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  • Question 1 - A 58-year-old gentleman with a long history of gout presents with loin pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old gentleman with a long history of gout presents with loin pain. Other past history of note includes an ileostomy after bowel surgery. There is no history of weight loss from malabsorption syndrome after his bowel surgery. Excretion urography reveals evidence of bilateral renal stones.

      What is the most likely composition of his renal stones?

      Your Answer: Calcium oxalate

      Correct Answer: Uric acid stones

      Explanation:

      Uric acid stones will most likely be found in this case because of the patient’s long history of gout. Additionally, studies have shown that ileostomy patients have an increased risk for the development of uric acid stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      3
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  • Question 2 - What kind of receptor is the nitric oxide receptor? ...

    Incorrect

    • What kind of receptor is the nitric oxide receptor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guanylate cyclase receptor

      Explanation:

      Soluble guanylyl cyclase (GC-1) is the primary receptor of nitric oxide (NO) in smooth muscle cells and maintains vascular function by inducing vasorelaxation in nearby blood vessels. GC-1 converts guanosine 5′-triphosphate (GTP) into cyclic guanosine 3′,5′-monophosphate (cGMP), which acts as a second messenger to improve blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 3 - A 31-year-old homosexual male is complaining of recent weight loss and blurred vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old homosexual male is complaining of recent weight loss and blurred vision. A fundoscope was performed showing retinal haemorrhage. What is the single most appropriate option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      CMV is the best answer . Weight loss is mostly caused by HIV, which commonly presents with retinal haemorrhage and retinopathy when associated with CMV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 4 - Which one of the following features is least associated with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is least associated with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bone pain

      Explanation:

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include weight loss and lethargy; monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 5 - A 34-year-old male patient is admitted with hemisection of the spinal cord at...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old male patient is admitted with hemisection of the spinal cord at the level T5, after being stabbed in the back. Which sign would you expect to see by assessing the patient's sensory function and muscle strength?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral loss of temperature, ipsilateral loss of fine touch and vibration, ipsilateral spastic paresis

      Explanation:

      Depending on the level of SCI, patients experience paraplegia or tetraplegia. Paraplegia is defined as the impairment of sensory or motor function in lower extremities. Patients with incomplete paraplegia generally have a good prognosis in regaining locomotor ability (,76% of patients) within a year. Complete paraplegic patients, however, experience limited recovery of lower limb function if their NLI is above T9. The spinothalamic tract is the one responsible for sensory information such as pain or temperature. However, it decussates at the same level the nerve root enters the spinal cord, meaning that the sensory loss will be contralateral. However, the dorsal column carries sensory fibres for fine touch and vibration and it decussates at the medulla which means that the sensory loss will be ipsilateral. The corticospinal tract is responsible for motor functions and it decussates at the medulla, meaning that the motor function loss will be ipsilateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman is referred to the outpatient clinic with a 6-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is referred to the outpatient clinic with a 6-month history of diarrhoea. She has had intermittent loose normal-coloured stools 2-3 times a day. She also has up to 10 hot flushes a day but thinks she is entering menopause; her GP has recently started her on hormone replacement therapy.
      15 years ago she had a normal colonoscopy after presenting with abdominal pain and intermittent constipation. She has asthma controlled by inhalers, hypertension controlled by ACE inhibitors and hypothyroidism controlled by thyroxine. She smoked 10 cigarettes a day for the last 30 years and drinks alcohol about 14 units/week.

      On examination, she looks hot and flushed. She is afebrile. Her pulse is regular 92bpm and her BP is 164/82 mmHg. Her respirator rate is 20 breaths/min at rest and she sounds quite wheezy. A widespread polyphonic expiratory wheeze can be heard on chest auscultation.
      Her abdomen is soft. Her liver is enlarged 4 cm below the right costal margin but not-tender.

      Results of blood tests show:

      Na 140 mmol/L,
      K 4.8 mmol/L,
      Glucose 9.8 mmol/L,
      Albumin 41 g/l,
      ALT 94 U/l,
      ALP 61 U/l,
      Bilirubin 18 mmol/L,
      Ca 2.47 mmol/L,
      WCC 10.1 × 109/L,
      Hb 12.2 g/dL,
      MCV 90.5 fl,
      Platelets 234 × 109 /l,
      PT 13 s.

      Chest X-ray is normal.
      Ultrasound of the liver shows an enlarged liver containing three ill-defined mass lesions in the right lobe.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid tumours are of neuroendocrine origin and derived from primitive stem cells in the gut wall, especially the appendix. They can be seen in other organs, including the lungs, mediastinum, thymus, liver, bile ducts, pancreas, bronchus, ovaries, prostate, and kidneys. While carcinoid tumours tend to grow slowly, they have the potential to metastasise.
      Signs and symptoms seen in larger tumours may include the following:
      – Periodic abdominal pain: Most common presentation for a small intestinal carcinoid; often associated with malignant carcinoid syndrome.
      – Cutaneous flushing: Early and frequent (94%) symptom; typically affects head and neck.
      – Diarrhoea and malabsorption (84%): Watery, frothy, or bulky stools, gastrointestinal (GI) bleed or steatorrhea; may or may not be associated with abdominal pain, flushing, and cramps.
      – Cardiac manifestations (60%): Valvular heart lesions, fibrosis of the endocardium; may lead to heart failure with tachycardia and hypertension.
      – Wheezing or asthma-like syndrome (25%): Due to bronchial constriction; some tremors are relatively indolent and result in chronic symptoms such as cough and dyspnoea.
      – Pellagra with scale-like skin lesions, diarrhoea and mental disturbances.
      – Carcinoid crisis can be the most serious symptom of the carcinoid tumours and life-threatening. It can occur suddenly or after stress, including chemotherapy and anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - A 42 year old female presents with a funny bone sensation in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old female presents with a funny bone sensation in her right elbow that is accompanied by numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th digits. The symptoms are aggravated when the elbow is bent for a prolonged period. Which of the following explains the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cubital Tunnel Syndrome is a condition that involves pressure or stretching of the ulnar nerve (also known as the “funny bone” nerve), which can cause numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th digit, pain in the forearm, and/or weakness in the hand. Epicondylitis of the elbow is a condition associated with repetitive forearm and elbow activities. Both lateral epicondylitis (commonly known as tennis elbow) and medial epicondylitis (commonly known as golfer’s elbow) are characterized by elbow pain during or following elbow flexion and extension. Radial tunnel syndrome is a set of symptoms that include fatigue or a dull, aching pain at the top of the forearm with use. Although less common, symptoms can also occur at the back of the hand or wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old gentleman has been receiving dialysis for 6 years. His PTH is...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old gentleman has been receiving dialysis for 6 years. His PTH is elevated at 345 pg/ml (NR 25-65), phosphate 2.13 mmol/l and corrected calcium 2.01 mmol/l.
       
      Of the following, which is most likely responsible for renal osteodystrophy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diminished activity of renal 1-α-hydroxylase

      Explanation:

      Renal osteodystrophy is a metabolic bone disease often affecting long-term dialysis patients. The kidneys are no longer able to maintain the calcium levels in the blood, thus the PTH increases as the body attempts to raise blood calcium levels. Osteomalacia in these cases is most likely caused by the diminished activity of renal 1-a-hydroxylase that is important for hydroxylation of Calciferol to calcitriol (Vitamin D). This bioactive form of Vitamin D is responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 9 - Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?...

    Incorrect

    • Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral asymmetric oligoarthropathy

      Explanation:

      Most patients with psoriatic arthritis present with monoarthritis or asymmetric oligoarthritis. The most common form of the disease is the one involving a few joints of the peripheral skeleton with a distinct asymmetry of symptoms. Involvement of the smaller joints of the hands and feet, especially distal interphalangeal joints, seems to be a characteristic feature. Arthritis mutilans is a rare and severe complication of psoriatic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness in her right knee. Her medical history is significant for osteoarthritis affecting her hand joints and diet controlled diabetes mellitus. On examination, the right knee is swollen, erythematous and tender. Which of the following tests would be most useful in the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspiration and examination of the synovial fluid

      Explanation:

      Arthrocentesis should usually be done when there is a suspicion of pseudogout or septic arthritis as in this case which leads to an early diagnosis and prompt treatment. Polarized microscopy demonstrates weakly positively birefringent rhomboid crystals which are blue when parallel to light and yellow when perpendicular to light. Elevated serum uric acid levels that cause gout are usually found after large consumption of alcohol or meat, or post surgery. Autoimmune diseases like SLE, RA etc require an autoimmune screen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following statements regarding the clinical effects of long-term oxygen therapy...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding the clinical effects of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is the most accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced sympathetic outflow

      Explanation:

      Studies have shown that benefits of Long-tern oxygen therapy (LTOT) include improved exercise tolerance, with improved walking distance, and ability to perform daily activities, reduction of secondary polycythaemia, improved sleep quality and reduced sympathetic outflow, with increased sodium and water excretion, leading to improvement in renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with a 2 month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with a 2 month history of constant abdominal pain and early satiety. He has hypertension for which he takes enalapril.

      On examination, he has mild tenderness on both flanks. Well-circumscribed masses are palpable in both the left and right flanks. A soft systolic murmur is heard loudest at the apex.

      His observations are heart rate 67/min, blood pressure 152/94mmHg, temperature 37.2C, respiratory rate 14/min, saturations 97%.

      Which additional feature is most likely to be found in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatomegaly

      Explanation:

      This patient shows classic symptoms of autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). The abdominal pain and early satiety is caused by the enlarged kidneys that were apparent from the physical examination. Additionally, hypertension is a common symptom along with the systolic murmur that was heard, suggesting mitral valve involvement. In ADPKD cases, the most common extra-renal manifestation is the development of liver cysts which are associated with hepatomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old man was referred for abnormal liver biochemistry. Investigations showed he had...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man was referred for abnormal liver biochemistry. Investigations showed he had an ALT of 98 U/l and was Hep B surface antigen positive.

      Which of the following is true of chronic active hepatitis due to the hepatitis B virus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It carries an increased risk of subsequent hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Chronic hepatitis B patients have an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma. In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have+HBsAg, + anti-HBc, + IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. In immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, +anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. It is important to remember these serologies, it will get you a lot of points on the test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - You want to measure the potential benefit of creating a service dedicated to...

    Incorrect

    • You want to measure the potential benefit of creating a service dedicated to patients with multiple sclerosis in the local area. Which factor would determine how many resources will be required?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      To describe how often a disease or another health event occurs in a population, different measures of disease frequency can be used. The prevalence reflects the number of existing cases of a disease. In contrast to the prevalence, the incidence reflects the number of new cases of disease and can be reported as a risk or as an incidence rate. Prevalence and incidence are used for different purposes and to answer different research questions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 15 - A 40-year-old male patient, who is otherwise healthy and without a significant family...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male patient, who is otherwise healthy and without a significant family history, presents with a history of early morning headache and visual field defects, When asked, he said that he has been having these complaints for three months now. What is the most possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      The most possible diagnosis is a pituitary tumour. Pituitary tumours compress the optic chiasm inferiorly and can cause visual field defects (bitemporal hemianopia or quadrantanopia). Temporal arteritis usually develops in older people and acute glaucoma usually requires a family history. Amaurosis fugax is classed as a stroke and usually leads to reversible unilateral vision loss. A subconjunctival haemorrhage does not typically produce the symptoms described.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 16 - Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Onycholysis is the separation of the distal edge of the nail from the vascular nailbed causing whiteness of the free edge. Causes include:
      – Idiopathic
      – Trauma, excessive manicuring
      – Infection: especially fungal
      – Skin disease: psoriasis, dermatitis
      – Impaired peripheral circulation e.g. Raynaud’s
      – Systemic disease: hyper/hypothyroidism, reactive arthritis, porphyria cutanea tarda
      – Sometimes a reaction to detergents (e.g. washing dishes with bare hands, using detergent-based shampoos or soaps).
      – Patients with hepatocellular dysfunction may develop hair-thinning or hair loss and nail changes such as clubbing, leukonychia (whitening), or onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 61 year old male is noted to be depressed following a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 61 year old male is noted to be depressed following a recent heart attack. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease. Which antidepressant would be appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Major depression (MD) often occurs after MI and has been shown to be an independent predictor of poor cardiovascular (CV) outcome.

      Results of a randomized trial confirm that the antidepressant sertraline can be used safely in patients with recent MI or unstable angina and is effective in relieving depression in these patients.

      Adverse effects to note:
      Sertraline – Diarrhoea (13-24%), Nausea (13-30%), Headache (20-25%),
      Insomnia (12-28%)
      Imipramine – ECG changes, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia
      Confusion, extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), dizziness, paraesthesia, tinnitus
      Flupentixol – seizures, irregular/fast heartbeat, increased sweating
      Paroxetine – Hypertension, Tachycardia, Emotional lability, Pruritus
      Venlafaxine – Abnormal vision (4-6%), Hypertension (2-5%), Paraesthesia (2-3%), Vasodilation (2-6%), Aneurism, Deep vein thrombophlebitis, Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A study is developed to compare the calcemia of men and women with...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to compare the calcemia of men and women with Crohn's disease. The objective of the study is to detect any differences between the average calcium levels in men compared to women. Previous studies have shown a normal distribution regarding calcium levels. Which of the the following tests would you most likely apply?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Student's unpaired t-test

      Explanation:

      A t test is a type of statistical test that is used to compare the means of two groups. It is one of the most widely used statistical hypothesis tests in pain studies. There are two types of statistical inferences: parametric and nonparametric methods. Parametric methods refer to a statistical technique in which one defines the probability distribution of probability variables and makes inferences about the parameters of the distribution. In cases in which the probability distribution cannot be defined, nonparametric methods are employed. T tests are a type of parametric method; they can be used when the samples satisfy the conditions of normality, equal variance, and independence. In this case the data is parametric, comparing two independent samples from the same population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 19 - Which is the most severe form among the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most severe form among the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      The classes refer to the WHO classification of glomerulonephritis in SLE patients.
      class I: normal kidney
      class II: mesangial glomerulonephritis
      class III: focal (and segmental) proliferative glomerulonephritis
      class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
      class V: diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis
      class VI: sclerosing glomerulonephritis

      Class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is the most common and the most severe form, where more than 50% of the glomeruli are involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 20 - An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper...

    Incorrect

    • An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper arm that he has been experiencing for the last few months. The pain is gradually worsening and often wakes him up at night. He is a known case of Paget's disease involving his lumbar spine and pelvis and is currently taking oral bisphosphonates. On examination, shoulder movements are intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his arm pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Paget’s accelerates the remodelling process with old bone breaking down more quickly which disrupts the normal growth process. New bone development eventually adjusts to the faster pace and speeds up on its own. The pace is too fast for healthy bone growth, and the regrowth ends up softer and weaker than normal. The effect of this accelerated process causes bone pain, fractures, and deformities. Since osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer linked to abnormal bone growth, this makes it a rare but possible complication of Paget’s disease although the chances of developing osteosarcoma are minimal. Fractures are painful and restrict movement whereas this patients pain is gradually developing. Pain associated with osteoarthritis is usually mild to moderate and worsens as the day progresses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 21 - A 24-year-old waiter applies for a job at a cafeteria. He gives a...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old waiter applies for a job at a cafeteria. He gives a history of having had enteric fever 2 years ago. Which of the following investigations is most likely to indicate a chronic carrier status?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Culture of intestinal secretions

      Explanation:

      The chronic asymptomatic carrier state is thought to be why there is continued appearance of the bacterium in human populations. As shedding of the organism is intermittent and sometimes at low levels, methods to detect it have been limited. The Salmonella typhi may be cultured from intestinal secretions, faeces or urine in chronic carriers and is recommended to confirm the diagnosis. Vi agglutination test can also be high in normal people in areas with typhoid endemic. Full blood count or blood culture would not be helpful to determine carrier status. Widal antigen test is unable to differentiate carriers from people with a hx of prior infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - Choose the correct formula to calculate the negative predictive value of a screening...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct formula to calculate the negative predictive value of a screening test:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TN / (TN + FN)

      Explanation:

      NPV = TN / FN+TN

      = TN (true negative) / FN+TN (false negative + true negative)

      = Probability (patient not having disease when test is negative)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease characterized by patches of skin typically red, dry, itchy, and scaly. Psoriasis can affect the nails and produces a variety of changes in the appearance of finger and toe nails including pitting and onycholysis. Nail psoriasis occurs in 40–45% of people with psoriasis affecting the skin and has a lifetime incidence of 80–90% in those with psoriatic arthritis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram after taking it for the past two years for his depression. You have agreed to this because he feels well for the past year. What is the most appropriate method of discontinuing Citalopram?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Withdraw gradually over the next 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Citalopram is an antidepressant medication that works in the brain. It is approved for the treatment of major depressive disorder (MDD). Stopping citalopram abruptly may result in one or more of the following withdrawal symptoms: irritability, nausea, feeling dizzy, vomiting, nightmares, headache, and/or paraesthesia (prickling, tingling sensation on the skin).

      When discontinuing antidepressant treatment that has lasted for >3 weeks, gradually taper the dose (e.g., over 2 to 4 weeks) to minimize withdrawal symptoms and detect re-emerging symptoms. Reasons for a slower titration (e.g., over 4 weeks) include use of a drug with a half-life <24 hours (e.g., paroxetine, venlafaxine), prior history of antidepressant withdrawal symptoms, or high doses of antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following types of motor neuron diseases carries the worst prognosis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of motor neuron diseases carries the worst prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progressive bulbar palsy

      Explanation:

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition of unknown cause which can present with both upper and lower motor neuron signs. It rarely presents before 40 years and various patterns of disease are recognised including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, primary lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy and progressive bulbar palsy. In some patients however, there is a combination of clinical patterns. In progressive bulbar palsy there is palsy of the tongue and muscles of chewing/swallowing and facial muscles due to loss of function of brainstem motor nuclei. This carries the worst prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - An 84-year-old retired police officer presents to the neurology clinic with double vision...

    Incorrect

    • An 84-year-old retired police officer presents to the neurology clinic with double vision and unsteadiness whilst walking. He has a past medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia and type 2 diabetes. On examination, you notice a right partial ptosis and miosis. The patient also has notable right facial loss of pain and temperature sensation with left sided truncal sensory loss contralateral to the face. In the clinic, apraclonidine eye drops are added to the affected eye, which causes a dilatation, whilst in the opposite eye, a pupil constriction occurs. After the eye drops have been eliminated from the body, 1% hydroxyamphetamine eye drops are then instilled. One hour after instillation, both pupils dilate.

      Which order of neurons is most likely affected in the sympathetic pathway?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First order

      Explanation:

      Apraclonidine eye drops are initially used to confirm a Horner’s pupil. Apraclonidine stimulates both alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors. When added to the affected eye, it causes pupil dilation by >2mm because of the relative super sensitivity of this pupil to alpha-1 receptor activity. In a normal pupil, however, it causes constriction due to the more potent activity at the alpha-2 receptor which triggers re-uptake of noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft.

      Hydroxy amphetamine is then used to distinguish between first/second or third order neurones. In other words, it will distinguish either a lesion in the brainstem, cervical cord, chest or neck and one affecting above the superior cervical ganglion at the carotid bifurcation. In a normal pupil or a first/second order Horner’s, the pupil will dilate secondary to increased levels of noradrenaline released from the post-synaptic neurones. In a third order neurone, this will not occur. There is no fourth or fifth order neurone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 27 - A 35 year old female is observed wiping off the door handle before...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female is observed wiping off the door handle before going outside. She also says that she has to wash her hands before and after leaving the house. She explains that she gets very uptight and anxious if these are not done in a certain order. This has been ongoing for the past four years and is upsetting her deeply.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exposure-response prevention (ERP) therapy

      Explanation:

      Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is a common, chronic and long-lasting disorder in which a person has uncontrollable, reoccurring thoughts (obsessions) and behaviours (compulsions) that he or she feels the urge to repeat over and over.
      People with OCD may have symptoms of obsessions, compulsions, or both. These symptoms can interfere with all aspects of life, such as work, school, and personal relationships.

      Obsessions are repeated thoughts, urges, or mental images that cause anxiety. Common symptoms include:
      Fear of germs or contamination
      Unwanted forbidden or taboo thoughts involving sex, religion, and harm
      Aggressive thoughts towards others or self
      Having things symmetrical or in a perfect order

      Compulsions are repetitive behaviours that a person with OCD feels the urge to do in response to an obsessive thought. Common compulsions include:
      -Excessive cleaning and/or handwashing
      -Ordering and arranging things in a particular, precise way
      -Repeatedly checking on things, such as repeatedly checking to see if the door is locked or that the oven is off
      -Compulsive counting

      Research also shows that a type of CBT called Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) is effective in reducing compulsive behaviours in OCD, even in people who did not respond well to SRI medication. ERP has become the first-line psychotherapeutic treatment for OCD

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A rise in which of the following antibodies would indicate severe systemic involvement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti double-stranded DNA antibodies

      Explanation:

      Anti ds-DNA antibodies are very specific for SLE and their presence most often indicates systemic spread of the disease. These antibodies are present in about 30 percent of the total cases of SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 29 - A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is currently training for a national athletics championship.

      What is the best treatment option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adequate diet and observation

      Explanation:

      Intensive physical training and participation in competitive sports during childhood and early adolescence may affect athletes’ pubertal development.
      Female athletes who do not begin secondary sexual development by the age of 14 or menstruation by the age of 16 warrant a comprehensive evaluation and treatment.
      Since she is still 14, adequate diet and observation are enough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - A 42 yr. old female presented with pain in her calves during walking...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 yr. old female presented with pain in her calves during walking which settled after resting. On examination there were orange colour deposits in the her palmar creases. Her fasting lipid profile showed a total cholesterol of 9.2 mmol/l (<5) and triglycerides of 7.0 mmol/l (<2). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type III hyperlipidaemia

      Explanation:

      Palmar xanthomas are found in type III hyperlipoproteinemia. Her total cholesterol level and triglyceride level support the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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