell soon recovers its stain. The presence of which structures best explains this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gap junctions
Explanation:Gap junctions are attachments between cells that permit intercellular communication e.g. they permit current flow and electrical coupling between myocardial cells. They allow direct electrical transmission among cells and also permit certain substance to pass through as well. They are either homotypic, formed by two identical hemichannels or heterotypic, formed by different hemichannels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 64 year old man with a history of recurrent anal cancer undergoes a salvage abdominoperineal excision of the anus and rectum. He was treated with radical chemotherapy prior to the procedure. At the conclusion of the surgery, there is a 10cm by 10cm perineal skin defect. Which of the following closure options would be most appropriate in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pedicled myocutaneous flap
Explanation:As a reconstructive option after extensive surgery, pedicled musculocutaneous flaps offer several advantages in the setting of previous radiotherapy. Rotational skin flaps will comprise of irradiated tissue and thus won’t heal well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25 year-old female medical student presents with fever, lack of appetite, rashes, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. Peripheral smear shows atypical lymphocytes. Which is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epstein–Barr virus
Explanation:Epstein-Barr virus is in the herpes family of viruses and most people will become infected with EBV sometime during their lives. EBV commonly causes infectious mononucleosis, or mono, a contagious viral illness that initially attacks the lymph nodes in the neck and throat. When these tissues become less effective in fighting infection, sore throats, swelling of the nodes and fever may result.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old professional tennis player presents to the A&E department with a swollen, painful right arm. On examination, his fingers are dusky.
Out of the following, which is the most appropriate investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venous duplex scan
Explanation:This patient has an axillary vein thrombosis. It classically presents with pain and swelling of the affected limb. Venous duplex scan is needed to exclude a thrombus.
Primary proximal upper-extremity deep vein thrombosis (UEDVT) is less common than its secondary forms. The most common primary form is effort-related thrombosis, also called Paget-Schroetter syndrome. It usually occurs in, otherwise, healthy young men who report, before the onset of thrombosis, vigorous arm exercise such as lifting weights, playing badminton/tennis, pitching a baseball, or performing repetitive overhead activities, such as painting or car repair. Most patients with effort-related UEDVT have an underlying venous thoracic outlet syndrome (VTOS). Secondary causes of UEDVT include central line insertion, malignancy, or pacemakers.
Patients with UEDVT typically present with heaviness, discomfort, pain, paraesthesia, and swelling of the affected arm. Physical examination may reveal pitting oedema, redness, or cyanosis of the involved extremity; visible collateral veins at the shoulder or upper arm; and fever.
Diagnosis is made by:
1. FBC: platelet function
2. Coagulation profile
3. Liver function tests
4. Venous duplex scan: investigation of choice, provides information relating to flow and characteristics of the vessels.
5. D-dimer testing
6. CT scan: for VTOSTreatment options for primary UEDVT are as follows:
1. Anticoagulation therapy should be undertaken with a once-daily regimen of LMWH or fondaparinux for at least five days, followed by vitamin K antagonists for at least three months. Unfractionated heparin instead of LMWH is recommended for patients with renal failure or for those treated with CDT.2. Early thrombus removal and restoration of venous patency aim should be done immediately after starting the patient on heparin. Catheter-based therapy is recommended for patients with proximal UEDVT of recent onset and severe symptoms, low risk for bleeding complications, and good functional status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Vascular
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The petrous part of the internal carotid artery is located inside of which cranial bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temporal
Explanation:The petrous segment, or C2, of the internal carotid is that which is inside the petrous part of the temporal bone. This segment extends until the foramen lacerum. The petrous portion classically has three sections: an ascending, or vertical portion; the genu, or bend; and the horizontal portion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must identify the second costal cartilage by palpating which landmark?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sternal angle
Explanation:The sternal angle is the site for identification of the second rib as the second rib is attached to the sternum at this point.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which antibiotic acts by inhibiting protein synthesis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Penicillins and cephalosporins (e.g. cefuroxime, cefotaxime, ceftriaxone) inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis through the inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking.
Macrolides (e.g. erythromycin), tetracyclines, aminoglycosides and chloramphenicol act by interfering with bacterial protein synthesis.
Sulphonamides (e.g. trimethoprim, co-trimoxazole) work by inhibiting the synthesis of nucleic acid -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male is admitted for an elective hip replacement. Three days postoperatively you suspect he has had a pulmonary embolism. He has no past medical history of note. Blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg with a pulse of 90/min. The chest x-ray is normal. Following treatment with low-molecular-weight heparin, what is the most appropriate initial lung imaging investigation to perform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computed tomographic pulmonary angiography
Explanation:According to the ECS Guidelines 2019, Multidetector Computed tomographic pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the method of choice for imaging the pulmonary vasculature in patients with suspected PE. It allows adequate visualization of the pulmonary arteries down to the subsegmental level.112–114 The Prospective Investigation On Pulmonary Embolism Diagnosis (PIOPED) II study observed a sensitivity of 83% and a specificity of 96% for (mainly four-detector) CTPA in PE diagnosis.
D-dimer levels are elevated in plasma in the presence of acute thrombosis because of simultaneous activation of coagulation and fibrinolysis. The negative predictive value of D-dimer testing is high, and a normal D-dimer level renders acute PE or DVT unlikely. On the other hand, the positive predictive value of elevated D-dimer levels is low and D-dimer testing is not useful for confirmation of PE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Post-operative Management And Critical Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
