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  • Question 1 - Which of the following best describes the correct administration of adrenaline for a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the correct administration of adrenaline for a shockable rhythm in adult advanced life support?

      Your Answer: Give 0.5 mg of adrenaline after the first shock and every 3 - 5 minutes thereafter

      Correct Answer: Give 1 mg of adrenaline after the third shock and every 3 - 5 minutes thereafter

      Explanation:

      The correct administration of IV adrenaline 1 mg (10 mL of 1:10,000 solution) is that it should be given after 3 shocks and every 3 – 5 minutes/after alternate shocks thereafter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 5-year-old girl presents in a paediatric clinic with symptoms of viral gastroenteritis....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents in a paediatric clinic with symptoms of viral gastroenteritis. You encourage the mother to treat the child at home with oral rehydration therapy (ORT), e.g. dioralyte.

      Out of the following, which statement is FALSE regarding the use of ORT in the management of gastroenteritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ORT is sugar-free

      Explanation:

      One of the major complications of gastroenteritis is dehydration. Choosing the correct fluid replacement therapy is essential according to a patient’s hydration status.

      Oral rehydration therapy (ORT) refers to the restitution of water and electrolyte deficits in dehydrated patients using an oral rehydration salt (ORS) solution. It is a fluid replacement strategy that is less invasive than other strategies for fluid replacement and has successfully lowered the mortality rate of diarrhoea in developing countries.

      Some characteristics of Oral rehydration solutions are:
      – slightly hypo-osmolar (about 250 mmol/litre) to prevent the possible induction of osmotic diarrhoea.
      – contain glucose (e.g. 90 mmol/L in dioralyte). The addition of glucose improves sodium and water absorption in the bowel and prevents hypoglycaemia.
      – also contains essential mineral salts

      Current NICE guidance recommends that 50 ml/kg is given over 4 hours to treat mild dehydration.
      Once rehydrated, a child should continue with their usual daily fluid intake plus 200 ml ORT after each loose stool. In an infant, give ORT at 1-1.5 x the normal feed volume and in an adult, give 200-400 ml after each loose stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 3 - An 82 year old man has fever, left sided abdominal and back pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 82 year old man has fever, left sided abdominal and back pain and presents to the emergency room. Imaging reveals a large perinephric abscess. Which of the following most likely describes the fluid location:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between the renal capsule and the renal fascia

      Explanation:

      The perinephric fat is immediately external to the renal capsule and completely surrounds the kidney. The renal fascia surrounds the perinephric fat and the paranephric fat is external to the renal fascia. The location of a perinephric abscess is in the perinephric fat between the renal capsule and the renal fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.

    In...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.

      In which of the following nerves is the gluteus maximus muscle innervated by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The gluteal muscles are a group of muscles that make up the buttock area. These muscles include: gluteus maximus, gluteus medius. and gluteus minimus.
      The gluteus maximus is the most superficial as well as largest of the three muscles and makes up most of the shape and form of the buttock and hip area. It is a thick, fleshy muscle with a quadrangular shape. It is a large muscle and plays a prominent role in the maintenance of keeping the upper body erect.
      The innervation of the gluteus maximus muscle is from the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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  • Question 5 - What is the approximate lifespan of the mature erythrocyte: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the approximate lifespan of the mature erythrocyte:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 120 days

      Explanation:

      Erythrocytes have a normal lifespan of about 120 days. Mature erythrocytes are biconcave discs with no nucleus, ribosomes or mitochondria but with the ability to generate energy as ATP by the anaerobic glycolytic pathway. The red cell membrane consists of a bipolar lipid layer with a membrane skeleton of penetrating and integral proteins anchoring carbohydrate surface antigens. The shape and flexibility of red cells allows them to deform easily and pass through capillaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
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  • Question 6 - Which of the following types of food is most commonly implicated in anaphylactic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of food is most commonly implicated in anaphylactic reactions:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nuts

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis can be triggered by any of a very broad range of triggers, but those most commonly identified include food, drugs, latex and venom. Of foods, nuts are the most common cause; muscle relaxants, antibiotics, NSAIDs and aspirin are the most commonly implicated drugs. Food is the commonest trigger in children and drugs the commonest in adults. A significant number of cases are idiopathic. Most reactions occur over several minutes; rarely, reactions may be slower in onset. The speed of onset of the reaction depends on the trigger e.g. intravenous medications will cause a more rapid onset than stings which in turn will cause a more rapid onset than ingestion of food.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
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  • Question 7 - The last two segments of the nephrons are the distal convoluted tubule (DCT)...

    Incorrect

    • The last two segments of the nephrons are the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting duct (CD).

      Which cell reabsorbs sodium more in the late DCT and CD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Principal cells

      Explanation:

      The main Na+ reabsorbing cells in the late distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct are the principal cells. These make up the majority of the tubular cells.

      The exchange is driven by the Na.K.ATPase pumps on the basolateral membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
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  • Question 8 - Haemophilia B results from a deficiency in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Haemophilia B results from a deficiency in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor IX

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia B is a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of clotting factor IX. It is the second commonest form of haemophilia, and is rarer than haemophilia A. Haemophilia B tends to be similar to haemophilia A but less severe. The two disorders can only be distinguished by specific coagulation factor assays.

      The incidence is one-fifth of that of haemophilia A. Laboratory findings demonstrate prolonged APTT, normal PT and low factor IX.
      Haemophilia B inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion, affecting males born to carrier mothers.
      There is also a variation called Leyden, in which factor IX levels are below 1% until puberty, when they rise, potentially reaching as high as 40-60% of normal. This is thought to be due to the effects of testosterone at puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 9 - A 19-year-old with a longstanding history of asthma presents to the ED with...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old with a longstanding history of asthma presents to the ED with worsening symptoms of cough and wheeze and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) measurement is taken.

      Which statement concerning PEFR is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PEFR is dependent upon the patient's height

      Explanation:

      The maximum flow rate generated during a forceful exhalation, after maximal inspiration is the peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR).

      PEFR is dependent upon initial lung volume. It is, therefore, dependant on patient’s age, sex and height.

      PEFR is dependent on voluntary effort and muscular strength of the patient.

      PEFR is decreased with increasing airway resistance, e.g. in asthma, and it correlates well with the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) value measured in spirometry. This correlation decreases in patients with asthma as airflow decreases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following is NOT a common myeloma laboratory finding: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a common myeloma laboratory finding:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated serum Bence-Jones protein

      Explanation:

      Myeloma laboratory findings include:
      – The presence of a paraprotein in serum or urine (the paraprotein is IgG in 60 percent of cases, IgA in 20 percent, and light chain only in almost all the rest),
      – Increased serum immunoglobulin-free light chain proteins generated by plasma cells but not coupled with heavy chains 
      – Reduced IgG, IgA, and IgM levels in the blood (immune paresis)
      – Anaemia, whether normochromic, normocytic, or macrocytic. 
      – On a blood film, a Rouleaux formation has been marked.
      – In advanced illness, neutropenia and thrombocytopenia are common.
      – ESR is high.
      – Plasma cells in the bone marrow are overabundant, typically in aberrant forms. – Hypercalcemia
      – Creatinine levels are high.
      – Serum albumin levels are low in advanced illness.
      60 percent of patients have osteolytic lesions, osteoporosis, or pathological fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graves disease

      Explanation:

      Graves disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. It is an autoimmune disease in which autoantibodies against TSH receptors are produced. These antibodies bind to and stimulate these TSH receptors leading to an excess production of thyroid hormones. Therefore, the signs and symptoms of Graves disease are the same as those of hyperthyroidism, reflecting the actions of increased circulating levels of thyroid hormones: increased heat production, weight loss, increased 02 consumption and cardiac output and exophthalmos (bulging eyes, not drooping eyelids). TSH levels will be decreased (not increased) as a result of the negative feedback effect of increased T3 levels on the anterior pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
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  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old patient had sustained a supracondylar fracture due to falling from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old patient had sustained a supracondylar fracture due to falling from a skateboard. The frequency of acute nerve injuries accompanying supracondylar humeral fractures ranges from 10 to 20%. The most common complication is injury to which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      According to various studies, the frequency of acute nerve damage associated with supracondylar humeral fractures in children ranges from 10% to 20%.

      Median nerve injury and anterior interosseous nerve injury are the most common consequences.

      Damage to this nerve indicated weakening or abnormal extension of the index finger’s distal interphalangeal joint and the thumb’s interphalangeal joint. The absence of sensibility is a distinguishing attribute.

      A surgical neck humerus fracture may cause injury to the axillary nerve. A midshaft humerus fracture might cause injury to the radial nerve. A medial epicondylar fracture might cause injury to the ulnar nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 13 - Stimulation of J receptors located on alveolar and bronchial walls results in all...

    Incorrect

    • Stimulation of J receptors located on alveolar and bronchial walls results in all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Juxtapulmonary or ‘J’ receptors are located on alveolar and bronchial walls close to the capillaries. Their afferents are small unmyelinated C-fibres or myelinated nerves in the vagus nerve. Activation causes depression of somatic and visceral activity by producing apnoea or rapid shallow breathing, a fall in heart rate and blood pressure, laryngeal constriction and relaxation of skeletal muscles via spinal neurones. J receptors are stimulated by increased alveolar wall fluid, pulmonary congestion and oedema, microembolism and inflammatory mediators. J receptors are thought to be involved in the sensation of dyspnoea in lung disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
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  • Question 14 - Which of the following is the most abundant peripheral blood leucocyte: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most abundant peripheral blood leucocyte:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      Neutrophils are the most abundant peripheral blood leucocyte, comprising about 50 – 70% of circulating white cells. Neutrophils have a characteristic dense nucleus consisting of between two and five lobes, and a pale cytoplasm with an irregular outline containing many fine pink-blue or grey-blue granules. The granules are divided into primary, which appear at the promyelocyte stage, and secondary, which appear at the myelocyte stage and predominate in the mature nucleus. Both types of granule are lysosomal in origin; the primary contains myeloperoxidase and other acid hydrolases; the secondary contains lactoferrin, lysozyme and other enzymes. The lifespan of neutrophils in the blood is only 6 – 10 hours. In response to tissue damage, cytokines and complement proteins, neutrophils migrate from the bloodstream to the site of insult within minutes, where they destroy pathogens by phagocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
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  • Question 15 - A 71-year-old man treated with antibiotics for a chest infection returns with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old man treated with antibiotics for a chest infection returns with a profuse, offensive smelling diarrhoea. A diagnosis of Clostridium difficile diarrhoea is made after investigations.

      The action most effective at minimizing spread to other patients is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hand washing

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile, a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacteria is present in the gut of approximately 3% of healthy adults (2012 UK HPA estimates). Following use of broad spectrum antibiotics, which alter normal gut flora, Clostridium difficile associated diarrhoea (CDAD) occurs.

      Alcohol hand gel is not effective against Clostridium Difficile spores. Hand washing with soap and water is very essential for healthcare workers who come in contact with it.

      Wearing an apron and gloves, and isolation to a side room are important contact precautions. They are, however, ineffective if hand washing is neglected.

      Although oral vancomycin is the first-line treatment for C. difficile associated diarrhoea, it will not limit patient to patient spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
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  • Question 16 - The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic abnormality associated primarily with which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic abnormality associated primarily with which of the following malignancies:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a clonal disorder of a pluripotent stem cell. The disease accounts for around 15% of leukaemias and may occur at any age. The diagnosis of CML is rarely difficult and is assisted by the characteristic presence of the Philadelphia (ph) chromosome. This disease occurs in either sex, most frequently between the ages of 40 and 60 years. In up to 50% of cases the diagnosis is made incidentally from a routine blood count. Leucocytosis is the main feature, with a complete spectrum of myeloid cells seen in the peripheral blood. The levels of neutrophils and myelocytes exceed those of blast cells and promyelocytes.Increased circulating basophils are a characteristic feature. Normochromic normocytic anaemia is usual. Platelet count may be increased (most frequently), normal or decreased. The clinical outlook is very good and 90% of patients can expect long-term control of disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 17 - A 64-year-old woman with a history of chronic breathlessness is referred for lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman with a history of chronic breathlessness is referred for lung function testing.
      Which of the following statements regarding lung function testing is FALSE? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In restrictive lung disease, the FVC is increased

      Explanation:

      In restrictive lung disorders there is a reduction in the forced vital capacity (FVC) and the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1). The decline in the FVC is greater than that of the FEV1, resulting in preservation of the FEV1/FVC ratio (>0.7%).
      In obstructive lung disease, FEV1is reduced to <80% of normal and FVC is usually reduced but to a lesser extent than FEV1. The FEV1/FVC ratio is reduced to <0.7.
      According to the latestNICE guidelines(link is external), airflow obstruction is defined as follows:
      Mild airflow obstruction = an FEV1 of >80% in the presence of symptoms
      Moderate airflow obstruction = FEV1 of 50-79%
      Severe airflow obstruction = FEV1 of 30-49%
      Very severe airflow obstruction = FEV1<30%.
      Spirometry is a poor predictor of durability and quality of life in COPD but can be used as part of the assessment of severity.
      COPD can only be diagnosed on spirometry if the FEV1 is <80% and FEV1/FVC ratio is < 0.7.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
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  • Question 18 - The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic failure

      Explanation:

      The maximum daily dose of paracetamol in an adult is 4 grams. Doses greater than this can lead to hepatotoxicity and, less frequently, acute kidney injury. Early symptoms of paracetamol toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, and usually settle within 24 hours. Symptoms of liver damage include right subcostal pain and tenderness, and this peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion. Other signs of hepatic toxicity include encephalopathy, bleeding, hypoglycaemia, and cerebral oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 19 - Which of the following is NOT a feature characteristic of intravascular haemolysis: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a feature characteristic of intravascular haemolysis:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilirubinuria

      Explanation:

      Features of intravascular haemolysis include:haemoglobinaemia, methaemalbuminaemia, haemoglobinuria (dark urine) and haemosiderinuria

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 20 - From which of the following cell types are platelets derived? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which of the following cell types are platelets derived?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Megakaryocytes

      Explanation:

      Synthesis of platelets occurs in the bone marrow by fragmentation of megakaryocytes cytoplasm, derived from the common myeloid progenitor cell. The average time for differentiation of the human stem cell to the production of platelets is about 10 days. The major regulator of platelet formation is thrombopoietin and 95% of this is produced by the liver. Normal platelet count is 150 – 450 x 109/L and the normal lifespan of a platelet is about 10 days. Usually about one-third of the marrow output of platelets may be trapped at any one time in the normal spleen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
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  • Question 21 - Due to a traffic accident, a male patient was unable to flex his...

    Incorrect

    • Due to a traffic accident, a male patient was unable to flex his arm at the glenohumeral joint. Based on the patient’s current condition, which nerve is most likely damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary and suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      A suprascapular nerve injury causes numbness in the shoulder, as well as weakness in abduction and external rotation.

      Damage to the axillary nerve can result in shoulder or arm muscle weakness, as well as difficulty lifting the arm. This is because the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles, which are innervated by the axillary and suprascapular nerves, are responsible for abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 22 - A paediatric patient comes to the emergency room with complaints of right lower...

    Incorrect

    • A paediatric patient comes to the emergency room with complaints of right lower quadrant pain. The attending physician is considering appendicitis. Inside the operating room, the surgeon asks the medical student to locate the McBurney's point prior to the first incision.

      Which of the following is the surface anatomy of the McBurney's point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: One-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus

      Explanation:

      Inflammation of the appendix is a significant public health problem with a lifetime incidence of 8.6% in men and 6.7% in women, with the highest incidence occurring in the second and third decade of life. While the rate of appendectomy in developed countries has decreased over the last several decades, it remains one of the most frequent emergent abdominal operations. Appendicitis can often result in anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and fever.

      McBurney’s point, which is found one-third of the distance between the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus, is often the point of maximal tenderness in a patient with an anatomically normal appendix. A McBurney’s incision is chiefly used for cecostomy and appendectomy. It gives a limited exposure only, and should any doubt arise about the diagnosis, an infraumbilical right paramedian incision should be used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 23 - You are reviewing a patient following a fall from a horse. You suspect...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient following a fall from a horse. You suspect they may have an Erb's palsy as a result of a brachial plexus injury. Regarding Erb's palsy, which one of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erb's palsy may result in loss of sensation of the regimental badge area.

      Explanation:

      Erb’s palsy is caused by damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots and thus primarily involves the musculocutaneous, suprascapular and axillary nerves. It commonly result from an excessive increase in the angle between the neck and the shoulder e.g. a person thrown from a motorbike or horseback or during a difficult birth. There is loss or weakness of abduction, lateral rotation and flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm and loss of sensation on the lateral arm. A characteristic ‘Waiter’s tip’ deformity may be present where the limb hangs limply by the side, medially rotated by the unopposed action of pectoralis major with the forearm pronated due to paralysis of the biceps brachii.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following describes the pulse pressure: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following describes the pulse pressure:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systolic - diastolic pressure

      Explanation:

      During systole, the pressure in the left ventricle increases and blood is ejected into the aorta. The rise in pressure stretches the elastic walls of the aorta and large arteries and drives blood flow. Systolic pressure is the maximum arterial pressure during systole. During diastole, arterial blood flow is partly maintained by elastic recoil of the walls of large arteries. The minimum pressure reached before the next systole is the diastolic pressure. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is the pulse pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
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  • Question 25 - A 6 year old boy is brought into the ED by his mom...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy is brought into the ED by his mom with a rash that is associated with Koplik's spots and a diagnosis of measles is made. What advice should be given about returning to school?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 days from the onset of the rash

      Explanation:

      Prevention of spread of measles is extremely important and infected patients should be isolated. The infectious stage is from 3 days before the rash emerges and patients are advised to stay away from school/nursery/work for 4 days from onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
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  • Question 26 - Regarding linear relationships between two variables, what does a positive correlation coefficient indicate:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding linear relationships between two variables, what does a positive correlation coefficient indicate:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The two variables are directly proportional

      Explanation:

      A positive correlation coefficient means that the two variables are directly proportional e.g. height and weight in healthy growing children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
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  • Question 27 - Salbutamol should be used with caution in patients with which of the following:...

    Incorrect

    • Salbutamol should be used with caution in patients with which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Susceptibility to QT-interval prolongation

      Explanation:

      Beta-2 agonists should be used with caution in people with:
      Cardiovascular disease, including arrhythmias and hypertension (beta-2 agonists may cause an increased risk of arrhythmias and significant changes to blood pressure and heart rate)
      Diabetes(risk of hyperglycaemia and ketoacidosis, especially with intravenous use)
      Hyperthyroidism(beta-2 agonists may stimulate thyroid activity)
      Hypokalaemia(potentially serious hypokalaemia may result from beta-2 agonist therapy; this effect may be potentiated in severe asthma by concomitant treatment with theophylline, corticosteroids, diuretics and by hypoxia)
      Susceptibility to QT-interval prolongation
      Convulsive disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
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  • Question 28 - Innate, or non-specific, immunity is the immune system we are born with.
    Which of...

    Incorrect

    • Innate, or non-specific, immunity is the immune system we are born with.
      Which of the following is NOT an example of innate immunity? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T-lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Innate, or non-specific, immunity is the immune system we are born with.
      There are three aspects of innate immunity:
      1. Anatomical barriers, such as:
      The cough reflex
      Enzymes in tears and skin oils
      Mucus – which traps bacteria and small particles
      Skin
      Stomach acid
      2. Humoral barriers, such as:
      The complement system
      Interleukin-1
      3. Cellular barriers, such as:
      Neutrophils
      Macrophages
      Dendritic cells
      Natural killer cells
      Antibody production is part of the specific, or inducible immune response. T-lymphocytesare responsible for the cell mediated immune response which is part of specific, or inducible immunity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 29 - Regarding carbohydrate, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding carbohydrate, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Most dietary carbohydrate is in the form of disaccharides.

      Explanation:

      Carbohydrates are the main energy source of most diets. They provide 17 kJ (4 kcal) of energy per gram. Most dietary carbohydrate is in the form of polysaccharides. The principal ingested polysaccharides are starch which is derived from plant sources and glycogen which is derived from animal sources. Dietary fibre consists of indigestible carbohydrate (found in plant foods) such as cellulose, lignin and pectin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
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  • Question 30 - Disease specific immunoglobulin is available for all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT...

    Incorrect

    • Disease specific immunoglobulin is available for all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Disease specific immunoglobulins are available for:
      hepatitis B
      rabies
      tetanus
      varicella-zoster
      Normal immunoglobulin can be used to confer protection against hepatitis A.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
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